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324 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
blood is made of connective tissue in which ___ are suspended in ___.
formed elements, plasma
red blood cells
found in buffy coat between plasma and RBC layers in hematocrit
cell fragments that help in blood clotting, also found in buffy coat in hematocrit
% of RBC's in sample of blood
normal % of RBC's in total blood volume
plasma is __% of the whole blood volume
sticky, opaque, with a metallic taste
blood has a pH of __
7.35-7.45 (fairly neutral)
blood is __% of body weight
there are __ L of blood in men and __ liters of blood in women
5-6, 4-5
functions of blood
what does blood distribute?
-oxygen and nutrients
-wastes to lungs and kidneys
-hormones to target tissue
what does blood regulate
-body temperature
-fluid volume; minerals, blood protiens
how does blood regulate pH?
proteins, etc. act as buffers; "alkaline reserve" of bicarbonate ions
blood protiens
how does blood protect the body?
-clot formation to prevent blood loss
-preventing infection (Ab's, WBC's)
blood plasma is __% water
made up of mostly water; 100+ solutes including nutrients, gases, hormones, wastes, ions, and proteins
plasma proteins are __% volume by weight.
60% of plasma proteins; carrier molecule, buffer, plasma osmotic pressure with Na+
albumin is __% of proteins in blood
blood plasma contains __ kinds of protein
-clotting proteins
proteins that are antibodies (fight infection). found in plasma
only __ are complete cells in blood
most formed elements (cells) survive only for a few days because ___
most are macrophages
most formed elements (cells) do not divide. how are they reproduced?
in the red bone marrow
-biconcave disk
-anucleate with essentially no organelles
-flexible, stackable
-lack mitochondria
-major factor in blood viscosity
fills 97% of available space in a erythrocyte (RBC), responsible for gas transport
each heme group has an __ that can combine with O2
iron set
there are 250 million Hb molecules per RBC and each can carry four oxygen molecules so each RBC can carry __ molecules of O2
1 billion
why is hemoglobin in the RBC's instead of free in the plasma?
to make blood more efficient with movement
hemoglobin bonded to oxygen (bright red)
hemoglobin without oxygen, dark red
CO2 bound to amino acids (not Hb)
has a greater affinity for the O2 binding molecule on hemoglobin and therefore displaces oxygen
Carbon monoxide (CO)
-must be placed in a hyperbaric chamber to rid the body of this.
-if not, death due to lack of oxygen to the tissues
Carbon Monoxide (CO)
RBC formation
occurs in the red bone marrow of the bones of the axial skeleton, girdles, and proximal epiphyses of femur and humerous
eythropoiesis (RBC formation)
where is tissue taken for a bone marrow transplant?
coxal (hip) bones
hemocytoblasts (hematopoietic stem cells) are found in the __
red bone marrow
Erythropoiesis takes __
3-5 days
What hormone controls eyrthropoiesis?
eyrthropoietin (EPO)
__ and __ produce erythropoietin when oxygen is low
kidneys and liver
EPO stimulates red marrow RBC's to __
mature more rapidly
__% of iron is in hemoglobin
what three substances are required for EBO? (also recommended for pregnant women)
-vitamin B12
-folic acid
what is the lifespan of a RBC?
100-120 days
the __ traps many dead or dying RBC's
most iron from dead/dying RBC's is __
abnormally low O2 carrying capacity; symptom of a disorder
low RBC numbers due to bone marrow destruction
aplastic anemia
low RBC numbers due to blood loss
hemorhagic anemias
low RBC numbers due to rupture b/c they are defective
hemolytic anemias (sickle cell)
tiredness, headaches, fatigue, sleepiness are all symptoms of what?
decreased Hb counts due to lack/loss of iron
iron-deficiency anemia
decreased Hb counts due to increased blood volume following exercise
athletes anemia
decreased Hb counts due to vitamin B12/intrinsic factor (something produced in the stomach)
pernicious anemia
decreased Hb counts due to genetics
abnormal hemoglobin
HbS is formed and becomes spiky when O2 deprived; very painful. treated with blood tranfusions
sickle-cell anemia
-less than 1% of blood volume
-move in amoeboid motion
-positive chemotaxis
-seperated in to granulocytes and agranuloctyes
means WBC's have the ability to permeate into capillaries
means WBC's are attracted to certain chemicals released by damaged cells or other WBC's
positive chemotaxis
when WBC count >11,000/mm3; normal response to invasions/infections
types of granulocytes
types of agranuloctyes
-most numerous kind of WBC
-granuloctyes, two types of granules; difficult to see
-polymorphonuclear (3-6 lobes in nucleus)
-chemically attracted to areas of inflammation; active phagocytes
-very effective against bacteria
antibiotic-like proteins in smaller granules
1-4% of WBC's
-blue-red nucleus with two lobes and large coarse red granules
-digestive enzymes in granules
-destroy parasitic worms (flat worms, round worms) increased #'s with asthma, hayfevor
-most rare kind of WBC
-large purple granules that contain histamine (used for allergies)
-second most numerous WBC (25%)
-nucleus fills most of the cytoplasm
-small percentage in blood; most in lymphoid tissues
-largest WBC
-U shaped nucleus
-become macrophages in tissues (destroy foreign entities
the production of WBC's stimulated by chemicals from other cells
-WBC's that have a shorter lifespan (1/2 to 9 days)
-production hormonally stimulated by chemicals from T cells and others
why do granulocytes have a shorter lifespan then agranulocytes?
b/c its in response to something that is short term
WBC that may live for months to years
why is it important that agranulocytes live a long time?
they are memory cells and create immunity
-cancer of WBC's
-WBC's remain unspecialized and mitotic and suppress normal bone marrow functions
-acute and chronic types
what is the probable cause of an increased number of neutrophils?
bacterial infection
what is the probable cause of an increased number of basophils?
what is the probable cause of a decreased number of monocytes?
-cytoplasmic fragments
-contain chemicals that act in clotting process
hormone that stimulates production of platelets
the three phases of hemostasis
1. vascular spasm
2. platelet plug formation
3. coagulation
constriction of blood vessels
what causes vasoconstriction
injury to smooth muscle of vessel walls
what kind of feedback is platelet plug formation?
steps of platelet plug formation
1.endothelium damage exposes collagen fibers
2. platelets swell and form spiked processes, bocome sticky and adhere to collagen
3. serotonin enhances vascular spasm
-many steps
-involves more then 30 substances
-procoagulants (I-XIII) and anitcoagulants (normally dominate)
coagulation (blood clotting)
Phase 1 of coagulation
Intrinsic pathway: (contact activation) triggered by negatively charged surfaces (platelets, collagen, glass)
Extrinsic pathway: triggered by exposure to tissue factor in damaged endothelium
phase 2: (common pathway)
prothrombin activator catalyzes prothrobin-------->thrombin
phase 3: (common pathway)
fibrinogen (from liver)------->fibrin
clot formation completes in __ min; extrinsic pathway is __
3-6, faster
contractile protein complex in platelets that contracts and pulls on fibrin strands, squeezing serum from mass
released by degranulation stimulates smooth muscle and fibroblasts to divide and rebuild wall
platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
fibrin-digesting enzyme produced when plasminogen (blood protein) is activated
__ is inactive until signal from tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)
begins within two days of clot retraction and repair and continues over several days
what are two primary factors limiting clot growth
-removal of coagulation factors
-inhibition of activated factors
clotting factors must __ before clotting can occur (so it does not occur in moving blood, where factors are diluted and washed away)
thromboembolytic condition where there is a clot in an intact vessel
thromboembolytic condition where there is a free floating clot
what does asprin and warfarin (coumadin) do?
thin blood
bleeding disorder due to platelet deficiency
-bleeding disorder
-types A and B
-deficiency of clotting factors VIII and IX
-sex-linked recessive
RBC's have __ on the surface
__ and __ are most important in transfusions
ABO and Rh
preformed antibodies that act RBC's carrying agglutinogens when pressent on the RBC
-universal recipiant
-1-4% of population
type AB blood
11-20% of whites and blacks
type B blood
27% of whites, 40% of blacks
type A blood
-universal donar
-45% whites, 49% blacks, 79% native americans
type O blood
where does Rh come from?
the rhesus monkeys
__% of the population are Rh+
__ antibodies are only formed in blood upon exposure
-a condition in which a baby is born anemic and hypoxic due to mothers Rh antibodies crossing placenta and attacking the babies blood
-tranfusions should be done before birth and one or two exchange transfusions after birth
erythroblastosis fetalis
-donor RBC's attacked by recipients agglutinins
-clumping of RBC's leads to RBC rupture and Hb release
-may cause decreased O2-carrying capacity and clumping of RBC's may hinder blood flow
-Hb in bloodstream passes into kidney tubules, precipitating and blooking---->renal shutdown
-fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, toxicity (not lethal)
transfusion reactions
__ is done prior to blood transfusions
blood typing
what can tell you a person might be anemic?
pale, low hematocrit
what can tell you a person might be suffering from lipidemia?
yellowish blood (fat in bloodstream)
this can tell you things like large amounts of eosinophils indicate parasitic infection or allergic response
Differential WBC count
amount of prothrombin in the blood (shows clotting activity)
prothrombin time
cavity of the thorax where the heart is found
inferior tip of the heart that points to the left
anterior tip of the heart, attachments here (top)
double layered fibroserous sac covering the heart
outer-most covering of heart; protects and anchors heart to other structures and prevents overfilling
fibrous pericardium
covering of heart made of the parietal layer and visceral layer (epicardium)
serous pericardium
part of the visceral layer that is part of the heart wall
visceral layer (epicardium)
lines the chambers and covers valves
flaps of atria that are visible
why is there a fossa ovalis in the heart
b/c in fetus heats, the blood does not need to pump through the heart.
what is important about pulmonary veins?
they are the only veins that carry oxygenated blood
ridges of muscle in the ventricle
trabeculae carnae
connected to valves, make valves one way
papillary muscles
__ and __ take blood away from the heart
pulmonary trunk and aorta take blood away from the heart
__ take deoxygenated blood to the heart
take oxygenated blood to the body
what is unique about the pulmonary arteries?
only artery that pumps deoxygenated blood
valve between right atrium and ventricle
tricuspid valve
valve between left atrium and ventricle
bicuspid (mitral) valve
what is the function of the valves?
to prevent blood from going into the atrium when the ventricle contacts
anchor valves to papillary muscles (to make valve one way)
chordae tendineae
open when ventricles contract
pulmonary and aortic semilunar valves
the heart is __ of the body weight but uses __ of the blood supply (more to left ventricle
1/200, 1/20
deficiency of blood to myocardium
angina pectoris
what does nitroglycerin do?
dialates blood vessels
prolonged coronary artery blockage (heart attack)
myocardial infraction
a clot in the left anterior descending artery causing immediate death
widow maker
Where veins join, empties into the right atrium
coronary sinus
-short, flat, branching, interconnected cells with one or two nuclei
-large, numerous mitochondria (25% of volume) for energy
-dependent on oxygen and aerobic respiration
-can burn glucose, fatty acids, even lactic acid
cardiac muscle
allow ions to pass between cardiac muscle cells because of gap junctions
intercalated discs
due to gap junctions, fibers are electrically coupled and behave as a unit
functional syncytium
__% of cardiac muscle cells are autorythmic (fire on their own)and the rest are contractile muscle fibers
-slow calcium channels (causes plateau in AP)
-all-or-none-law (applies at organ level but not cellular due to gap junctions)
-autorhythmicity or automaticity (some cells are self-excitable and initiate depolarization)
longer absolute refractory period prevents tetanic contractions
differences in cardiac from skeletal muscle
noncontractile cardiac cells that initiate and distribute impulses
intrinsic conduction system
-unstable resting potential due to gradual reduced permeability to K+ while Na+ continues to diffuse into cell
-pacemaker potentials
-K+ leaving causes repolarization
action potentials of autorhythmic cells
spontaneously changing membrane potentials that cause contraction
pacemaker potentials
excitation tract
SA node-->AV node-->AV bundle-->bundle branches-->purkinje fibers
in the right atrial wall; 75x per minute (fastest); that determines sunus rhythm
Sinoatrial (SA) node
delays 1 second so the atria can contract. fibers are smaller in diameter
Atrioventricular (AV) node
only connection between atria and ventricles
AV bundle (bundle of His)
cause ventricle depolarization; more on the left side (more muscle) supply papilary muscle first
purkinje fibers
irregular heart rhythms
rapid, out of phase contractions
damage to AV node (1rst, 2nd, 3rd degree)
heart block
-cardioacceleratory center in medulla of brain
-cardioinhibitory center in medulla
extrinsic innervation
what 3 waves make up an ECG or EKG
-P wave
-QRS complex
-T wave
deflection wave of EKG that represents the depolarization of the atria
P wave
deflection wave of EKG that represents the ventricular depolarization (atrial repolarization
QRS complex
deflection wave of EKG that represents the ventricular repolarization (slower then deplarization)
T wave
at what point do the atria contract?
right after the p wave
at what point do the ventricles contract?
between the R and S
the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle
the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle
all events associated with flow of blood in one heartbeat (atrial and ventricular systole and diastole)
cardiac cycle
low BP in heart; 70% of ventricular filling then atrial systole following P wave
ventricular filling (mid to late diastole)
completely closed for split second and constant volume (isometric contraction phase) followed by opening of semilunar valves and ventricular ejection phase
ventricular systole
following T wave; dicrotic notch caused by short rise in aortic pressure when semilunar valve closes (ventricles totally close)
isovolumetric relaxation (early diastole)
total heart relaxation
quiescent period
the first of the heart sounds (lub):
closure of AV valves; onset of sytole; loudest sound
the second of the heart sounds (dub):
closing of semilunar valves during diastole
abnormal sounds; obstruction causes turbulence; incomplete valves (swishing) (pulmonary stenosis)
heart murmurs
the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle for one minute=
cardiac output=HRxSV
amount of blood pumped per beat
stroke volume (SV)
the difference between resting and maximal cardiac output
cardiac reserve
the difference between end diastolic volume and end systolic volume=
degree of stretch of heart muscle just prior to contraction
states that blood coming into the ventricles stretches the heart and cause optimal muscle contraction
frank-starling law of the heart
stretching of the heart increases __ and causes greater contraction force
cross-bridge numbers
any factor that increases __ or __ of venous return will increase EDV, SV, and strength of contractions
volume, speed
this stretches ventricles
venous return
pressure that must be overcome for blood to be ejected
what are ways the paraympathetic system can regulate heart rate?
1. ACh (open potassium channels)
2. vagal tone (dominant influence at rest)
what are ways the sympatetic nervous system can regulate heart rate?
1. NE and E (cause threshold t be reached faster and enhance contractility)
what do epinephrine and thyroxine do to heart rate?
increase heart rate
having a resting heart rate over 100 BPM
having a resting heart rate less then 60 BPM
receives all venous blood in fetus; becomes right atrium and coronary sinus
sinus venosus
with truncus arteriosus, give rise to pulmonary trunk, aorta, and right ventricle in fetus
bulbus cordis
lung bypass between rumonary trunk and aorta in fetus
ductus arteriosus
between atria for pulmonary circut bypass
foramen ovale
remnant of ductus arteriosus
ligamentum arteriosum
the walls of blood vessels are made of __
three tunics around the lumen
endothelium (simple squamous); continuous with endocardium
tunica intima
circular smooth muscles that cause vasoconstriction and vasodilation
tunica media
-collagen fibers that protect and anchor vessels
tunica adventitia
blood supply for nurishment in large vessels only
vasa vasorum
-large, thick walled vessels near heart
-the aorta and its branches
-conduncting artieries
elastic arteries
contain large lumen; conduct blood to other arteries under low pressure
conducting arterites
-distributing arteries
-thickest layers; more active in vasocontriction
muscular arteries
-the larger have all three tunics with little elastin in media
-smaller into capilaries have single smooth muscle layer around endothelium
-have tunica intima only
-average length is 1 mm and lumen 8-10 microns (RBC)
-none in tendons, ligaments, cartilage, epithelia, cornea, and lens
type of capillary:
-skin and muscle (most common)
-cells joined by tight junctions with gaps called intercellular clefts for passage of fluids and solutes
continuous capillaries
type of capillary:
-more permealbe to fluids and small solutes
-found in small intestine (absorbtion), endocrine organs (proteins are large), and kidneys (filtration)
fenestrated capillaries
type of capillary:
-highly modified (leaky)
-large moecules and blood cells can pss between blood and tissues
-found in liver, bone marrow, lymphoid tissues, and some endocrine organs
sinusoidal capillaries or sinusoids
there are __ true capillaries per capillary bed, depending on the needs of the tissue
what is the path of blood through the capillary bed from teh terminal ateriole to the postcapillary venule?
terminal ateriole-->metateriole-->capillary-->thoroughfare channel-->postcapillary venule
at metarteriole; regulates bloodflow into the capillary bed
precapillary sphincter
the union of capillaries
-where venules unite
-made of three tunics, but thinner with larger lumen
-media contains little elastin or muscle (no constriction or dilation)
contain up to 65% of blood volume at any given time and therefore are called blood reservoirs
prevent backflow of blood in veins
venous valves
bad venous valves that have backflow and blood pooling
varicose veins
-where vascular channels unite
-three kinds: arterial, arteriovenous, and venous
vascular anastomoses
volume of blood flowing through vessel, organ, or entire circulation in a period of time (mL/min)
blood flow
-force exerted on wall of vessel by blood
-measured in mm of mercury (mmHg)
blood pressure
-opposition to flow of blood
-measure of friction that the blood encounters
internal resistance related to the thickness of blood
blood viscosity
how does blood viscosity affect blood pressure?
the thicker the blood, the harder the work for the heart
the longer the blood vessel, the __ resistance
distensibility of elastic arteries and volume of blood into them
arterial blood pressure
measures the force exerted on the wall of a vessel by blood when the ventricles contract (120 mmHg)
systolic pressure
measures the force exerted on the wall of a vessel by blood when the aortic pressure drops to its lowest level as elastic arterioles recoil to maintain pressure (80 mmHg)
diastolic pressure
systolic pressure-diastolic pressure=__....(increases with arttherosclerosis)
pulse pressure
-diastolic pressure+pulse pressure/3
-pressure that propels the blood to tissues throughout cardiac cycle
-diastole longer than systole, hence, 1/3 pulse pressure
mean arterial pressure
what is the blood pressure in a capillary
-40 mm Hg, 20 at ends
__ are fragile and permeable
venous blood pressure is a steady __ mmHg
three factors of venous return:
-respiratory pump
-muscular pumps
-venous valves
inhaling increases abdominal pressure and thoracic pressure drops increasing venous return
respiratory pump
skeletal muscles around veins contract and push blood up
muscular pumps
valves that prevent back flow of blood in veins
venous valves
blood pressure=__x__
cardiac output x peripheral resistance
the __ nerve maintains resting heart rate
__ primarily controls stroke volume
venous return
short term chemical control that increases vasoconstriction and cardiac output
adrenal medulla hormones
short term chemical control that controls water conservation and vasoconstriction
inhibits ADH (antidiuretic hormone) and depresses vasomotor center, vasodilation of skin, etc.
temperature, pulse, respiratory rate
vital signs
radial is most common place to take this, also called pressure points that if compressed will stop bleeding
ways to monitor circulation:
-vital signs
-blood pressure
you use a sphygmomanometer to measure __ by listening to the sounds of korotkoff
blood pressure
-when systolic pressure <100
-may be a sign of poor nutrition (low BP)
-may be caused by addison's disease, hypotheyroidism, or circulatory shock
-BP 140/90 or higher
-increased peripheral resistance
-30% of people 50 years of age have this
-strains heart and damages arteries
chronic hypertension
-factors include: 90% unknown cause, diet, obesity, age, race, heredity, stress, smoking, diabetes
-treated with diuretics, diet restrictions, medications
primary or essential hypertension
-delivery of oxygen and nutrients
-gas exchange
-nutrient absorbtion
-urine formation
tissue perfusion
blood flow to each organ is __
precisely controlled
velocity of blood flow is __ where cross-sectional area is least
combined cross-sectional area of vascular bed increases and volume held is greater therefore velocity __
velocity of blood flow is __ in the capilaries
why is it important that blood velocity is slowest in the capillaries?
gas exchange
-automatic adjustment of blood flow to each tissue proportional to its requirements
autoregulation of blood flow
modifies diameter of local arterioles feeding the capillaries
intrinsic controls of autoregulation
controls nutrients (oxygen), and wastes in blood
metabolic controls
controls the amount of stretch of vascular smooth muscle causes constriction or dilation
myogenic controls
wastes and nutrients move from an area of __ to __ in and out of capillaries
high concentration, low concentration
the force being exerted by a fluid against walls of vessels
hydrostatic pressure
what is the hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries?
blood pressure
the force pushing fluids into capillaries because of a higher concentration gradient of blood proteins inside the capillary
interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
what removes the fluid left over after interstitial fluid pressure in capillaries?
-created by presence of nondiffusible molecules in fluid such as plasma proteins in capillaries
-molecules draw water towards them or encourage osmosis
capillary colloid osmotic pressure
__ is greater then that of interstitial fluid
capillary colloid osmotic pressure
net sum of hydrostatic and osmotic pressure
net filtration pressure
lymphatics are a __ system
lymphatic vessels and lymphoid tissue and organs throughout body
lymphatic system
fluid that enters lymphatic vessels
between tissue cells and capillaries in loose connective tissue
lymph capillaries
in lymph capillaries, endothelial cells overlap forming __
fine filament bundles anchor endothelial cells to other strutures so an increase in intersitial fluid volume __ flaps
in microvilli of small intestine; carry digested fats, etc. forming a white fluid
formed by union of large collecting vessels
lymphatic trunks
drains fluids from the right arm, head, and thorax
right lymphatic duct
drains fluid from the left side of head, neck , thorax, and entire body below diaphragm
thoracic duct
both the right lymphatic and thoracic duct empty into venous circulation at junction of __
internal jugular and subclavian veins
-skeletal muscle pump
-pressure changes in thorax
-pulsation of arteries in area
-smooth muscle contractions in walls of lymphatic trunks and thoracic duct
methods of lymph transport
lymph transport is __ then veins; _L in 24 hours
slower, 3
you should __ infected areas because physical activity and passive movement increase rate of lymph flow which can spread
blockage by tumors, removal of lymphatics in surgery may cause
control immune response (helpers and suppressors) and directly attack
T cells
produce plasma cells that secrete antibodies to immobilize antigens (bacteria toxins, viruses, RBC's, cancer cells) to be destroyed by macrophages, etc.
B cells
phagocytes and activate T cells
in lymphoid tissue; phagocytes
dendrtic cells
fibroblast-like; produce reticular fiber stroma that suports other cells
reticular cells
-loose connective tissue found in all lymphoid organs but thymus
-macrophages on fibers and lymphocytes in spaces
reticular connective tissue
-may have germinal centers that have mainly B cells and these centers enlarge when B cells are active
-may form lymph nodes, peyer's patches ect.
lymphatic follicles (nodules)
type of lymphoid organs
-lymph nodes
filter with macrophages to remove and destroy microorganisms and debris and activate immune system via lymphoctes
lymph nodes
densely packed follicles with many germinal centers with dividing B cells
medullary cords (extensions of cortex) contain lymphoctes and plasma cells
large lymph capillaries throughout lymph node; many macrophages
lymph sinuses
indented region where lymph exits via efferent lymphatic vessels
fewer of these than afferent, so lymph stagnates some in nodes
efferent lymphatic vessels
why is it good that lymph stagnates some in the lymph nodes?
b/c macrophages can look thorough lymph for abnormal cells
the spleen, thymus, tonsils, and peyers patches are all composed of what kind of tissue?
reticular connective tissue
true or false? the spleen, thymus, tonsils, and peyers patches all filter lymph.
largest lymphoid organ
the spleen is highly __
the spleen is a site for lymphocites __ and immune surveillane and response
the spleen removes defective cells, platelets, debrins, foreign matter, bacteria, viruses, toxins ext. this is called __
blood filtering
the spleen stores __ and releases some for reuse by line (iron)
RBC breakdown components
the spleen is the site for __ in the fetus
RBC production
reticular tissue with RBCs and macrophages; RBC disposal, pathogens
Red pulp
when teh liver and bone marrow macrophages take over spleen functions
located the lower neck into mediastinum
-secretes thymosin and thymopoietin for T cells to become immuocompetent
the thymus's attrification with old age
deals with T cell maturation only-does not directly fight antigens; actually has a barrier to prevent premature activation of T cells
__ secrete thymus hormones
-located around entrance to phaynx
-remove pathogiens from air and food with crypts trapping bacteria and matter, helps produce variety of immune cells with "memory" but it is risky to invite the pathogens in
largest tonsil, most often infected
clusters of nodules similar to tonsils in ileum of small inestine
peyers patches
-adjuct lymphatic tissue off of cecum
-destroys bacteria
-generates memory lyphocytes for long term immunity
peyers patches, apendix, and lymphatic organs in bronchi
mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT)