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IC rating study questions

Ic Rating Study Questions

by coachstitchhy@gmail.com, Jan. 2015

Subjects: back 1 14325 all basic bmr chapter chapter exam military navedtra navy of questions requirements review

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	What temperature IC-J detector is located in magazines? What color is associated?	105, red
	What temperature is IC-J alarms located in berthings? What color is associated?	125, blue
	What temp IC-J alarm is located in engineering spaces? What color is associated?	150, black
	When a synchro reads 180* off, what leads are reversed?	S1 and S3
	How long does a WSN-7 align F calibrate for?	72 hours
	If there is a small cut in a fiber strand, will it cause no data loss, slight data loss, or complete data loss?	Indeed
	In a parallel circuit the total resistance is less than the smallest resistor.	In a parallel circuit the total resistance is less than the smallest resistor.
	Maximum BF% for females is	33%
	Principle advantage of the front service IC switchboard	Can be bulkhead mounted to save space.
	What signals are not transmitted over the. 6MC circuit loudspeaker?	Alarm signals
	What is the definition of a free gyroscope?	A universal-mounted, spinning mass.
	When spinning, what two gyro properties exist that do not at rest?	Rigidity and precession
	How is a gyroscope made more rigid?	Make the rotor heavier and
	Navy performance evaluation system	BUPERSINST 1610.10
	Ships maintenance and material management (3M) manual	NAVSEAINST 4790.8C
	Navy entertainment motion picture program administration	BUPERSINST 1710.15
	Joint fleet maintenance manual	COMUSFLTFORCOMINST 4790.3
	Basic military requirements	NAVEDTRA 14325
	Naval Military Personnel Manual	NAVPERS 15560
	US Navy Uniform Regulations	NAVPERS 15665
	ENLISTED TO OFFICER COMMISSIONING PROGRAMS APPLICATION	OPNAVINST 1420.1
	Suicide prevention program	OPNAVINST 1720.4A
	Operational risk management	OPNAVINST 3500.39
	Navy equal opportunity policy	OPNAVINST 5354.1
	Navy fraternization policy	OPNAVINST 5370.2
	SAPR	SECNAVINST 1752.4B
	WHAT DIRECTIVE PROVIDES GUIDANCE IN PERFORMANCE EVALUATION AND COUNSELING?	BUPERSINST 1610.10
	WHO MUST COMMANDING OFFICERS SUBMIT PROPERLY AUTHORIZED FITNESS AND EVALUATION REPORTS ON?	ANY MEMBER WHO HAS REPORTED TO THEM FOR ACTIVE DUTY, WHETHER JUNIOR OR SENIOR TO THEM IN GRADE.
	HOW ARE PERFORMANCE TRAITS GRADED?	ON A 5–POINT SCALE, FROM 1.0(LOWEST) TO 5.0(HIGHEST)
	WHAT PERFORMANCE TRAIT GRADE REPRESENTS PERFORMANCE TO FULL NAVY STANDARDS?	3
	WHAT FITREPS IS NO PROMOTION RECOMMENDATION HIGHER THAN "PROMOTABLE" ALLOWED?	PAYGRADES 0–1 AND 0–2 (WITH THE EXCEPTION OF LIMITED DUTY OFFICERS)
	HOW ARE COMMANDING OFFICERS AND OFFICERS IN CHARGE AUTOMATICALLY "REPORTING SENIORS?"	BY VIRTUE OF THEIR COMMAND AUTHORITY.
	WHAT REPORTS MAY BE SIGNED BY AN ENLISTED OFFICER IN CHARGE IN THE GRADE OF E–9 AND CIVILIANS IN COMMAND POSITIONS IN THE GRADE OF GS–11?	REPORTS ON E–5 AND BELOW.
	WHAT REPORTS MAY BE SIGNED BY A CHIEF PETTY OFFICER OR SENIOR CHIEF PETTY OFFICERS?	REPORTS ON E–4 AND BELOW ONLY
	WHAT SIGNATURES ARE REQUIRED ON EVALS FOR E–6 PERSONNEL AND BELOW?	A RATER AND SENIOR RATER, AS WELL AS THE REPORTING SENIOR.
	WHO MAY BE THE RATER FOR E–1 TO E–4 PERSONNEL?	AN E–6 OF CIVILIAN EQUIVALENT.
	WHO MAY BE THE RATER FOR E–5 AND E–6 PERSONNEL?	A CHIEF PETTY OFFICER WHENEVER POSSIBLE, OR THE RATER MAY BE A MILITARY OR CIVILIAN SUPERVISOR WHO IS AN E–7 EQUIVLENT OR HIGHER.
	TYPICALLY, WHO WILL BE THE SENIOR FOR ENLISTED EVALS?	THE MEMBER'S DIVISION OFFICER OR DEPARTMENT HEAD.
	WHO DETERMINES THE COUNSELING METHODS USED AT A COMMAND?	THE COMMANDING OFFICER OR OFFICER IN CHARGE.
	WHEN DOES PERFORMANCE COUNSELING START?	WITH A FAIR ASSESSMENT OF THE MEMBER'S PERFORMANCE AND CAPABILITIES, TO WHICH THE MEMBER CONTRIBUTES.
	WHAT MUST NEVER BE PROMISED DURING COUNSELING SESSION?	A FUTURE PROMOTION RECOMMENDATION.
	WHAT ARE THE THREE TYPES OF PERFORMANCE REPORTS?	REGULAR, CONCURRENT, AND OPERATIONAL COMMAND REPROTS
	WHAT TRAIT GRADE IS IS RESERVED FOR PERFORMANCE THAT IS FAR ABOVE STANDARDS?	5
	WHAT TRAIT GRADE SHOULD BE ASSIGNED TO THE MAJORITY OF SAILORS?	2.0–4.0 RANGE.
	WHAT TRAIT GRADE IS GIVEN FOR "SUPERSTAR PERFORMANCE" WHERE THE MEMBER COULD BE PROMOTED TWO PAYGRADES AND STILL BE A STANDOUT IN TRAIT?	5
	WHAT TRAIT IS GIVEN FOR "ADVANCED PERFORMANCE" WHERE THE MEMBER IS READY FOR PROMOTION IN THE TRAIT RIGHT NOW?	4
	WHAT TRAIT GRADE IS GIVEN FOR "FULLY–QUALIFIED" JOURNEYMAN PERFORMANCE WHO CAN HANDLE THIS ASPECT OF THE NEXT HIGHER PAYGRADE?	3
	WHAT GRADE IS GIVEN FOR "USEFUL AND PROMISING PERFORMANCE??	2
	WHAT SHOULD BE THE BASIS FOR COMMENTS IN THE COMMENTS BLOCK?	VERFIABLE FACTS.
	WHERE IS NUMERICAL RANKING AMONG PEERS AUTHORIZED?	IN THE COMMENTS BLOCK.
	WHEN MUST ALL E–1 TO E–4 REPORTS BE TYPED, BATCHED, AND FORWARDED TO COMNAVPERSCOM?	BEGINNING 15 JUNE 2006.
	WHEN ARE CONTINUATION SHEETS AND ENCLOSURES ALLOWED WITH REPORTS?	WHEN AN ENDORSED STATEMENT IS SUBMITTED BY THE MEMBER OR WHEN A FLAG OFFICER ENDORESEMENT IS REQUIRED.
	WHEN MUST YOU SPECIFICALLY SUBSTANTIATE GRADES IN THE COMMENTS SECTION OF A REPORT?	ALL 1.0, THREE 2.0, ALONG WITH ANY GRADE BELOW 3.0 IN COMMAND OR ORGANIZATIONAL CLIMATE/ EQUAL OPPORTUNITY.
	WHEN MAY A MARK OF "PROGRESSING" NOT BE ASSIGNED ON AN EVAL?	WHEN A RECOMMENDATION FOR ADVANCEMENT HAS BEEN GIVEN IN A PREVIOUS REPORT IN THE SAME PAYGRADE.
	WHAT WERE SUMMARY GROUPS FORMERLY KNOWN AS?	COMPARISON GROUPS.
	GENERALLY, WHAT ARE ENLISTED SUMMARY GROUPS?	CONSISTS OF ALL MEMBERS IN THE SAME PAY GRADE (REGARDLESS OF RATING) AND SAME PROMOTION STATUS, WHO RECEIVETHE SAME TYPE OF REPORT FORM THE SAME REPORTING SENIOR ON THE SAME ENDING DATE.
	WHAT IS MANDATORY ON THE BOTTOM OF THE SUMMARY LETTER IN THE BLOCKS PROVIDED?	VERIFY OR HANDWRITE POC'S EMAIL ADDRESS AND TELEPHONE NUMBER.
	WHEN MAY A REPORTING SENIOR, FOR GOOD CAUSE, SUBMIT AND ADMINISTRATIVE CHANGE OR EVALUATION SUPPLEMENT?	WITHIN TWO YEARS FROM THE ENDING DATE OF A REPORT.
	WHEN MAY A MEMBER SUBMIT A STATEMENT TO THE RECORD CONCERNING THEIR REPORT?	EITHER AT THE TIME OF THE REPORT OR TWO YEARS AFTER.
	HOW LONG MUST A REPORTING SENIOR DETERMINE THE NUMERICAL ERROR CODES FOR REJECTION REPORTS?	ITS ANNOTATED ON BOL CONTINUITY PAGE.
	WHAT ARE THE ENDING DATES FOR ENLISTED FITREPS/EVALS?	ALWAYS ON THE 15TH DAY OF THE MONTH.
	WHAT ARE THE ENDING DATES FOR OFFICER FITREPS?	ALWAYS ON THE LAST DAY OF THE MONTH.
	WHEN MAY A PERIODIC REPORT BE OMITTED?	WHEN THE MEMBER HAS RECEIVED A GRADED REGULAR REPORT WITHIN THE PAST THREE MONTHS.
	WHO ARE "FTS" PERSONNEL?	MEMBERS OF THE U.S. NAVY RESERVE WHO ARE "FULL TIME SUPPORT" (FTS). FORMERLY KNOWN AS TARS, OFFICERS HAVE DESIGNATORS AS XXX7.
	WILL A REPORT BE CONSIDERED ADVERSE SOLELY BECAUSE IT MAY MAKE THE MEMBER LESS COMPETITIVE THAN ANOTHER FOR PROMOTION OR ASSIGNMENT?	NO
	WHEN MAY RATERS AND REPORTING SENIORS KEEP NOTES FOR THEIR PERSONAL USE AS MEMORY AIDS?	WHEN THE MATERIALS ARE SAFEGUARDED TO PREVENT UNAUTHORIZED DISCLOSURE AND AREN'T CIRCULATED TO ANYONE ELSE.
	WHEN MUST REPORT DRAFTS BE DESTROYED?	WHEN THE FINISHED REPORT IS SIGNED.
	HOW ARE REPORTS ON OFFICERS RETAINED BY COMMANDS?	IN CIMMAND FILED, RATHER A LOG OF THE FITREPS IS MAINTAINED ON THEIR SUBMISSION AND THE PERIODS COVERED.
	WHO SUPPLIES APPLICATION PROGRAMS TO SUPPORT AUTOMATED PREPARATION AND SUBMISSION OF FITREPS AND EVALS?	COMNAVPERSCOM (PERS–311)
	WHAT TYPEFACE IS USED FOR FITREPS AND EVALS PREPARED WITH A TYPEWRITER OR WORD PROCESSOR?	10 OR 12 POINT
	WHAT FORMAT IS USED FOR ENTERING THE ADMINISTRATIVE BLOCKS OF FITREPS AND EVALS?	ALL CAPS
	WHAT FORMAT IS USED FOR ENTERING INFO IN THE NARRATIVE BLOCKS OF FITREPS AND EVALS?	BOTH UPPER AND LOWER CASE
	WHAT IS THE FORMAT FOR ENTERING A MEMBER'S NAME IN BLOCK 1?	LAST NAME, FIRST NAME, MI, AND SUFFIXEXAMPLE: HUNT, SHEENA S
	WHAT GRADE OR RATE IS ENTERED IN BLOCK 2?	THE ONE THE MEMBER IS WEARING ON THE ENDING DATE OF THE REPORT.
	WHAT IS THE FORMAT FOR ENTERING TWO ENLISTED DESIGNATORS IN BLOCK 3?	SEPARATE THEM WITH A SLASH
	BLOCK 6 (UIC) WILL MATCH WHAT OTHER BLOCK ON THE REPORT?	THE PRIMARY UIC OF THE REPORTING SENIOR IN BLOCK 26.
	WHAT IS INDICATED BY AN ENTRY OF "FROCKED" IN BLOCK 8 (PROMOTION STATUS)?	FROCKED TO THE GRADE OR RATE ENTERED IN BLOCK 2, BUT NOT YET REGULARLY PROMOTED.
	WHEN IS AN "X" PLACED IN BLOCK 16 (NOT RESERVED REPORT)?	WHEN THE REPORT IS A WHOLLY NOT OBSERVED REPORT
	WHAT IS ENTERED IN BLOCK 21 (BILLET SUBCATEGORY) IF THERE IS NO BILLET SUBCATEGORY CODE?	NA (DO NOT LEAVE BLANK)
	WHAT GRADE IS ENTERED IN BLOCK 23 (GRADE) FOR A RESERVIST WHO IS A CIVILIAN REPORTING SENIOR?	THEIR CIVILIAN GRADE, NOT THEIR MILITARY GRADE.
	WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM AMOUNT OF CHARACTERS AND SPACES MAY BE ENTERED IN BLOCK 25 FOR THE REPORTING SENIOR'S TITLE?	14
	WHAT COPIES OF A REPORT MAY BLOCK 27 (SSN) NOT CONTAIN A REPORTING SENIOR'S SSN?	MEMBER'S COPY, ENLISTED MEMBER'S FIELD SERVICE RECORD COPY AND THE COMMAND FILES. THE NPC FILE COPY MUST CONTAIN THE SSN IN ORDER TO TRACK THE REPORTING SENIOR'S CUMULATIVE AVERAGE.
	WHAT ADDITIONAL ACTION IS REQUIRED IF "NOT PERF" IS ENTERED IN BLOCK 30 (DATE COUNSELED)?	A BRIEF EXPLANATION MUST BE ENTERED IN BLOCK 31.
	WHERE IS BLOCK 31 (COUNSELOR) SIGNED?	ONLY ON THE COUNSELING WORKSHEET.
	WHAT IS INDICATED BY A MEMBER'S SIGNATURE IN BLOCK 32 (SIGNATURE OF INDIVIDUAL COUNSELED)?	VERIFIES THAT BLOCKS 30 AND 31 ARE ACCURATE, AND DOES NOT NECESSARILY MEAN THAT THE COUNSELING WAS CONSIDERED ADEQUATE.
	WHAT IS INDICATED BY A MARK OF 4.0 IN BLOCK 39?	AN ABOVE AVERAGE CONTRIBUTION TOWARDS ACHIEVING GOALS
	WHEN MAY A MEMBER RECEIVE A 5.0 IN MILITARY BEARING/ CHARACTER?	ONLY WHEN MEMBER MEETS ALL 5.0 TRAITS.
	WHERE WILL YOU FIND THE INDIVDUAL TRAIT AVERAGES FOR BLOCK 40?	TABLE 1–2 OF ENCLOSURE (2) OF THE EVALMAN.
	WHAT IS ENTERED IN EVAL BLOCK 44 (QUALIFICATIONS/ACHIEVEMENTS)?	ONLY COMPLETED, NOT ANTICIPATED ACHIEVEMENTS
	WHAT IS ENTERED IN EVAL BLOCK 41 AND FITREP BLOCK 40 (CAREER RECOMMENDATIONS) IF NONE	EITHER "NA" OR "NONE"
	WHAT FITREP BLOCK IS USED FOR QUALIFICATIONS AND ACHIEVEMENTS FOR E–7 TO O–6 MEMBERS?	BLOCK 41 (COMMENTS ON PERFORMANCE)
	IN EVAL BLOCK 45 AND FITREP BLOCK 42 (INVIDUAL PROMOTION RECOMMENDATION), WHAT ARE RECOMMENDATIONS FOR PROMOTION?	PROMOTABLE, MUST PROMOTE, AND EARLY PROMOTE.
	WHEN MAY A RECOMMENDATION OF MUST PROMOTE OR EARLY PROMOTE NOT BE ASSIGNED?	WITH ANY ASSESSED AS 2.O
	WHAT HAPPENS FOR ANY ENLISTED MEMBER WHO RECEIVES ANY 1.0 TRAIT GRADE?	THEY LOSE THEIR ELIGILBILITY FOR THEIR GOOD CONDUCT MEDAL AND MUST REESTABLISH A NEW THREE YEAR PERIOD FOLLOWING THE END DATE OF THE REPORT.
	WHEN MAY AN ENLISTED MEMBER NOT RECEIVE A MARK OF PROGRESSING?	IF THEY HAVE RECEIVED A PROMOTABLE, MUST PROMOTE, OR EARLY PROMOTE ON THE THE MOST RECENT FITREP OR EVAL IN THE CURRENT GRADE.
	WHAT IS INDICATED BY A MARK OF SIGNIFICANT PROBLEMS?	A RECOMMENDATION AGAINST PROMOTION WHICH MUST BE JUSTIFIED IN THE COMMENTS.
	WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM COMBINED PERCENTAGE OF SUMMARY GROUP FOR EARLY PROMOTE AND MUST PROMOTE FOR E–6 MEMBERS?	60%
	WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM COMBINED PERCENT OF SUMMARY GROUP FOR EARLY PROMOTE AND MUST PROMOTE FOR E–7 TO E–9?	50%
	WHERE IS THE TABLE CONTAINING THE MAXIMUM LIMITS ON "EARLY PROMOTE" AND "MUST PROMOTE"RECOMMENDATIONS?	TABLE 1–3 OF ENCLOSURE (2) TO THE EVALMAN.
	WHAT IS INDICATED BY AN "X" IN THE RECOMMENDED PORTION OF EVAL BLOCK 47(RETENTION)?	THE REPORTING SENIOR RECOMMENDS REENLISTMENT OR EXTENSION BASED ON PERFORMANCE, BUT DOESN'T CERTIFY THAT ALL REENLISTMENT REQUIREMENTS HAVE BEEN MET.
	WHAT IS ENTERED IN EVAL BLOCK 48 AND FITREP BLOCK 44 (REPORTING SENIOR ADDRESS) FOR ACTIVE DUTY REPORTING SENIORS WITH TRANSFER OR RETIREMENT ORDERS?	THE ADDRESS OF THE NEXT COMMAND OR HOME ADDRESS, AS APPROPRIATE.
	WHEN ARE O3 FITREPS DUE?	JANUARY 31
	WHEN ARE O2 FITREPS DUE?	FEBRUARY 28
	WHEN ARE O1 FITREPS DUE?	MAY 31
	WHEN ARE O4 FITREPS DUE?	OCTOBER 31
	WHEN ARE W5, W4, AND W3 FITREPS DUE?	MARCH 31
	WHEN ARE O6 FITREPS DUE?	JULY 31
	WHEN ARE E1–E3 EVALS DUE?	JULY 15
	WHEN ARE E4 EVALS DUE?	JUNE 15
	WHEN ARE E5 EVALS DUE?	MARCH 15
	WHEN ARE E6 EVALS DUE?	NOVEMBER 15
	WHEN ARE E7 AND E8 FITREPS DUE?	SEPTEMBER 15
	WHEN ARE E9 FITREPS DUE?	APRIL 15
	WHAT IS AN EXCELLENT METHOD FOR SUPERVISORS TO HELP KEEP A MEMBER ON TRACT IN THE AREAS OF JOB PERFORMANCE AND CAREER DEVELOPMENT?	BY CONDUCTING INFORMAL COUNSELING SESSIONS ON A REGULAR BASIS
	WHAT IS AN EXCELLENT WAY TO SUMMARIZE A COUNSELING SESSION?	ASK THE MEMBER FOR COMMENTS ON THE DISCUSSION TO MAKE SURE THEY UNDERSTAND THE RESULTS OF THE SESSION
	HOW SHOULD A COUNSELING SESSION BE TERMINATED?	ON A POSITIVE NOTE ENSURING THE MEMBER LEAVES THE SESSION IN A POSITIVSE FRAME ON MIND
	WHAT IS A TECHNIQUE THAT IS USEFUL IN REDUCING OR ELIMINATING THE PROBLEM OF FALSE ASSUMPTIONS IN A COUNSELING SESSION?	LISTENING AND NOT INTERRUPTING THE MEMBER
	WHAT IS THE TASK OF THE COUNSELOR WHEN CONDUCTING A COUNSELING SESSION?	TO DIRECT AND FOCUS THE PERFORMANCE OF SUBORDINATES AND TO DEVELOP THEIR PROFESSIONAL AND MILITARY EXPERTISE
	NORMALLY, WHO IS THE COUNSELOR FOR E5 TO E6 PERSONNEL?	THE DIVISION, DEPARTMENT, OR WORK CENTER CHIEF PETTY OFFICER
	NORMALLY, WHO IS THE COUNSELOR FOR E7 TO O6 PERSONNEL?	THE REPORTING SENIOR OR THE IMMEDIATE SUPERVISOR WHO WILL DRAFT THE FITREP
	NORMALLY, WHO IS THE COUNSELOR FOR E1 TO E4 PERSONNEL?	THE RATER(E6 OR ABOVE), WHO IS USUALLY THE DIVISION, DEPARTMENT, OR WORK CENTER LEADING PETTY OFFICER
	WHAT IS THE LAST STEP IN THE MIDTERM COUNSELING SESSION?	SUPERVISOR ENTERS DATE, IN BLOCK 30, SIGN IN BLOCK 31, AND MEMBER SIGNS BLOCK 32.
	AS A MINUMUM, WHAT BLCOKS OF THE COUNSELING WORKSHEET SHOULD BE COMPLETED DURING THE MID TERM COUNSELING SESSION?	BLOCK 1 AND BLOCKS 29–32
	WHAT IS USED AS THE COUNSELING WORKSHEET?	THE STANDARD FITREP AND EVAL REPORT FORM
	WHEN SHOULD PERFORMANCE COUNSELING BE DONE?	AT THE MID POOINT OF EACH EVALUATION CYCLE AND WHEN THE FITNESS OR EVALUATION REPORT IS SIGNED
	WHO IS THE SOLE JUDGE OF WHICH ITEMS TO USE IN A REPORT SUBMITTED BY A MEMBER PROVIDING THE INPUT?	THE REPORTING SENIOR
	WHAT RECORD SUMMARIZES A MEMBER'S PROFESSIONAL AND PERFORMANCE HISTORY?	THE PERFORMANCE SUMMARY RECORD
	WHEN PREPARING THE ADVANCEMENT IN RATE OR CHANGE IN RATE WORKSHEET (NAVEDTRA 1430/2) WHAT PERFORMANCE MARK IS USED FOR PROGRESSING?	3.4
	HOW MAY SUPPLEMENTARY MATERIAL BE SUBMITTED?	AS EITHER A LETTER–SUPPLEMENT OR A SUPPLEMENTAL REPORT
	WHAT IS THE OFFICIAL RECOMMENDATION FOR OR AGAINST ADVANCEMENT?	FITREP/EVAL PROMOTION RECOMMENDATION
	HOW DOES COMNAVPERSCOM STORE THE SIGNED RECORD COPY OF EACH REPORT?	IN AN IMAGE FILE WHICH IS MAINTAINED IN OPTICAL DISK FORMAT
	HOW ARE SPECIAL REPORTS CONSIDERED FOR BOTH OFFICERS AND ENLISTED?	AS REGULAR REPORTS
	WHAT IS THE ONLY REPORT THAT PROVIDES CONTINUITY?	REGULAR REPORTS
	WHAT IS THE LOWEST GRADE THAT MAY BE DELEGATED AS A REPORTING SENIOR FOR E4 AND BELOW MEMBERS?	E7, GS–11 OR EQUIVALENT
	WHAT IS THE LOWEST GRADE THAT MAY BE DELEGATED AS A REPORTING SENIOR FOR E5–E9 MEMBERS?	O4, GS–12 OR EQUIVALENT
	WHAT IS THE REQUIRED GRADE FOR A DELEGATED REPORTING SENIOR FOR OFFICER REPORTS?	O5, GS–14 EQUIVLALENT
	WHEN MAY AN E–6 BE A RATER?	FOR E4 AND BELOW PERSONNEL
	WHEN MAY A SENIOR RATER BE OMITTED?	WHEN THE REPORTING SENIOR IS THE RATER'S IMMEDIATE SUPERVISOR
	WHAT CIVILIAN GRADES ARE ALLOWED TO SIGN REPORTS FOR E5 TO E9 PERSONNEL	GS–13 OR EQUIVALENT
	WHAT IS THE PUNCTUATION RULE FOR THE ADDRESS ON THE FITREP/EVAL SUMMARY LETTER?	NO PUNCTUATION EXCEPT IN THE ZIP CODE
	IS RANKING AUTHORIZED IN REPORTS?	YES IN THE COMMENTS BLOCK
	WHEN IS THE MEMBER'S WRITTEN INPUT REQUESTED?	ABOUT ONE MONTH PRIOR TO DUE DATE
	MAY THE SAME PERSON SIGN AS THE RATER AND SENIOR RATER?	NO, ONLY SIGN AS THE SENIOR RATER
	WHAT DIRECTIVE PROVIDES GUIDANCE IN PERFORMANCE EVALUATION AND COUNSELING?	BUPERSINST 1610.10
	WHO MUST COMMANDING OFFICERS SUBMIT PROPERLY AUTHORIZED FITNESS AND EVALUATION REPORTS ON?	ANY MEMBER WHO HAS REPORTED TO THEM FOR ACTIVE DUTY, WHETHER JUNIOR OR SENIOR TO THEM IN GRADE.
	HOW ARE PERFORMANCE TRAITS GRADED?	ON A 5–POINT SCALE, FROM 1.0(LOWEST) TO 5.0(HIGHEST)
	WHAT PERFORMANCE TRAIT GRADE REPRESENTS PERFORMANCE TO FULL NAVY STANDARDS?	3
	WHAT FITREPS IS NO PROMOTION RECOMMENDATION HIGHER THAN "PROMOTABLE" ALLOWED?	PAYGRADES 0–1 AND 0–2 (WITH THE EXCEPTION OF LIMITED DUTY OFFICERS)
	HOW ARE COMMANDING OFFICERS AND OFFICERS IN CHARGE AUTOMATICALLY "REPORTING SENIORS?"	BY VIRTUE OF THEIR COMMAND AUTHORITY.
	WHAT REPORTS MAY BE SIGNED BY AN ENLISTED OFFICER IN CHARGE IN THE GRADE OF E–9 AND CIVILIANS IN COMMAND POSITIONS IN THE GRADE OF GS–11?	REPORTS ON E–5 AND BELOW.
	WHAT REPORTS MAY BE SIGNED BY A CHIEF PETTY OFFICER OR SENIOR CHIEF PETTY OFFICERS?	REPORTS ON E–4 AND BELOW ONLY
	WHAT SIGNATURES ARE REQUIRED ON EVALS FOR E–6 PERSONNEL AND BELOW?	A RATER AND SENIOR RATER, AS WELL AS THE REPORTING SENIOR.
	WHO MAY BE THE RATER FOR E–1 TO E–4 PERSONNEL?	AN E–6 OF CIVILIAN EQUIVALENT.
	WHO MAY BE THE RATER FOR E–5 AND E–6 PERSONNEL?	A CHIEF PETTY OFFICER WHENEVER POSSIBLE, OR THE RATER MAY BE A MILITARY OR CIVILIAN SUPERVISOR WHO IS AN E–7 EQUIVLENT OR HIGHER.
	TYPICALLY, WHO WILL BE THE SENIOR FOR ENLISTED EVALS?	THE MEMBER'S DIVISION OFFICER OR DEPARTMENT HEAD.
	WHO DETERMINES THE COUNSELING METHODS USED AT A COMMAND?	THE COMMANDING OFFICER OR OFFICER IN CHARGE.
	WHEN DOES PERFORMANCE COUNSELING START?	WITH A FAIR ASSESSMENT OF THE MEMBER'S PERFORMANCE AND CAPABILITIES, TO WHICH THE MEMBER CONTRIBUTES.
	WHAT MUST NEVER BE PROMISED DURING COUNSELING SESSION?	A FUTURE PROMOTION RECOMMENDATION.
	WHAT ARE THE THREE TYPES OF PERFORMANCE REPORTS?	REGULAR, CONCURRENT, AND OPERATIONAL COMMAND REPROTS
	WHAT TRAIT GRADE IS IS RESERVED FOR PERFORMANCE THAT IS FAR ABOVE STANDARDS?	5
	WHAT TRAIT GRADE SHOULD BE ASSIGNED TO THE MAJORITY OF SAILORS?	2.0–4.0 RANGE.
	WHAT TRAIT GRADE IS GIVEN FOR "SUPERSTAR PERFORMANCE" WHERE THE MEMBER COULD BE PROMOTED TWO PAYGRADES AND STILL BE A STANDOUT IN TRAIT?	5
	WHAT TRAIT IS GIVEN FOR "ADVANCED PERFORMANCE" WHERE THE MEMBER IS READY FOR PROMOTION IN THE TRAIT RIGHT NOW?	4
	WHAT TRAIT GRADE IS GIVEN FOR "FULLY–QUALIFIED" JOURNEYMAN PERFORMANCE WHO CAN HANDLE THIS ASPECT OF THE NEXT HIGHER PAYGRADE?	3
	WHAT GRADE IS GIVEN FOR "USEFUL AND PROMISING PERFORMANCE??	2
	WHAT SHOULD BE THE BASIS FOR COMMENTS IN THE COMMENTS BLOCK?	VERFIABLE FACTS.
	WHERE IS NUMERICAL RANKING AMONG PEERS AUTHORIZED?	IN THE COMMENTS BLOCK.
	WHEN MUST ALL E–1 TO E–4 REPORTS BE TYPED, BATCHED, AND FORWARDED TO COMNAVPERSCOM?	BEGINNING 15 JUNE 2006.
	WHEN ARE CONTINUATION SHEETS AND ENCLOSURES ALLOWED WITH REPORTS?	WHEN AN ENDORSED STATEMENT IS SUBMITTED BY THE MEMBER OR WHEN A FLAG OFFICER ENDORESEMENT IS REQUIRED.
	WHEN MUST YOU SPECIFICALLY SUBSTANTIATE GRADES IN THE COMMENTS SECTION OF A REPORT?	ALL 1.0, THREE 2.0, ALONG WITH ANY GRADE BELOW 3.0 IN COMMAND OR ORGANIZATIONAL CLIMATE/ EQUAL OPPORTUNITY.
	WHEN MAY A MARK OF "PROGRESSING" NOT BE ASSIGNED ON AN EVAL?	WHEN A RECOMMENDATION FOR ADVANCEMENT HAS BEEN GIVEN IN A PREVIOUS REPORT IN THE SAME PAYGRADE.
	WHAT WERE SUMMARY GROUPS FORMERLY KNOWN AS?	COMPARISON GROUPS.
	GENERALLY, WHAT ARE ENLISTED SUMMARY GROUPS?	CONSISTS OF ALL MEMBERS IN THE SAME PAY GRADE (REGARDLESS OF RATING) AND SAME PROMOTION STATUS, WHO RECEIVETHE SAME TYPE OF REPORT FORM THE SAME REPORTING SENIOR ON THE SAME ENDING DATE.
	WHAT IS MANDATORY ON THE BOTTOM OF THE SUMMARY LETTER IN THE BLOCKS PROVIDED?	VERIFY OR HANDWRITE POC'S EMAIL ADDRESS AND TELEPHONE NUMBER.
	WHEN MAY A REPORTING SENIOR, FOR GOOD CAUSE, SUBMIT AND ADMINISTRATIVE CHANGE OR EVALUATION SUPPLEMENT?	WITHIN TWO YEARS FROM THE ENDING DATE OF A REPORT.
	WHEN MAY A MEMBER SUBMIT A STATEMENT TO THE RECORD CONCERNING THEIR REPORT?	EITHER AT THE TIME OF THE REPORT OR TWO YEARS AFTER.
	HOW LONG MUST A REPORTING SENIOR DETERMINE THE NUMERICAL ERROR CODES FOR REJECTION REPORTS?	ITS ANNOTATED ON BOL CONTINUITY PAGE.
	WHAT ARE THE ENDING DATES FOR ENLISTED FITREPS/EVALS?	ALWAYS ON THE 15TH DAY OF THE MONTH.
	WHAT ARE THE ENDING DATES FOR OFFICER FITREPS?	ALWAYS ON THE LAST DAY OF THE MONTH.
	WHEN MAY A PERIODIC REPORT BE OMITTED?	WHEN THE MEMBER HAS RECEIVED A GRADED REGULAR REPORT WITHIN THE PAST THREE MONTHS.
	WHO ARE "FTS" PERSONNEL?	MEMBERS OF THE U.S. NAVY RESERVE WHO ARE "FULL TIME SUPPORT" (FTS). FORMERLY KNOWN AS TARS, OFFICERS HAVE DESIGNATORS AS XXX7.
	WILL A REPORT BE CONSIDERED ADVERSE SOLELY BECAUSE IT MAY MAKE THE MEMBER LESS COMPETITIVE THAN ANOTHER FOR PROMOTION OR ASSIGNMENT?	NO
	WHEN MAY RATERS AND REPORTING SENIORS KEEP NOTES FOR THEIR PERSONAL USE AS MEMORY AIDS?	WHEN THE MATERIALS ARE SAFEGUARDED TO PREVENT UNAUTHORIZED DISCLOSURE AND AREN'T CIRCULATED TO ANYONE ELSE.
	WHEN MUST REPORT DRAFTS BE DESTROYED?	WHEN THE FINISHED REPORT IS SIGNED.
	HOW ARE REPORTS ON OFFICERS RETAINED BY COMMANDS?	IN CIMMAND FILED, RATHER A LOG OF THE FITREPS IS MAINTAINED ON THEIR SUBMISSION AND THE PERIODS COVERED.
	WHO SUPPLIES APPLICATION PROGRAMS TO SUPPORT AUTOMATED PREPARATION AND SUBMISSION OF FITREPS AND EVALS?	COMNAVPERSCOM (PERS–311)
	WHAT TYPEFACE IS USED FOR FITREPS AND EVALS PREPARED WITH A TYPEWRITER OR WORD PROCESSOR?	10 OR 12 POINT
	WHAT FORMAT IS USED FOR ENTERING THE ADMINISTRATIVE BLOCKS OF FITREPS AND EVALS?	ALL CAPS
	WHAT FORMAT IS USED FOR ENTERING INFO IN THE NARRATIVE BLOCKS OF FITREPS AND EVALS?	BOTH UPPER AND LOWER CASE
	WHAT IS THE FORMAT FOR ENTERING A MEMBER'S NAME IN BLOCK 1?	LAST NAME, FIRST NAME, MI, AND SUFFIXEXAMPLE: HUNT, SHEENA S
	WHAT GRADE OR RATE IS ENTERED IN BLOCK 2?	THE ONE THE MEMBER IS WEARING ON THE ENDING DATE OF THE REPORT.
	WHAT IS THE FORMAT FOR ENTERING TWO ENLISTED DESIGNATORS IN BLOCK 3?	SEPARATE THEM WITH A SLASH
	BLOCK 6 (UIC) WILL MATCH WHAT OTHER BLOCK ON THE REPORT?	THE PRIMARY UIC OF THE REPORTING SENIOR IN BLOCK 26.
	WHAT IS INDICATED BY AN ENTRY OF "FROCKED" IN BLOCK 8 (PROMOTION STATUS)?	FROCKED TO THE GRADE OR RATE ENTERED IN BLOCK 2, BUT NOT YET REGULARLY PROMOTED.
	WHEN IS AN "X" PLACED IN BLOCK 16 (NOT RESERVED REPORT)?	WHEN THE REPORT IS A WHOLLY NOT OBSERVED REPORT
	WHAT IS ENTERED IN BLOCK 21 (BILLET SUBCATEGORY) IF THERE IS NO BILLET SUBCATEGORY CODE?	NA (DO NOT LEAVE BLANK)
	WHAT GRADE IS ENTERED IN BLOCK 23 (GRADE) FOR A RESERVIST WHO IS A CIVILIAN REPORTING SENIOR?	THEIR CIVILIAN GRADE, NOT THEIR MILITARY GRADE.
	WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM AMOUNT OF CHARACTERS AND SPACES MAY BE ENTERED IN BLOCK 25 FOR THE REPORTING SENIOR'S TITLE?	14
	WHAT COPIES OF A REPORT MAY BLOCK 27 (SSN) NOT CONTAIN A REPORTING SENIOR'S SSN?	MEMBER'S COPY, ENLISTED MEMBER'S FIELD SERVICE RECORD COPY AND THE COMMAND FILES. THE NPC FILE COPY MUST CONTAIN THE SSN IN ORDER TO TRACK THE REPORTING SENIOR'S CUMULATIVE AVERAGE.
	WHAT ADDITIONAL ACTION IS REQUIRED IF "NOT PERF" IS ENTERED IN BLOCK 30 (DATE COUNSELED)?	A BRIEF EXPLANATION MUST BE ENTERED IN BLOCK 31.
	WHERE IS BLOCK 31 (COUNSELOR) SIGNED?	ONLY ON THE COUNSELING WORKSHEET.
	WHAT IS INDICATED BY A MEMBER'S SIGNATURE IN BLOCK 32 (SIGNATURE OF INDIVIDUAL COUNSELED)?	VERIFIES THAT BLOCKS 30 AND 31 ARE ACCURATE, AND DOES NOT NECESSARILY MEAN THAT THE COUNSELING WAS CONSIDERED ADEQUATE.
	WHAT IS INDICATED BY A MARK OF 4.0 IN BLOCK 39?	AN ABOVE AVERAGE CONTRIBUTION TOWARDS ACHIEVING GOALS
	WHEN MAY A MEMBER RECEIVE A 5.0 IN MILITARY BEARING/ CHARACTER?	ONLY WHEN MEMBER MEETS ALL 5.0 TRAITS.
	WHERE WILL YOU FIND THE INDIVDUAL TRAIT AVERAGES FOR BLOCK 40?	TABLE 1–2 OF ENCLOSURE (2) OF THE EVALMAN.
	WHAT IS ENTERED IN EVAL BLOCK 44 (QUALIFICATIONS/ACHIEVEMENTS)?	ONLY COMPLETED, NOT ANTICIPATED ACHIEVEMENTS
	WHAT IS ENTERED IN EVAL BLOCK 41 AND FITREP BLOCK 40 (CAREER RECOMMENDATIONS) IF NONE	EITHER "NA" OR "NONE"
	WHAT FITREP BLOCK IS USED FOR QUALIFICATIONS AND ACHIEVEMENTS FOR E–7 TO O–6 MEMBERS?	BLOCK 41 (COMMENTS ON PERFORMANCE)
	IN EVAL BLOCK 45 AND FITREP BLOCK 42 (INVIDUAL PROMOTION RECOMMENDATION), WHAT ARE RECOMMENDATIONS FOR PROMOTION?	PROMOTABLE, MUST PROMOTE, AND EARLY PROMOTE.
	WHEN MAY A RECOMMENDATION OF MUST PROMOTE OR EARLY PROMOTE NOT BE ASSIGNED?	WITH ANY ASSESSED AS 2.O
	WHAT HAPPENS FOR ANY ENLISTED MEMBER WHO RECEIVES ANY 1.0 TRAIT GRADE?	THEY LOSE THEIR ELIGILBILITY FOR THEIR GOOD CONDUCT MEDAL AND MUST REESTABLISH A NEW THREE YEAR PERIOD FOLLOWING THE END DATE OF THE REPORT.
	WHEN MAY AN ENLISTED MEMBER NOT RECEIVE A MARK OF PROGRESSING?	IF THEY HAVE RECEIVED A PROMOTABLE, MUST PROMOTE, OR EARLY PROMOTE ON THE THE MOST RECENT FITREP OR EVAL IN THE CURRENT GRADE.
	WHAT IS INDICATED BY A MARK OF SIGNIFICANT PROBLEMS?	A RECOMMENDATION AGAINST PROMOTION WHICH MUST BE JUSTIFIED IN THE COMMENTS.
	WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM COMBINED PERCENTAGE OF SUMMARY GROUP FOR EARLY PROMOTE AND MUST PROMOTE FOR E–6 MEMBERS?	60%
	WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM COMBINED PERCENT OF SUMMARY GROUP FOR EARLY PROMOTE AND MUST PROMOTE FOR E–7 TO E–9?	50%
	WHERE IS THE TABLE CONTAINING THE MAXIMUM LIMITS ON "EARLY PROMOTE" AND "MUST PROMOTE"RECOMMENDATIONS?	TABLE 1–3 OF ENCLOSURE (2) TO THE EVALMAN.
	WHAT IS INDICATED BY AN "X" IN THE RECOMMENDED PORTION OF EVAL BLOCK 47(RETENTION)?	THE REPORTING SENIOR RECOMMENDS REENLISTMENT OR EXTENSION BASED ON PERFORMANCE, BUT DOESN'T CERTIFY THAT ALL REENLISTMENT REQUIREMENTS HAVE BEEN MET.
	WHAT IS ENTERED IN EVAL BLOCK 48 AND FITREP BLOCK 44 (REPORTING SENIOR ADDRESS) FOR ACTIVE DUTY REPORTING SENIORS WITH TRANSFER OR RETIREMENT ORDERS?	THE ADDRESS OF THE NEXT COMMAND OR HOME ADDRESS, AS APPROPRIATE.
	WHEN ARE O3 FITREPS DUE?	JANUARY 31
	WHEN ARE O2 FITREPS DUE?	FEBRUARY 28
	WHEN ARE O1 FITREPS DUE?	MAY 31
	WHEN ARE O4 FITREPS DUE?	OCTOBER 31
	WHEN ARE W5, W4, AND W3 FITREPS DUE?	MARCH 31
	WHEN ARE O6 FITREPS DUE?	JULY 31
	WHEN ARE E1–E3 EVALS DUE?	JULY 15
	WHEN ARE E4 EVALS DUE?	JUNE 15
	WHEN ARE E5 EVALS DUE?	MARCH 15
	WHEN ARE E6 EVALS DUE?	NOVEMBER 15
	WHEN ARE E7 AND E8 FITREPS DUE?	SEPTEMBER 15
	WHEN ARE E9 FITREPS DUE?	APRIL 15
	WHAT IS AN EXCELLENT METHOD FOR SUPERVISORS TO HELP KEEP A MEMBER ON TRACT IN THE AREAS OF JOB PERFORMANCE AND CAREER DEVELOPMENT?	BY CONDUCTING INFORMAL COUNSELING SESSIONS ON A REGULAR BASIS
	WHAT IS AN EXCELLENT WAY TO SUMMARIZE A COUNSELING SESSION?	ASK THE MEMBER FOR COMMENTS ON THE DISCUSSION TO MAKE SURE THEY UNDERSTAND THE RESULTS OF THE SESSION
	HOW SHOULD A COUNSELING SESSION BE TERMINATED?	ON A POSITIVE NOTE ENSURING THE MEMBER LEAVES THE SESSION IN A POSITIVSE FRAME ON MIND
	WHAT IS A TECHNIQUE THAT IS USEFUL IN REDUCING OR ELIMINATING THE PROBLEM OF FALSE ASSUMPTIONS IN A COUNSELING SESSION?	LISTENING AND NOT INTERRUPTING THE MEMBER
	WHAT IS THE TASK OF THE COUNSELOR WHEN CONDUCTING A COUNSELING SESSION?	TO DIRECT AND FOCUS THE PERFORMANCE OF SUBORDINATES AND TO DEVELOP THEIR PROFESSIONAL AND MILITARY EXPERTISE
	NORMALLY, WHO IS THE COUNSELOR FOR E5 TO E6 PERSONNEL?	THE DIVISION, DEPARTMENT, OR WORK CENTER CHIEF PETTY OFFICER
	NORMALLY, WHO IS THE COUNSELOR FOR E7 TO O6 PERSONNEL?	THE REPORTING SENIOR OR THE IMMEDIATE SUPERVISOR WHO WILL DRAFT THE FITREP
	NORMALLY, WHO IS THE COUNSELOR FOR E1 TO E4 PERSONNEL?	THE RATER(E6 OR ABOVE), WHO IS USUALLY THE DIVISION, DEPARTMENT, OR WORK CENTER LEADING PETTY OFFICER
	WHAT IS THE LAST STEP IN THE MIDTERM COUNSELING SESSION?	SUPERVISOR ENTERS DATE, IN BLOCK 30, SIGN IN BLOCK 31, AND MEMBER SIGNS BLOCK 32.
	AS A MINUMUM, WHAT BLCOKS OF THE COUNSELING WORKSHEET SHOULD BE COMPLETED DURING THE MID TERM COUNSELING SESSION?	BLOCK 1 AND BLOCKS 29–32
	WHAT IS USED AS THE COUNSELING WORKSHEET?	THE STANDARD FITREP AND EVAL REPORT FORM
	WHEN SHOULD PERFORMANCE COUNSELING BE DONE?	AT THE MID POOINT OF EACH EVALUATION CYCLE AND WHEN THE FITNESS OR EVALUATION REPORT IS SIGNED
	WHO IS THE SOLE JUDGE OF WHICH ITEMS TO USE IN A REPORT SUBMITTED BY A MEMBER PROVIDING THE INPUT?	THE REPORTING SENIOR
	WHAT RECORD SUMMARIZES A MEMBER'S PROFESSIONAL AND PERFORMANCE HISTORY?	THE PERFORMANCE SUMMARY RECORD
	WHEN PREPARING THE ADVANCEMENT IN RATE OR CHANGE IN RATE WORKSHEET (NAVEDTRA 1430/2) WHAT PERFORMANCE MARK IS USED FOR PROGRESSING?	3.4
	HOW MAY SUPPLEMENTARY MATERIAL BE SUBMITTED?	AS EITHER A LETTER–SUPPLEMENT OR A SUPPLEMENTAL REPORT
	WHAT IS THE OFFICIAL RECOMMENDATION FOR OR AGAINST ADVANCEMENT?	FITREP/EVAL PROMOTION RECOMMENDATION
	HOW DOES COMNAVPERSCOM STORE THE SIGNED RECORD COPY OF EACH REPORT?	IN AN IMAGE FILE WHICH IS MAINTAINED IN OPTICAL DISK FORMAT
	HOW ARE SPECIAL REPORTS CONSIDERED FOR BOTH OFFICERS AND ENLISTED?	AS REGULAR REPORTS
	WHAT IS THE ONLY REPORT THAT PROVIDES CONTINUITY?	REGULAR REPORTS
	WHAT IS THE LOWEST GRADE THAT MAY BE DELEGATED AS A REPORTING SENIOR FOR E4 AND BELOW MEMBERS?	E7, GS–11 OR EQUIVALENT
	WHAT IS THE LOWEST GRADE THAT MAY BE DELEGATED AS A REPORTING SENIOR FOR E5–E9 MEMBERS?	O4, GS–12 OR EQUIVALENT
	WHAT IS THE REQUIRED GRADE FOR A DELEGATED REPORTING SENIOR FOR OFFICER REPORTS?	O5, GS–14 EQUIVLALENT
	WHEN MAY AN E–6 BE A RATER?	FOR E4 AND BELOW PERSONNEL
	WHEN MAY A SENIOR RATER BE OMITTED?	WHEN THE REPORTING SENIOR IS THE RATER'S IMMEDIATE SUPERVISOR
	WHAT CIVILIAN GRADES ARE ALLOWED TO SIGN REPORTS FOR E5 TO E9 PERSONNEL	GS–13 OR EQUIVALENT
	WHAT IS THE PUNCTUATION RULE FOR THE ADDRESS ON THE FITREP/EVAL SUMMARY LETTER?	NO PUNCTUATION EXCEPT IN THE ZIP CODE
	IS RANKING AUTHORIZED IN REPORTS?	YES IN THE COMMENTS BLOCK
	WHEN IS THE MEMBER'S WRITTEN INPUT REQUESTED?	ABOUT ONE MONTH PRIOR TO DUE DATE
	MAY THE SAME PERSON SIGN AS THE RATER AND SENIOR RATER?	NO, ONLY SIGN AS THE SENIOR RATER
	For Reserve personnel to be eligible to volunteer for recall to fill Temporary Active Duty (TEMACDU) or Naval Reserve Canvasser Recruiter Billets, they must be able to complete ... qualifying years, as defined in BUPERSINST 1001.39D, by age ... for reserve retirement eligibility.	20 years...age 60
	If you are 55 years old, you may not extend, reenlist, or remain on active duty unless what condition(s) exist?	You have 16 or more years of active service creditable towards transfer to Fleet Reserve
	Members will not be allowed to acquire active obligated service beyond their 65th birthday unless ... ?	... they will not be eligible for transfer to the Fleet Reserve until after that date.
	If you're 65, you can't remain in active duty to make a 30–year retirement unless...	... you have 28 years in (without prior approval of NAVPERSCOM)
	Who should preside over reenlistment ceremonies?	The commanding officer (or, if not present, the XO).
	Under which conditions can a person reenlist within 6 months of discharge and still be considered to have continuous service?	the member is classified RE–R1 and holds a rating listed as in Career Reenlistment Objective (CREO) 1 or 2 groups
	A member normally has to reenlist within how many months in order for his or her service to be considered continuous?	3 months
	What minimum Reserve Active Duty Obligation must a Full Time Support member have in order to reenlist?	24 months
	What is "RE–R1"?	Preferred reenlistment
	What is required to serve more than 30 years in the Navy?	HYT approval of NAVPERSCOM. Normally only considered for E–9.
	If you want to reenlist on your ship or at your station, how soon must you reenlist, and where must you reenlist if you do not?	Within 24 hours. If you do not, you will need to reenlist at a regular recruiting station.
	Must non–citizens become citizens in order to enlist or reenlist?	No. Legal immigrant aliens may enlist/reenlist without applying for US citizenship.
	True or false: Members undergoing investigation for alleged offenses, awaiting non–judicial punishment or trial by courts–martial, undergoing non–judicial punishment, or serving sentence by courts–martial, including probation with respect to a suspended punitive discharge or confinement, may not be discharged for reenlistment.	True
	What is SCORE?	Selected Conversion and Reenlistment. Incentive to reenlist and convert to a CREO 1 rate.
	What are SCORE's incentives?	"A" School, followed by "C" school (where applicable). Automatic advancement to PO3 or PO2 (if qualified). Entitlement to SRB, if qualified.
	To be elegible for SCORE, a member must have at least how many months, but no more than how many years, of total active military service?	21 months and 12 years, and have served 24 months in their present rate.
	What is STAR?	Selective Training and Reenlistment – allows first–termers to reenlist with a guarantee of "A" (and possibly "C" school).
	What is HYT for E1–E2?	6 years
	What is HYT for E–3?	6 years, or 8 if PNAd on advancement exam for E–4 /and/ approved via PTS.
	What is HYT for E–4?	8 years
	What is HYT for E–5?	14 years for members with less than 10 years of total military service as of 1JUL05. 20 years for all others.
	What is HYT for E–6?	20 years
	What is HYT for E–7?	24 years
	What is HYT for E–8?	26 years
	What is HYT for E–9?	30 years
	True or false: HYT waivers for the STAR program are for first–term personnel only	True
	True or false: Candidates for advancement who will be over the established HYT date for their present paygrade on the first day of the advancement cycle (see table below) are still eligible for advancement consideration.	False (unless a waiver is obtained, or the member is an E–3/E–4 awaiting results of E–4/E–5 exam AND member intends to reenlist or extend)
	True or false: E–9 personnel who receive a HYT waiver forfeit their twilight tour eligibility.	True
	Conditional enlistment extensions may be done in increments of how many months, up to an aggregate of how many months?	1 month increments, up to 48 months aggregate
	Unconditional enlistment extentions must be at least how many months minimum to how many months maximum?	24 months minimum; 48 months maximum
	What is the HYT for E–1/E–2 SELRES personnel?	8 years
	What is the HYT for E–3 SELRES personnel?	12 years
	What is the HYT for E–4 SELRES personnel?	14 years
	What is the HYT for E–5 SELRES personnel?	22 years
	What is the HYT for E–6/E–7 SELRES personnel?	24 years
	What is the HYT for E–8 SELRES personnel?	26 years
	What is the HYT for E–9 SELRES personnel?	30 years
	Which form is the Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Data?	NAVPERS 1070/602
	After how many days is a regular Navy sailor ineligible for SGLI after being separated?	After the 120th day
	True or false: SGLI benefits are terminated after the 31st day a person is continuously U/A.	True
	Cost of SGLI?	$.80 per year per $10,000, in $10,000 increments up to $250,000.
	How long do you have, after separation, to apply for VGLI?	1 year and 120 days.
	When can you convert your VGLI to a commercial policy held by a participating company without proof of insurability?	At the end of each 5–year term period.
	What form do you fill out to reduce coverage under SGLI?	SGLV 8286
	If a sailor assigned to a Marine unit elects to wear the marine uniform what are the requirements for grooming standards?	(They shall conform to those grooming standards of the Marine Corps)
	How shall wireless devices be worn on the navy uniform?	(It shall be aft of the elbow on either side of the body not visible from the front)
	How are bags worn when in dress uniform?	(They are only allowed to be hand carried)
	If wearing a retainer strap with glasses how should the strap be worn?	(Snugly against the back of the head)
	What colors are authorized for contact lenses?	(Blue; green; or brown)
	How should uniforms that are going to be packed away for a long time be packed?	(In an airtight bag with a bag of desiccant)
	How are embroidered items cleaned?	(With a nail brush and diluted ammonia)
	How are buttons cleaned?	(With Worcestershire sauce or vinegar)
	How is gold lace to be cleaned?	(By an experienced tailor)
	How is metal insignia cleaned?	(With soap and water)
	Men’s hair shall be no longer than inches?	(Four)
	Men’s hair shall be tapered up the back of the neck at least _______?	(3/4 inches)
	The bulk of men’s hair shall not exceed from the scalp?	(2 inches)
	Sideburns may not extend longer than ________________?	(The middle of the ear)
	For women braids shall not exceed in diameter?	(1/4 inch)
	When in uniform women’s hair may not extend any longer than what?	(The bottom of the collar)
	When in dress uniform women’s hair may not be longer than ____ below the top of the jumper collar?	(1 ½ inch)
	A maximum of how many barrettes may be worn while in uniform?	(2)
	Hair barrettes shall be what color?	(Similar to the female’s hair color)
	What is the maximum length of facial hair when a no–shaving chit has been authorized?	(1/4 inch)
	The length of mustache hair will not be longer than when fully extended?	(1/2 inch)
	What personnel are not authorized to wear facial hair?	(Brig awardees; prisoners; personnel in a disciplinary hold status; and personnel assigned to TPU)
	Females may wear cosmetics as long as they what?	(compliment the natural skin tone)
	Yes or No: Are long false eyelashes authorized in uniform?	(No)
	Cosmetic permanent makeup is authorized for what cosmetics?	(Eyeliner; lipstick; eyebrows; and lip liner)
	Female service members requesting to obtain permanent cosmetics shall forward requests to their CO on what form?	(NAVPERS 1336/3)
	When are men authorized to wear earrings?	(Only when off base; in civilian clothes; and not part of any military event)
	Female earrings shall be ___ to ____ mm or ____” to ____”?	(4–6 or 1/8” to 1/4”)
	Service members may wear watch and wristband per arm?	(One)
	How many ankle bracelets are authorized to be worn while in uniform?	(None)
	What is the maximum size of tattoo that may be worn?	(No larger than the wearer’s hand with fingers extended)
	How long may the fingernails of a female be while in uniform?	(1/4 inch measured from the tip of the finger)
	How long may the fingernails of a male be while in uniform?	(Even with the tip of the finger)
	Badges authorized for wear for females shall be worn at what location?	(Worn on the right side centered ¼” above the shirt or coat pocket or above the authorized ribbons or name tag)
	Badges authorized for wear for males shall be worn at what location?	(Worn on the right side centered from the bottom of the pocket flap to the bottom of the pocket and centered left to right)
	Miniature badges are what size?	(Half the size of the large badge)
	Where does the senior enlisted identification badge get worn on a female’s uniform?	(On the right side ¼” above the breast pocket or ¼” above the name tag or ribbons)
	Where does the senior enlisted identification badge get worn on a male’s uniform?	(On the left side; centered on the pocket)
	Where does the MAA badge get worn on the uniform for males?	(On the left side centered in the pocket)
	Where does the MAA badge get worn on the uniform for females?	(On the right side ¼” above the pocket/ribbons/nametag)
	The miniature command insignia is worn with all uniforms with the exception of what uniform?	(The full dress uniform)
	Enlisted personnel who qualified in a warfare specialty as officers and were subsequently reverted to enlisted status may/may not continue to wear the officer insignia?	(May)
	How many breast insignias may an individual wear on the uniform?	(Two)
	What is the largest dimensions authorized for nametags?	(1 “ by 3 ½”)
	Velcro nametags shall be made of plain black leather and shall be what dimension?	(2” X 4”)
	What is the civilian equivalent for dinner dress?	(Black Tie)
	The Purple Heart is an example of what kind of award?	(Military Decoration)
	The Navy “E” Ribbon is an example of what kind of award?	(Unit Award)
	The Presidential Medal of Freedom is an example of what kind of award?	(Non–Military Decoration)
	The Good Conduct Medal is an example of what kind of award?	(Campaign and Service Award)
	Where are awards from foreign countries authorized to be worn on the uniform?	(After all U.S. Armed Service awards)
	What three uniforms are ribbons not authorized to be worn on?	(Formal Dress; Dinner Dress; or working uniforms)
	How many ribbons can be worn in a single row?	(Three)
	You may elect to wear all rows of ribbons or the top ____?	(3)
	Where are ribbons worn on the Full Dress Uniform?	(On the right breast in the same relative position as the holding bar of the lowest row of medals)
	Do not wear ribbons on uniforms requiring what?	(Miniature medals)
	What is the maximum amount of medals that may be worn in a row?	(5)
	How many medals may be worn in a row without overlap?	(3)
	How long is each row of miniature medals?	(2–1/4”)
	______________shall be worn for each subsequent award of any Navy Military Decoration?	(Gold stars)
	Silver stars shall be worn in lieu of gold or bronze stars?	(5)
	What is the service requirement for reservists to be awarded the Armed Forces Reserve Medal?	(10)
	What small arms qualification rates a ribbon and medal?	(Expert)
	What is the color of the aiguillette worn by the President’s aide?	(Four gold loops)
	What is the color of the aiguillette worn by the Vice President’s aide?	(Four gold loops with dark blue spiral bands)
	What is the color of the aiguillette worn by a Vice Admiral’s aide?	(Three gold loops with dark blue spiral bands)
	What is the color of the aiguillette worn by a Rear Admiral’s aide?	(Two gold loops with dark blue spiral bands)
	What is the color of the aiguillette worn by a Recruit Company Commander?	(One red loop)
	What is the color of the aiguillette worn by an assistant Recruit Company Commander?	(One blue loop)
	Brassards shall be worn where on the uniform?	(Centered between the shoulder and elbow on all uniforms and outer garments)
	The Navy button is surrounded by how many stars?	(13)
	Where is the pipe for a Boatswain carried on the male uniform?	(In the left breast pocket)
	Where is the pipe for a Boatswain carried on the female uniform?	(Between the top and second button of the jacket)
	The Navy Good Conduct medal is awarded for every ________ years of honorable service?	(3)
	What will be commensurate with a member's seniority and level of command resposibility/supervision?* Duties* Training* Position* Entitlements	Training
	Any amount of alcohol or drug consumption prior to (within approximately how many hours of) the incident constitutes "use", backed up by the victim's account or blood test?* 1 hour* 48 hours* 12 hours* 24 hours	24 hours
	Which system establishes a single, comprehensive database in which the prevalence of sexual assault within the Department of the Navy can be monitored and analyzed?* Sexeal Assault Incident Data Collection Report and Explanation* CACO database* Sexual Assault Investigation Data Collection Report and Explanation* SAVI database	Sexual Assault Incident Data Collection Report and Explanation
	Continuation (status) reports will be used to provide new or revised information and must be submitted to Service headquarters at least how often until final resolution of a case, or a determination that the installation commander is unable to monitor the progress of a case?* Quarterly* Annually* Semi–annually* Monthly	Quarterly
	Who shall establish an Integrated Database to capture and track reported incidents of sexual assault against persons who are over the age of 18 who are not married to their alleged offenders, and to track subsequent investigative and/or legal actions?* CNO* COMNAVPERSCOM* CO* SECNAV	CNO
	Who will provide technical guidance and training for the military security forces and DON civilian law enforcement personnel involved in prevention of, and response to, sexual assault?* SECNAV* Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service* Office, Judge Advocate General* CNO	Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service
	Who will be responsible for obtaining data elements through a coordinated effort with all agencies involved in the reporting, investigation, or prosecution of sexual assault?• SAVI• Commanding Officer• CACO• Data collection coordinator (correct	Data collection coordinator
	Which reference establishes the Victim Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) for DON and provides further guidance to DON for assisting victims and witnesses of crime?• SECNAVINST 5801.11A • SECNAVINST 5800.11A• SECNAVINST 5231.1B• SECNAVINST 5800.15A	SECNAVINST 5800.11A
	Report Control Symbol OPNAV 1752–1, Sexual Assault Incident Data Collection Report, is assigned to NAVPERS 1752/1 and is referred to in paragraph 6a(1) and (2), and is approved per what instruction?• SECNAVINST 5114.2B • SECNAVINST 5224.2B• SECNAVINST 5214.2B• SECNAVINST 1214.2B	SECNAVINST 5214.2B
	Overseas locations should establish guidelines for interaction with nation authorities in regards to Sexual Assault investigation under applicable what?• UCMJ • Code of Conduct• Geneva code• Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)	Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)
	Which Navy program reports data for sexual assault victims who are 18 years or older except for victims of marital rape?• Sexual Assault Victim Intervention (SAVI) • Restricted Reporting• Family Advocacy Program (FAP)• Medical Reporting	Sexual Assault Victim Intervention (SAVI)
	Who will provide medical training and technical guidance for appropriate personnel in order to provide comprehensive medical management for alleged sexual assault victims?• Command Duty Officer • Medical Department Head• Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (CHBUMED)• Duty coreman	Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (CHBUMED)
	Who shall provide advice, instruction, guidance, and assistance regarding the legal aspects of the Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program?• Judge Advocate General of the Navy • Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)• Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)• Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service (NAVCRIMINVSVC)	Judge Advocate General of the Navy
	A sexual assault victim has the right to be reasonably protected from who?• Offender • Everyone• Chain of Command• Alleged Offender	Alleged Offender
	Which message outlines new DOD policy concerning confidential restricted reporting of sexual assaults?• NAVADMIN 122/05 • NAVADMIN 123/08• NAVADMIN 128/02• NAVADMIN 128/05	NAVADMIN 128/05
	Sexual Assault Incident Reports should be completed within how many days of initial notification to any Navy or Marine Corps support service or command?• Ten • Five• Seven• Fourteen	Ten
	What form is used for a Sexual Assault Incident Data Collection Report?• NAVPERS 1712/4 • NAVPERS 1252/1• NAVPERS 1732/1• NAVPERS 1752/1	NAVPERS 1752/1
	The victim’s identity will not be released to the media without the victim’s what?• Express Consent • Knowledge• Acknowledgement• Consent	Express Consent
	Sexual assaults against children and those that occur within a marital relationship shall be reported under which Department of the Navy program?• Medical • Family Advocacy Program (FAP)• SAVI• Restricted Reporting	Family Advocacy Program (FAP)
	Which USMC program covers all victims of sexual assault regardless of age and reports data under their FAP?• Restricted Reporting • SAVI• Sexual Assault and Rape• CACO	Sexual Assault and Rape
	What is a criminal act that is absolutely incompatible with the DON’s core values, high standards of professionalism, and personal discipline?• Discrimination • Sexual Harrassment• Assault• Sexual assault	Sexual assault
	Data collection and reporting must protect the victim’s what?• Gender • Rights• Identity• Information	Identity
	Which reference provides guidance on assisting victims and witnesses of crime from initial contact through investigation, prosecution, and confinement?• DODI 1030.2 • DODI 1040.2• DODI 1031.2• DODI 1030.1	DODI 1030.2
	Who shall develop, conduct, and maintain a training continuum for all individual sexual assault training?• Commander, COMNAVPERSCOM • Commander, Naval Education and Training Command• Commander, BUPERS• Commanding Officer	Commander, Naval Education and Training Command
	Data collection and incident investigation shall be pursued with sensitivity to avoid what?• Harrassing the victim• Scaring the victim• Re–victimization• Upsetting the victim	Re–victimization
	What will be commensurate with a member's seniority and level of command resposibility/supervision?* Duties* Training* Position* Entitlements	Training
	Any amount of alcohol or drug consumption prior to (within approximately how many hours of) the incident constitutes "use", backed up by the victim's account or blood test?* 1 hour* 48 hours* 12 hours* 24 hours	24 hours
	Which system establishes a single, comprehensive database in which the prevalence of sexual assault within the Department of the Navy can be monitored and analyzed?* Sexeal Assault Incident Data Collection Report and Explanation* CACO database* Sexual Assault Investigation Data Collection Report and Explanation* SAVI database	Sexual Assault Incident Data Collection Report and Explanation
	Continuation (status) reports will be used to provide new or revised information and must be submitted to Service headquarters at least how often until final resolution of a case, or a determination that the installation commander is unable to monitor the progress of a case?* Quarterly* Annually* Semi–annually* Monthly	Quarterly
	Who shall establish an Integrated Database to capture and track reported incidents of sexual assault against persons who are over the age of 18 who are not married to their alleged offenders, and to track subsequent investigative and/or legal actions?* CNO* COMNAVPERSCOM* CO* SECNAV	CNO
	Who will provide technical guidance and training for the military security forces and DON civilian law enforcement personnel involved in prevention of, and response to, sexual assault?* SECNAV* Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service* Office, Judge Advocate General* CNO	Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service
	Who will be responsible for obtaining data elements through a coordinated effort with all agencies involved in the reporting, investigation, or prosecution of sexual assault?• SAVI• Commanding Officer• CACO• Data collection coordinator (correct	Data collection coordinator
	Which reference establishes the Victim Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) for DON and provides further guidance to DON for assisting victims and witnesses of crime?• SECNAVINST 5801.11A • SECNAVINST 5800.11A• SECNAVINST 5231.1B• SECNAVINST 5800.15A	SECNAVINST 5800.11A
	Report Control Symbol OPNAV 1752–1, Sexual Assault Incident Data Collection Report, is assigned to NAVPERS 1752/1 and is referred to in paragraph 6a(1) and (2), and is approved per what instruction?• SECNAVINST 5114.2B • SECNAVINST 5224.2B• SECNAVINST 5214.2B• SECNAVINST 1214.2B	SECNAVINST 5214.2B
	Overseas locations should establish guidelines for interaction with nation authorities in regards to Sexual Assault investigation under applicable what?• UCMJ • Code of Conduct• Geneva code• Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)	Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)
	Which Navy program reports data for sexual assault victims who are 18 years or older except for victims of marital rape?• Sexual Assault Victim Intervention (SAVI) • Restricted Reporting• Family Advocacy Program (FAP)• Medical Reporting	Sexual Assault Victim Intervention (SAVI)
	Who will provide medical training and technical guidance for appropriate personnel in order to provide comprehensive medical management for alleged sexual assault victims?• Command Duty Officer • Medical Department Head• Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (CHBUMED)• Duty coreman	Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (CHBUMED)
	Who shall provide advice, instruction, guidance, and assistance regarding the legal aspects of the Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program?• Judge Advocate General of the Navy • Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)• Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)• Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service (NAVCRIMINVSVC)	Judge Advocate General of the Navy
	A sexual assault victim has the right to be reasonably protected from who?• Offender • Everyone• Chain of Command• Alleged Offender	Alleged Offender
	Which message outlines new DOD policy concerning confidential restricted reporting of sexual assaults?• NAVADMIN 122/05 • NAVADMIN 123/08• NAVADMIN 128/02• NAVADMIN 128/05	NAVADMIN 128/05
	Sexual Assault Incident Reports should be completed within how many days of initial notification to any Navy or Marine Corps support service or command?• Ten • Five• Seven• Fourteen	Ten
	What form is used for a Sexual Assault Incident Data Collection Report?• NAVPERS 1712/4 • NAVPERS 1252/1• NAVPERS 1732/1• NAVPERS 1752/1	NAVPERS 1752/1
	The victim’s identity will not be released to the media without the victim’s what?• Express Consent • Knowledge• Acknowledgement• Consent	Express Consent
	Sexual assaults against children and those that occur within a marital relationship shall be reported under which Department of the Navy program?• Medical • Family Advocacy Program (FAP)• SAVI• Restricted Reporting	Family Advocacy Program (FAP)
	Which USMC program covers all victims of sexual assault regardless of age and reports data under their FAP?• Restricted Reporting • SAVI• Sexual Assault and Rape• CACO	Sexual Assault and Rape
	What is a criminal act that is absolutely incompatible with the DON’s core values, high standards of professionalism, and personal discipline?• Discrimination • Sexual Harrassment• Assault• Sexual assault	Sexual assault
	Data collection and reporting must protect the victim’s what?• Gender • Rights• Identity• Information	Identity
	Which reference provides guidance on assisting victims and witnesses of crime from initial contact through investigation, prosecution, and confinement?• DODI 1030.2 • DODI 1040.2• DODI 1031.2• DODI 1030.1	DODI 1030.2
	Who shall develop, conduct, and maintain a training continuum for all individual sexual assault training?• Commander, COMNAVPERSCOM • Commander, Naval Education and Training Command• Commander, BUPERS• Commanding Officer	Commander, Naval Education and Training Command
	Data collection and incident investigation shall be pursued with sensitivity to avoid what?• Harrassing the victim• Scaring the victim• Re–victimization• Upsetting the victim	Re–victimization
	This instruction and the prohibition of fraternization found in Article 1165 of the US Navy Regulations are _______ effective without further implementation.• Lawful General Orders• Instructions• General Orders• Lawful Orders	Lawful General Orders
	Who will ensure training throughout the Navy on Fraternization?• SECNAV • CNO • Director, Military Personnel Plans and Policy Division • Director, Military Personnel Training	Director, Military Personnel Plans and Policy Division
	Proper social interaction among officer and enlisted members has always been encouraged as it enhances?• Senior/Subordinate relationships • Morale • Morale and esprit de corps • esprit de corps	Morale and esprit de corps
	Commands are expected to take what action as necessary to correct inappropriate behavior?• Judicial and Disciplinary • Administrative and Disciplinary • Administrative and Judicial • Training and Disciplinary	Administrative and Disciplinary
	Who will provide indoctrination and annual training to all hands on the subject of fraternization?• Commanders • Commanding Officer • LPO’s • LCPO’s	Commanders
	Relationships which are unduly familiar between ____ and ____ are prohibited• between flag officers and staff • between chiefs and officers • between medical staff and patients • recruiting personnel and prospects	recruiting personnel and prospects
	What has the Navy historically relied upon to define the bounds of acceptable personal relationships among its members?• Custom and Tradition • Regulations and Tradition • Khakis and Blueshirt separation • Custom and Regulation	Custom and Tradition
	Why have unduly familiar personal relationships between officers and enlisted members traditionally been contrary to naval custom?• interferes with equal opportunity • they undermine the respect for authority • may show favoritism • compromises the chain of command	they undermine the respect for authority
	Relationships which are unduly familiar between ____ and ____ are prohibited• Between Enlisted • Between Chiefs • Staff/Instructor and student personnel • Between Officers	Staff/Instructor and student personnel
	Service members who are married or otherwise related (i.e., father, son, etc.) to other service members, must maintain?• military bearing • the requisite respect • Distance • proper courtesies	the requisite respect
	Over how many years of seagoing experience demonstrates that seniors must maintain thoroughly professional relationships with juniors at all times?• 400 • 330 • 100 • 220	220
	Historically, and as used in this instruction, fraternization is a?• homosexual concept • rank–neutral concept • heterosexual concept • gender–neutral concept	gender–neutral concept
	Prejudice to good order and discipline or discredit to the naval service may result from which circumstances?• Call into question a senior’s judgment, preferential treatment, undermining authority, compromising chain of command • Call into question a senior’s objectivity, preferential treatment, undermining authority, compromising chain of command • Call into question a senior’s objectives, preferential treatment, undermining authority, compromising chain of command • Call into question a senior’s objectivity, preferential treatment, undermining rank, compromising chain of command	Call into question a senior’s objectivity, preferential treatment, undermining authority, compromising chain of command
	What has traditionally defined proper senior–subordinate relationships?• SORM • Military heritage • Military tradition • Military customs and courtesies	Military customs and courtesies
	Officer and enlisted members are prohibited from engaging in__________ regardless of the service affiliation or service rules of the other person• unduly familiar personal relationships • personal relationships • unduly familiar relationships • familiar personal relationships	unduly familiar personal relationships
	What is the term traditionally used to identify personal relationships which contravene the customary bounds of acceptable senior–subordinate relationships?• Fraternization • Undue familiarity • Personal relationship • Esprit de corps	Fraternization
	The responsibility for preventing inappropriate relationships must rest primarily on the?• Senior Member • Command • Member with the longest time in service • Chain of command	Senior Member
	Similar relationships which are unduly familiar __________ may also be prejudicial to good order and discipline or of a nature to bring discredit on the naval service and are prohibited.• Between officers or between enlisted members in the same command • Between officers or between enlisted members of different commands • Between officers or between enlisted members of different rank or grade • Between officers or between enlisted members of same rank or grade	Between officers or between enlisted members of different rank or grade
	When does a process become an applicant for enlistment or appointment in any of the Armed Forces?• Completing a DD Form 1967, NAVCRUIT 1100/11, or comparable form • Completing a DD Form 1956, NAVCRUIT 1100/11, or comparable form • Completing a DD Form 1968, NAVCRUIT 1100/11, or comparable form • Completing a DD Form 1966, NAVCRUIT 1100/11, or comparable form	Completing a DD Form 1966, NAVCRUIT 1100/11, or comparable form
	Personal relationships between __________ which are unduly familiar and do not respect differences in rank and grade are prohibited and violate long–standing custom and tradition of the naval service.• Officer and Enlisted members • Enlisted members • All service members • Officer members	Officer and Enlisted members
	Personal relationships between ___ and____ who are assigned to the same command, which are unduly familiar and that do not respect differences in grade or rank, are prohibited.• Petty Officers (E–6 to E–9) and junior personnel (E–1 to E–5) • Chief Petty Officers (E–7to E–9) and junior personnel (E–1 to E–6) • Petty Officers (E–4 to E–6) and junior personnel (E–1 to E–3) • Senior Chief Petty Officers (E–8 to E–9) and junior personnel (E–1 to E–6)	Chief Petty Officers (E–7to E–9) and junior personnel (E–1 to E–6)
	Violation of this instruction or Article 1165 subjects the involved members to disciplinary action under the?• Geneva Convention • In accordance with OPNAVINST 5370 • Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) • Command Fraternization Policy	Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
	Conduct, which constitutes fraternization, is not excused or mitigated by a subsequent ______between the offending parties.• Separation • Pregnancy • Marriage • Break up	Marriage
	Fraternization affects what?• good order, discipline, authority, and high unit morale • ranking boards, discipline, authority, and good order • good order, fairness, authority, and high unit morale • ranking boards, financial standing, fairness, and equal opportunity	good order, discipline, authority, and high unit morale
	Give three examples of unduly familiar relations• Marriage, borrowing money between enlisted and officer members, private business relationships. • Dating, borrowing money between enlisted and officer members, private business relationships. • Dating, borrowing money between enlisted and senior enlisted, private business relationships. • Dating, borrowing money between enlisted and officer members, public business relationships.	Dating, borrowing money between enlisted and officer members, private business relationships.
	Compatible with sea/shore rotation policy and the needs of the service, service members married to each other will not be assigned?• In the same chain of command • To the same command • Simultaneous Deployments • Concurrent Sea Time	In the same chain of command
	When prejudicial to good order or of a nature to bring discredit on the naval service, personal relationships between ___ or ___ which are unduly familiar and that do not respect differences in grade or rank are prohibited.• Officers and Junior Personnel • Officer members or Enlisted members • Officer members and Enlisted members • Officers and Chiefs	Officer members or Enlisted members
	Custom requires that junior personnel recognize and respect the authority inherent in a senior’s?• Rank • Position • Grade • Grade, Rank, or Position	Grade, Rank, or Position
	By long–standing custom and tradition, ____ are separate and distinct leaders within their assigned command.• Senior Officers • Petty Officers • Officers • Chief Petty Officers	Chief Petty Officers
	Prejudice to good order and discipline and discredit to the naval service may occur when what happens?• senior's objectivity is called into question • when two sailors from the same command get married • when two sailors from different commands get married • when an officer dates an enlisted member	senior's objectivity is called into question
	How often shall the Navy Equal Opportunity Office (NEO) provide an EO Climate Assessment describing the “health” and organizational effectiveness of the Navy (using the data collected from Naval Inspector General (NAVINSGEN), Office of the Judge Advocate General (OJAG), Fleet commanders, and Echelon 2 commands), by examining such factors as morale, teamwork, and communication?• Quarterly • Bi–Annually• Annually• Semi–Annually	Annually
	Who shall ensure that unlawful discrimination is absent in administrative and disciplinary proceedings?• Fleet Master Chief • Echelon Commanders• Immediate Superior in Command• Commanders, Commanding Officers (CO’s), and (OIC’s)	Commanders, Commanding Officers (CO’s), and (OIC’s)
	What are the possible disciplinary actions for persons who discriminate?• Informal counseling • Comments in fitness reports and evaluations and punitive measures under the Uniform Code of Military Justice• Administrative Separation• All of the above (correct answer)	All of the above
	It is recommended that the CMEO Manager be what rank?• E3 to E6 or an officer • E3 to E7 or an officer with 2 or more years of service• E6 to E9 or an officer with four or more years of service• E7 to E9 or an officer with four or more years of service	E7 to E9 or an officer with four or more years of service
	Immediate Superiors In Command (ISIC) shall ensure subordinate commanders assess their command climate within how many days of assuming command, and annually follow–up with assessments during their command tenure?• 90 days • 180 days• 45 days• 7 days	90 days
	True or False: A servicemember may be punished for knowingly making a false accusation of unlawful discrimination or SH• True • False	True
	Which of the following is NOT part of the Navy’s focus when our Navy’s Core Values are not adhered to?• Detriment to good order and discipline• Military Readiness• Unit cohesion• Sex of the members involved	Sex of the members involved
	Commanding Officers should assess their command climate within how many days of assuming command?• 30 days • 90 days• 45 days• 180 days	90 days
	What NEC is awarded to Equal Opportunity Advisors (EOA’s)?• 2735 • 9515• 9202• 2781	9515
	Who shall provide overall direction, guidance, support and leadership for the management of fleet and force command climates?• Navy Equal Opportunity Office (NEO) • Diversity and Women’s Policy Branch• Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (DCNO)• Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy (MCPON)	Navy Equal Opportunity Office (NEO)
	Who shall ensure leadership opportunities and an equitable assignment process exist for all personnel?• Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (DCNO) • Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)• Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy (MCPON)• Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)	Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (DCNO)
	Whose objective is it to promote positive command morale and Quality of Life by providing an environment in which all personnel can perform to their maximum ability, unimpeded by institutional or individual biases based on race, color, ethnicity, national origin, sex or religious stereotypes?• Executive Officer • CAT Team (CATT)• Commanding Officer (CO)• Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO)	Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO)
	Who shall monitor Equal Opportunity status within subordinate commands?• Force Master Chiefs • Fleet Master Chiefs• Immediate Superior in Charge• Echelon 2 commanders	Echelon 2 commanders
	OJAG shall provide summary of fiscal year UCMJ article 138, and U.S. Navy Regulations, article 1150, actions relating to unlawful discrimination and Sexual Harassment annually to the Navy EO Office by what date?• October 31st • October 1st• November 1st• November 15th	November 15th
	Who shall ensure General Military Training (GMT) includes annual EO/SH training and grievance procedure instructions as required?• Navy Knowledge Online (NKO) • Shared Authentication Service (SAS)• Navy Advancement Center (NAC)• Center for Personal and Professional Development (CPPD)	Center for Personal and Professional Development (CPPD)
	What are prohibited under this instruction regardless of who originates the action?• Disciplinary Actions • Harassment• Appeals• Reprisals	Reprisals
	Who issues policies and procedures as a separate instruction on Department of the Navy Civilian Discrimination Complaints Program?• Secretary of the Navy • Assistant Secretary of the Navy Civilian Human Resources (ASN CHR)• Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Navy Civilian Human Resources (DASN CHR)• Secretary of the Navy Civilian Human Resources (SN CHR)	Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Navy Civilian Human Resources (DASN CHR)
	Who shall provide a summary of hotline allegations involving unlawful discrimination and Sexual Harassment by November 15th annually to the Navy EO Office?• NAVINSGEN and Echelon 2 Inspector Generals (IGs) • Commanding Officers• Immediate Superior in Charge• Echelon 2 commanders	NAVINSGEN and Echelon 2 Inspector Generals (IGs)
	Who shall advocate the EO program for Navy military and civilian personnel, and report Navy–wide climate assessment survey results to the fleet?• Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)• Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy (MCPON)• Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (DCNO)• Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)	Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
	Who shall maintain overall control of the Military Equal Opportunity Assessment (MEOA), and provide information, assessment, and status reports on minority affairs matters as required by higher authority?• Diversity and Women’s Policy Branch • Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)• Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy (MCPON)• Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)	Diversity and Women’s Policy Branch
	What shall servicemembers be evaluated on?• Attitude, Fitness, and Capability • Individual merit, fitness and capability• Gender, Race, and individual merit• Fitness, capability, and Race	Individual merit, fitness and capability
	What is the course number for CPPD’s Command Training Team Indoctrination training course?• CIN A–010–0101 • CIN A–050–0001• CIN A–049–1010• CIN A–450–4555	CIN A–050–0001
	What is the course number for CPPD’s Command Assessment Team Course?• NAVEDTRA 8988B • NAVEDTRA 7523F• NAVEDTRA 7515• NAVEDTRA 7191E	NAVEDTRA 7523F
	Which article states that Navy personnel are prohibited from participating in organizations that support supremacist causes?• 1140 • 1297• 1190• 1167	1167
	Which method is used to determine the “health” and functional effectiveness of an organization by examining such factors as morale, teamwork, and communication?• Objective Model • Subjective Model• Circular Method• Triangulation Method	Triangulation Method
	Who is responsible for coordinating and monitoring all command EO training?• XO • EO Manager• CMEO Manager• Command Training PO	CMEO Manager
	Who is responsible for developing and conducting education and training in the administration of military EO, EEO, human relations, and diversity?• Navy Diversity Coordinator (NDC)• Navy Equal Opportunity Coordinator (NEOC)• Defense Equal Opportunity Management Institute (DEOMI)• Defense Management Institute (DMI)	Defense Equal Opportunity Management Institute (DEOMI)
	If the complaint results in a hostile work environment what will commanders do, when possible, during the course of the investigation in regards to the complainant?• Grant leave • Temporarily relocate• Permanently relocate• Grant non–charged leave	Temporarily relocate
	Within how many hours of receipt of a formal complaint should advocates be assigned to each complainant, alleged offender and any witness to ensure they are informed about complaint processing?• 72 hours • 24 hours• 36 hours• 48 hours	24 hours
	Anyone who is alleged to have committed a violation of the EO policy is known as what?• Alleged Offender • Suspect• Advocate• Accused	Accused
	Anyone who is alleged to have committed a violation of the EO/SH policy, and is the subject of a formal or informal complaint is known as what?• Suspect • Accused• Alleged Offender• Advocate	Alleged Offender
	Final resolution of an appeal on a formal complaint will rest with whom?• Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy (MCPON) • Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)• NAVINSGEN• Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)	Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
	Who is responsible and accountable for reporting acts of unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment in accordance with article 1137?• XO • CMC• CO• Individual Servicemembers	Individual Servicemembers
	Commands follow up will include a determination of complainant satisfaction with the effectiveness of corrective action, timeliness, present command climate, and a review to ensure reprisal did not occur. Commands must conduct the follow up debrief within how many days after final action?• 30–45 • 7–10• 3–5• 15–30	30–45
	CMEO Managers should serve in their position for a minimum of how long?• Two years • Six months• One year• Three years	One year
	A complaint should be made within how many days of the offending incident?• 90 days • 45 days• 30 days• 60 days	60 days
	A representative assigned by the commander to ensure that complainant, accused, and witness in an EO/SH case are informed of the EO/SH complaint process and advised of available support and counseling services is known as what?• Advocate • CATT• Accused• Assistant	Advocate
	Who should you refer all unlawful discrimination or SH complaints against flag officers or SES officials?• NAVCMEO • ISIC• MCPON• NAVINSGEN	NAVINSGEN
	In processing this final appeal, the procedures applicable to the SECNAV review of UCMJ Article 138 complaints, as detailed in which chapter of the Manual of the Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN), shall be used?• Chapter III • Chapter VI• Chapter IV• Chapter II	Chapter III
	Who shall function as the single point of contact when practicable for EO issues, to include sexual harassment and discrimination, at the command?• XO • CMEO Manager• CO• CMC	CMEO Manager
	The investigating officer should be senior to the complainant and the alleged offender and the investigation must commence within how many hours of the complaint submission?• 72 hours • 48 hours• 24 hours• 36 hours	72 hours
	Which form is the Navy Equal Opportunity (EO) Formal Complaint Form?• NAVPERS 5354/3 (Rev 03/06) • NAVPERS 6356/2 (Rev 03/06)• NAVPERS 5354/2 (Rev 03/06)• NAVPERS 5351/2 (Rev 03/06)	NAVPERS 5354/2 (Rev 03/06)
	Which form is the Report of Disposition of Offenses?• NAVPERS 1626/7 (Rev. 12/88) • NAVPERS 1526/7 (Rev. 12/87)• NAVPERS 1676/7 (Rev. 12/81)• NAVPERS 1629/7 (Rev. 12/80)	NAVPERS 1626/7 (Rev. 12/88)
	A close out message must be sent describing action taken, within how many days of investigation commencement. If the investigation is not completed by that point, an updated message must be sent every 14 days thereafter until the close–out message describing the case disposition is released?• 21 days • 14 days• 30 days• 20 days	20 days
	You must ensure completed copies of all NAVPERS 5354/2, Navy Equal Opportunity(EO)/Sexual Harassment (SH) Formal Complaint Forms are maintained in the CMEO Manager file for how long?• 3 years • 2 years• 1 year• 5 years	3 years
	When can commanders issue an order that only English be spoken in a work place?• Never • When they have a legitimate, nondiscriminatory reason for the rule• When over 50% of the personnel speak English• English is the only language that will be spoken, no order is necessary	When they have a legitimate, nondiscriminatory reason for the rule
	Personal receiving a formal complaint shall submit the complaint to the commander or other designated authority within how many calendar days of receipt?• Thirty • Two• Seven• One	One
	You should file complaints in good faith. Knowingly making a false official statement is a violation of which UCMJ article?• 107 • 101• 108• 1172	107
	What is required by parent commands upon receipt of a formal complaint?• EO complaint form• Findings Report• Disposition of Offense Report• Naval Message	Naval Message
	What DON instruction establishes the policy regarding Operational Risk Management (ORM)?	OPNAV Instruction 3500.39B
	Who is responsible for operational risk management, and when?	All individuals are responsible for operational risk management, on and off duty.
	When should ORM be applied?	All naval activities shall apply the ORM process in planning, operations and training to optimize operational capability and readiness.
	The concept behind ORM is?	a) A decision making tool used by personnel at all levels to increase operational effectivemess by identifying, assessing, and managing risks. By reducing the potential for loss, the probably of a successful mission is increased.b) Increase our ability to make informed decisions by providing a formal operational risk management process.c) Minimize risk to acceptable levels. The amount of risk accepted at war is more than peace, but the process remains the same.
	Identify the first step in ORM:	Identify hazards*Begin with an outline or chart of the major steps in operation (operational analysis). Conduct a Preliminary Hazard Analysis by listing all of the hazards associated with each step in the operational analysis along with possible causes for those hazards.
	Identify the second step in ORM:	Assess Hazards*For each hazard identified, determine the associated degree of risk in terms of probability and severity. Although not required, the use of a matrix may be helpful in assessing harzards.
	Identify the third step in ORM:	Make Risk Decisions*First, develop risk control options. Start with the most serious risk first and select control that will reduce the risk to a minimum consistent with mission accomplishment. Decide if the benefit outweighs the risk. If risk outweighs benefit, consult with the chain of command.
	Identify the fifth step in ORM:	Supervise*Conduct follow–up evaluations of controls to ensure they remain in place and have the desired effect. Monitor for changes, which may require further ORM.
	What is a Category I hazard?	CAT I: The hazard may cause death, loss of facility/asset or result in grave damage to national interests.
	What is a Category II hazard?	CAT II: The hazard may cause severe injury, illness, or property damage, damage to national or service interests or degradation to efficent use of assets
	What is a catagory III hazard?	Cat III: The hazard may cause minor injury, illness, property damage, damage to national, service or command interests or degradation to efficient use of assets.
	What is a catagory IV hazard?	Cat IV: The hazard presents a minimal threat to personnel safety or health property, national, service or command interests of efficient use of assets.
	What is Mishap Propability?	The probability that a hazard will result in a mishap or loss, based on an assessment of various factors.
	What is mishap probability Sub–catagory A?	Sub–catagory: Likely to occur immediately or within a short period of time. Expected to occur frequently to an individual item or person or continuously to a fleet, inventory or group.
	What is mishap probability sub–catagory B?	Sub–catagory B: Probability will occur in time. Expected to occur several times to an individual item or person or frequently to a fleet, inventory or group.
	What is mishap probability sub–catagory C?	Sub–catagory C: May occur in time. Can reasonably be expected to occur some time to an individual item or person or several times to a fleet, inventory or group.
	What is mishap probability sub–catagory D?	Sub–catagory D: Unlikely to occur.
	Identify the fourth step in ORM:	Implement Controls*Use the following measures to eleminate hazards or reduce the degree of risk (listed by preference:1. Engineering Controls2. Aministrative Controls3. Peronal Protective Equipment
	What are the three ORM process levels?	1. Time Critical2. Deliberate3. In depth*Deciding which of the three levels is necessary is based on the situation, proficiency level, and time and assets available.
	The Risk Assessment Code (RAC) uses numbers within a severity matrix to indicate risk. Define the numbers.	RAC Definitions:1 – Critical risk2 – Serious risk3 – Moderate risk4 – Minor risk5 – Negligible risk
	What is the PRT requirement for entry into the Officer Candidate School program?• Must have passed last PRT• Must have three consecutive “good–medium” final PRT scores• Must have two consecutive “good–low” final PRT scores• Must have passed two consecutive PRT’s	Must have two consecutive “good–low” final PRT scores
	How many years of obligated service will members who disenroll from STA–21 have to complete?• 5 years or the remainder of their current enlistment, whichever is longer• 4 years or the remainder of their current enlistment, whichever is longer • 6 years or the remainder of their current enlistment, whichever is longer • 8 years or the remainder of their current enlistment, whichever is longer	5 years or the remainder of their current enlistment, whichever is longer
	What is the maximum time allotted for the completion of all degree requirements?• 36 months • 48 months • 18 months • 24 months	36
	What is the minimum service obligation once commissioned through the Naval Academy?• 4 years active duty and 4 years reserve upon initial appointment • 3 years active duty and 5 years reserve upon initial appointment • 6 years active duty and 2 years reserve upon initial appointment • 5 years active duty and 3 years reserve upon initial appointment	5 years active duty and 3 years reserve upon initial appointment
	Naval Academy applicants must have no disciplinary action within how many years prior to application?• Two• Three• One• Four	3
	What is the minimum pay–grade for the officer conducting and interview for an applicant for Officer Candidate School?• O–2 • O–3 • O–5 • O–1	O–3
	What is the maximum age that can be obtained prior to commission for all programs?• 34 years of age• 35 years of age• 40 years of age• 30 years of age	35 years of age
	What is the minimum amount of credits that should be attained prior to applying for MECP?• 60 quarter, or 30 semester credit hours of undergraduate courses• 20 quarter, or 40 semester credit hours of undergraduate courses• 45 quarter, or 30 semester credit hours of undergraduate courses• 15 quarter, or 30 semester credit hours of undergraduate courses	45 quarter, or 30 semester credit hours of undergraduate courses
	What is the age requirement for the Naval Academy?• At least 18, no older than 24 • At least 18, no older than 23 • At least 17, no older than 23 • At least 17, no older than 24	At least 17, no older than 23
	What statement must Nuclear option Sailors submit?• Nondisclosure Agreement • Non–Compete Agreement • Page 13 • Nuclear Contract	Page 13
	When does the MECP selection board convene?• October • January • December • November	December
	When does the Seaman to Admiral selection board convene?• Annually in March • Annually in September • Annually in November • Annually in October	Annually in September
	Who can apply for Officer Candidate School?• Enlisted applicants in pay–grade E–5 and above • Any Enlisted applicant who holds a Bachelors Degree • Enlisted applicants in pay–grade E–6 and above with at least 8 years service • Enlisted applicants in pay–grade E–4 and above	Enlisted applicants in pay–grade E–5 and above
	Prior to detachment from their present command, each MECP student must incur how many years obligated service?• Five • Six • Four • Eight	6
	What options require a minimum score that must be obtained on the Academic Qualification Rating portion of the Aviation Selection Test Battery prior to beginning senior year?• Nuclear and Space option • Space and Helo Pilot option • Pilot and Nuclear option • Pilot and Space option	Pilot and Nuclear option
	What option requires a candidate to be commissioned prior to the age of 26?• STA–21 Option• Pilot Option• Nuclear Option• SWO Option	Nuclear Option
	Enlisted members who apply to the U.S. Naval Academy and are not selected for direct entry are automatically considered for entrance into what program?• NAPS • BOOST • OCS • NPACE	NAPS
	Service members offered an appointment of selected for admission into NAPS must have obligated service of?• 48 months • 36 months • 12 months • 24 months	24
	Although not stated on the form, board members shall annotate what on their respective appraisal sheet?• Rank, designator, and Time in Service• Time in Service, Rank, and designator• Rank, designator and job title• Most recent PFA score, Time in Service, and Rank	Rank, designator and job title
	Upon receipt of orders to STA–21, each selectee will be required to acquire obligated service for how long?• 2 years • 8 years • 4 years • 6 years	6
	Normally how long does the Officer Candidate School application process take?• 2 to 4 weeks• One Fiscal year• 4 to 6 weeks• 6 to 8 weeks	4 to 6 weeks
	How many enlisted members may the Secretary of the Navy appoint of the regular Navy, Navy Reserve and Marine Corps to the Naval Academy?• 500 • 1000 • 245 • 170	170
	A 4 year military college where members obtain a Bachelor of Science degree, graduates are commissioned as Ensigns, U.S. Naval Reserve, or Second Lieutenants, U.S. Marine Corps Reserve is known better as?• Naval Officer Commissioning College • Officer Commissioning School • Officer Commissioning School • Naval Academy	Naval Academy
	When possible, the college or university must be within how many miles of a naval activity?• 45 • 10 • 50 • 30	50
	What two options have a maximum age of 31 that can be obtained prior to commission?• SWO and Nuclear • Nuclear and Pilot • SWO and SPECOP • SWO and Space	Nuclear and Pilot
	What examination must all Officer Candidate School applicants take?• ACT• What examination must all Officer Candidate School applicants take?• SAT• ASVAB	What examination must all Officer Candidate School applicants take?
	What is the service obligation for graduates from MECP?• 7 years, with a minimum of 4 years served on active duty • 6 years, with a minimum of 3 years served on active duty • 8 years, with a minimum of 4 years served on active duty • 10 years, with a minimum of 5 years served on active duty	8 years, with a minimum of 4 years served on active duty
	Officer Aptitude Rating scores below what are not competitive?• 35 • 50 • 40 • 60	35
	Once NMETC receives the program letter of acceptance, PCS orders will be issued with how many months?• 7 months • 6 months • 5 months • 8 months	5
	Tuition assistance can be used with MECP?• True • False	FALSE
	What is the dependency requirement for the Naval Academy?• Single, not pregnant, may have dependents • Does not matter, equal opportunity for all • Single, Married, not pregnant, and have no incurred obligation of parenthood • Unmarried, not pregnant, and have no incurred obligation of parenthood	Unmarried, not pregnant, and have no incurred obligation of parenthood
	Except for the Pilot and the NFO option, what is the active commissioned service obligation?• 4 years • 6 years • 5 years • 8 years	5
	What is the active duty obligation for the NFO option?• 4 years • 8 years • 5 years • 6 years	6
	When are PAO Officer Candidate School applications due?• 1 March through 31 August • 1 July through 31 December • 1 July through 31 August • 1 October through 31 November	1 July through 31 August
	Graduates of the Officer Candidate School program incur what minimum active duty service obligation?• 6 years • 4 years • 8 years • 10 years	4 years
	How long should the STA–21 interview be?• 1 hour• 45 minutes• 30 minutes• 15 minutes	15 minutes
	What is the active duty obligation for the Pilot option?• 8 years • 4 years • 10 years • 6 years	8 years
	What is BOOST?• 3 or 6 month college preparation program • 9 month college preparation program • 4 month college preparation program • 6 or 12 month college preparation program	3 or 6 month college preparation program
	When must selectees for MECP submit a letter of acceptance?• Until 16 October of the fiscal year in which the selection board was held• Until 16 March of the fiscal year in which the selection board was held• Until 15 October of the fiscal year in which the selection board was held• Until 15 March of the fiscal year in which the selection board was held	Until 15 March of the fiscal year in which the selection board was held
	Applicants for the Officer Candidate School must have how many months of obligated service remaining on current enlistment upon receipt of orders?• 4 years • 9 months • 6 months • 5 years	6 months
	How long is Officer Candidate School?• 8 weeks • 13 weeks • 12 weeks • 10 weeks	13
	What is the minimum age requirement for Officer Candidate School?• 18 • 21 • 19 • 17	19
	What is the minimum GPA that a STA–21 student must maintain with the exception of the Nuclear option?• 4.0 • 3.0 • 2.0 • 2.5	2.5
	To be considered for a Secretary of the Navy nomination, a candidate should obtain an SAT/ACT score of?• SAT 600 Math, 550 Verbal; ACT 21 Math, 23 English • SAT 550 Math, 500 Verbal; ACT 24 Math, 22 English • SAT 200 Math, 700 Verbal; ACT 10 Math, 22 English • SAT 500 Math, 500 Verbal; ACT 24 Math, 24 English	SAT 550 Math, 500 Verbal; ACT 24 Math, 22 English
	Under which program will students get up to $10,000 per year paid to the university by CNET to supplement the cost of tuition, books, and fees? How much will Seaman to Admiral students get for their degree?• STA–21 • NCP • BOOST • MGIB	STA–21
	How many applications do Sailors applying for the Nuclear option have to submit?• Four • An original and one copy • Just one • Three	An original and one copy
	What program option requires a current photo taken within the year of application?• Flight Option • Nuclear Option • Submarine Option • Officer Option	Nuclear Option
	Any color vision deficiency is disqualifying for a commission in what community?• Restricted Line (RL) • Unrestricted Line (URL) • Pilot • Limited Duty Officer (LDO)	Unrestricted Line (URL)
	What may happen to a Midshipmen who completes the course of instruction and declines to accept an appointment as a commissioned officer?• May be transferred to the Reserve component in an enlisted status and ordered to active duty for 4 years • Midshipmen has no choice but to accept the commission • Will be released as the commission is part of the contract which was not fulfilled • Midshipmen will be transferred to a ship as an undesignated E–2	May be transferred to the Reserve component in an enlisted status and ordered to active duty for 4 years
	The Naval Science Institute is a course of intensive officer preparation and indoctrination. How long is this course?• 9 Weeks • 1 Week • 6 Months • 1 Year	9 weeks
	Reserves on Active Duty for Special Work (ADSW) or 1, 2, 3 year recalls and Canvasser Recruiters are not eligible to participate in which program?• STA–21 • MECP • BOOST • NSI	MECP
	What programs allow a waiver beyond 24 months for enlisted personnel who possess particularly exceptional qualifications provided they can be commissioned prior to their 35th birthday? • Special Operations, Pilot, and Nuclear • SWO, SPECOPS, and Nuclear • Pilot, Space, and Surface Warfare Officer • Special Operations, Special Warfare and Surface Warfare Officer	Special Operations, Special Warfare and Surface Warfare Officer
	When should Naval Academy candidate’s packages be completed?• October 30th • January 1st • March 1st • April 1st	March 1st
	Chapter 1List the four main sources of pollutants.a.b.c.d.	The four main sources of pollutants are—a. Agricultural runoffb. Industrialc. Municipald. Transportation operations
	Chapter 1What are two primary effects of pollution?	Pollution affects both the physical and biological world.
	Chapter 1What is the primary pollution concern of the Navy?	The primary pollution concern of the Navy is the pollution produced by shipboard waste.
	Chapter 1To help reduce air pollution, what steps has the Navy taken to improve their power plants ashore and afloat?	The Navy has been converting their power plants to use more efficient pollution control systems for stack emissions.
	Chapter 1Name the agreement that the Navy follows to dispose of treated sewage in foreign waters.	The agreement the Navy follows to operate marine sanitation devices (MSDs) and to dispose of treated sewage in foreign waters is the Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA).
	Chapter 1How many nautical miles fromthe U.S. coastline can vessels discharge unpulped trash?	Vessels must be at least 25 nautical miles from the U.S. coastline before they can discharge unpulped trash.
	Chapter 1What is the Navy’s policy on energy conservation?	The Navy makes every possible effort to improve the way it uses energy resources, without compromising readiness, effectiveness, or safety.
	Chapter 1What program provides you with support and information about foreign lands?	TheOverseas Duty Support Program(ODSP) provides you with support and information about foreign lands.
	Chapter 1Besides ODSP, what other source can you use to get information about other countries?	Besides the ODSP, you can get information about other countries through the Overseas Transfer Information Service (OTIS).
	Chapter 1What program does the Navy have that rewards you monetarily for beneficial suggestions, inventions, and scientific achievements?	The Military Cash Awards Program (MILCAP) is used to reward individuals for their beneficial suggestions, inventions, and scientific achievements.
	Chapter 1What Navy program provides educational programs for people who don’t meet the Navy’s fitness or body fat standards and who also need to help change long established bad health habits?	If Navy service members don’t meet the fitness or body fat standards and need help to change health habits, they take part in the Health and Physical Readiness Program.
	Chapter 1With regard to pregnant servicewomen, what is the Navy responsibility?	The Navy responsibility for pregnant servicewomen is providing obstetrical care at a medical facility if it has obstetrical/gynecological facilities and if the servicewoman lives in the treatment facility area.
	Chapter 1List the responsibilities of pregnant servicewomen.a.b.c.d.e.	a. Plan pregnancy to meet family and military obligationb. Confirm pregnancy with military medical facilityc. Notify CO or OIC of pregnancyd. Perform military duties while pregnante. Comply withwork- and task-related safety and health recommendations
	Chapter 1Service members must complete what forms for family care?a.b.	Service members must complete what forms for family care?a. Family Care Plan Certificate, NAVPERS1740/6b. Family Care Plan Arrangements,NAVPERS 1740/7
	List the areas that the Department of the Navy public affairs office informs the public and service members about.a.b.c.	The Department of the Navy public affairs informs the public and service members about the following subjects:a. The Navy as an instrument of national policy and securityb. Navy operations and programsc. The responsibilities and activities of naval personnel as U. S. citizens
	Chapter 1What is the Navy’s policy on drug abuse?	The Navy’s policy on drug abuse is zero tolerance.
	Chapter 1What is the purpose of the Integrity and Efficiency Program?	The purpose of the Integrity and Efficiency Program is to detect, deter, and eliminate fraud, waste, and abuse.
	Chapter 1List the ways to report fraud, waste, and abuse.a.b.c.d.	Youcan report fraud, waste, and abuse situations by the following means:a. Chain of commandb. Navy hotlinec. Naval Criminal Investigative Service (NCIS)d. Congressional communication
	Chapter 1Forthe Navy to maintain public confidence in its integrity, naval personnel should comply with	For the public to feel confident about the Navy’s integrity, naval personnel should comply with the Standards of Conduct and Professional Ethics.
	Chapter 1All naval personnel should be treated equally and be given equal opportunities. What program does the Navy use to achieve this purpose?	The Navy uses the Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Program to ensure that all naval personnel are treated equally and are given equal opportunities.
	Chapter 1Who provides guidance and policy for the CMEO Program?	Guidance and policy for the CMEO Program is provided by the Chief of Naval Operations.
	Chapter 1Telling a sexist or racial joke would be an example of what type of behavior?	Telling an sexist or racial joke is an insensitive practice.
	Chapter 1To avoid discriminating practices in the operation of exchanges, commissaries, service clubs, and recreational facilities, what do command facilities provide?	Command facilities provide a variety of products and services in command facilities to avoid discrimination in the operation of exchanges, commissaries, service clubs, and recreational facilities.
	Chapter 1Where is the best place for you or your family to start to resolve an off-base discrimination complaint?	The best place for you or your family to start toresolve an off-base discrimination complaint is your chain of command.
	Chapter 1Service members can attend civil rights demonstrations and similar gatherings except for what conditions?a.b.c.	Navy personnel can’t take part in civil rights demonstrations in the following situations:a. While wearing their uniform or during duty hours.b. When held on a military reservation or in a foreign country.c. When law and order are violated or when they could reasonably be expected to result in violence.
	Chapter 1You have submitted a special request chit and feel that the chain of command has not resolved your discrimination complaint. What should be your next course of action?	You have submitted a special request chit and feel that the chain of command hasn’t resolved your discrimination complaint. Your next course of action is to request captain’s mast.
	Chapter 1What is hazing?	Hazing is any conduct whereby a military member or members, regardless of service or rank, without proper authority causes another military member or members, regardless of service or rank, to suffer or be exposed to any activity which is cruel, abusive, humiliating, oppressive, demeaning, or harmful.
	Chapter 1What is the Navy’s policy on hazing?	According toNavy policy, hazing is prohibited.
	Chapter 1Improper conduct is considered sexual harassment when—a.b.c.	Improper conduct is considered sexual harassment when—a. Submission to or rejection of such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of a person’s job.b. Pay, or career; submission to or rejection of such conduct by a person is used as a basis for career or employment decisions affecting that person.c. Such conduct interferes with an individual’s performance or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive environment.
	Chapter 1List the criteria for a person’s behavior to be termed sexual harassment.a.b.c.	A person’s behavior to be termed sexual harassment if is—a. Unwelcomeb. Sexual in naturec. Occurs in or impacts on the work environment
	Whose perceptions count when there is unwelcome behavior?	The recipient’s perceptions count when there is unwelcome behavior.
	Your LCPO offers you high marks on your evals in exchange for sexual favors. What type of sexual harassment is this?	If your LCPO offers you high marks on your evals in exchange for sexual favors, it is quid pro quo sexual harassment.
	Displaying sexual posters or using sexual explicit language creates what type of environment?	Displaying posters or using sexually explicit language creates a hostile environment.
	How has the Navy made it easier to understandto wide range of good to bad behavior?a.b.c.	Tomake the range of good to bad behavior easier to understand, the Navy has compared behavior ranges to the traffic light.a. Red light—Sexual harassment behaviorb. Yellow light—Many people find behavior unacceptablec. Green light—Acceptable behavior, not sexual harassment
	Describe why the Navy has a fraternizationpolicy.	(This answer is incorrect in the BMR, I believe it is suppose to say) The navy's fraternization policy is designed to promote good order and discipline.
	What is the function of the ombudsman?a.b.	The ombudsman—a. Acts as a liaison between Navy families and the command, andb. Keeps the families informed about command policies.
	How does the ombudsman communicate with Navy families?	The ombudsman communicates with Navy families through command newsletters, command-ponsored telephone “Careline,” or phone trees.
	List some the agencies or organizations ombudsman works with.a.b.c.d.e.f.g.	The ombudsman works through the following agencies/organizations:a. Navy-Marine Corps Relief Societyb. American Red Crossc. Family Service Centersd. Chaplain’s officee. Navy Wifeline Associationf. Medical treatment facilitiesg. Legal assistance offices
	What must a first-term Sailor have before they can reenlist or extend?	Before a first-term Sailor can reenlist or extend, he/she must have ENCORE approval.
	When leaving the Navy, what determines if you will be able to reenlist at a later date?	If you leave the Navy, your reenlistment code tells whether you can reenlist.
	When away from their home district, how can a Sailor and his family register to vote?	When awayfromtheir home district, a Sailor and his/her family can register to vote by using a Federal Post Card Application for Absentee Ballot (FPCA).
	Define the following terms.a. Courtesy—b. Custom—	Define the following terms.a. Courtesy—an act or verbal expression of consideration or respect for othersb. Custom—a usual way of acting in a situation that has been practiced so long that it has the force of law
	Name a required act of military courtesy.	A salute is a required act of military courtesy.
	What is the most common form of saluting?	The hand salute is the most common form of salute.
	When in uniform, Navy personnel salute which of the following persons/things?a. Flagb. Anthemc. Officersd. Each of the above	When in uniform, Navy personnel salute the flag, anthem, and officers.
	True or false. Under naval customs, the hand salute is accompanied by a word of greeting.	True, under naval customs, the hand salute is accompanied by a word of greeting.
	As an enlisted person, who should you salute?	As an enlisted person, you should salute all officers.
	What procedure should you follow when boarding a ship that is flying the national ensign?a.b.c.	When boarding a ship in which the national ensign is flying, you should—a. Stop on reaching the upper platformof the accommodation ladder or end of browb. Face the ensign and salutec. Salute the OOD
	As a sentry at a gangway, when should you render a salute?a.b.	As a sentry at a gangway, you should render a salute—a. To all officers going or comingover the sideb. When passing or being passed by officers close aboard in boats
	List the three rifle salutes.a.b.c.	The three rifle salutes are—a. Present armsb. Rifle salute at order armsc. Rifle salute at right shoulder arms
	Define the term honors.	Honors are salutes rendered to ships, high-ranking individuals, and nations.
	Name the passing honors for the President of the United States?	Manning the rail is a passing honor rendered to the President of the United States.
	A ruler of a country recognized by the United States rates which of the following gun salutes?a. 5b. 17c. 21	A ruler of a country recognized by the United States rates a 21-gun salute.
	Hoisting the national flag at 0800 and lowering at sunset are known as	Hoisting and lowering the national flag at 0800 and sunset are known as morning colors and evening colors.
	Define the term shifting the colors.	Shifting the colors—as a ship gets underway, the ensign is shifted from its in-port position on the stern to its at-sea position on the mainmast.
	What is the significance of national flags flown at half-mast (half-staff ashore)?	National flags flown at half-mast areinternationally recognized symbols ofmourning.
	You are indoors for an event, and the anthem is being played but the flag is not displayed. What should you do—a. When in uniform and covered—b. When in uniform and uncovered—c. When in civilian clothes—	When indoors at anevent and the anthemis being played but the flag is not displayed, you should—a. In uniform and covered—render a hand saluteb. In uniform and uncovered—stand at attentionc. In civilian clothes—place your hand over your heart
	What is the quarterdeck?	The quarterdeck is an area designated by the CO that serves as the focal point for official and ceremonial functions.
	Aboard ship, how is the CO addressed?	Aboard ship, the CO is addressed as captain, regardless of rank.
	You are indoors for an event, and the anthem is being played but the flag is not displayed. What should you do—a. When in uniform and covered—b. When in uniform and uncovered—c. When in civilian clothes—	When indoors at anevent and the anthemis being played but the flag is not displayed, you should—a. In uniform and covered—render a hand saluteb. In uniform and uncovered—stand at attentionc. In civilian clothes—place your hand over your heart
	What is the quarterdeck?	The quarterdeck is an area designated by the CO that serves as the focal point for official and ceremonial functions.
	Aboard ship, how is the CO addressed?	Aboard ship, the CO is addressed as captain, regardless of rank.
	List the elements of a good Navy leader.a.b.c.	The elements of a good Navy leader are—a. Moral principlesb. Personal examplec. Administrative ability
	List the principles of conduct that give direction, solidity, and consistency to leadership.a.b.c.	The principles of conduct that give direction, solidity, and consistency to leadership include—a. Honestyb. Integrityc. Loyalty
	What is another term used to describe administrative ability?	Another term for administrative ability is goodmanagement practices.
	True or false. To be a good leader, you must know how to be a good follower.	True, to be a good leader, you must know how to follow orders.
	List three followership qualities.a.b.c.	The three followership qualities are—a. Loyaltyb. Initiativec. Dependability
	Describe the purpose of a reprimand.	The purpose of a reprimand is to teach, not to embarrass; therefore, give reprimands in private.
	List the ways you can help build morale.a.b.c.	You can help build morale through—a. Pride—being proud of what your personnel have accomplishedb. Integrity—being honest with yourselfc. Keeping personnel informed—making sure your personnel know what is happening
	What is the primary goal of the Continuous Improvement Program?	The primary goal of the Continuous Improvement Program is to increase productivity and produce better quality through leadership.
	What is the length of the dress blue jumper for men?	The men’s dress blue jumper should hang straight and cover all but the lowest button of the 13-button front of the trouser.
	What uniform should enlisted women E-1 through E-6 wear with the black silk neckerchief?	Enlistedwomen E-1 through E-6 wear the dress white jumper with the black silk neckerchief.
	When wearing a peacoat over a dress blue jumper uniform, the uniformcollar should be—	When the peacoat is worn over the dress blue jumper, the uniform’s collar is worn inside the outergarment (peacoat).
	When added to a service dress white uniform, what uniform component makes the service dress white uniform a full dress uniform?	When large medals are worn with a service dress white uniform, the uniform is considered a full dress uniform.
	Men and women stencil what uniform the same way?	Both men and women Sailors stencil the dress white jumper in the same way.
	What person can authorize the transfer of an enlisted person’s clothing to another enlistedperson?	The commanding officer can authorize the transfer of enlisted person’s uniform clothing to another individual.
	Youare required to have fire retardant dungaree shirts and trousers/slacks in your seabag. How many pair(s) should you have?	You are required to have four dungaree shirts and four pairs of dungaree trousers/slacks in your seabag.
	List five uniform items that you can wear with civilian clothes.a.b.c.d.e.	Youmay wear any of the following with civilian clothes:a. All-weather raincoatb. Underwearc. Shoesd. Belt with civilian bucklee. Socks/hosieryf. Sweatersg. Neckties
	What is a striker mark?	A striker mark is a specialty mark of a rating worn by qualified E-1 through E-3 personnel.
	To beeligible to wear a service stripe, you musthave served 4 full years of active or Reserve service in what branch of the U.S. Armed Forces?	Tobeeligible to wear a service stripe, you must have served 4 full years of active or reserve service in any branch of the U.S. Armed Forces.
	Anaval officer is wearing one silver star insignia on the uniform collar. What rank does this insignia show?	A rear admiral (lower half) wears one silver star metal grade insignia on the uniform collar.
	When worn as a sleeve insignia, what device designates the officer as a line officer?	A line officer wears a five-pointed gold star on the sleeve insignia.
	What kind of special insignia is worn on the breast by personnel qualified in underwater and beach reconnaissance and demolition?	Personnel qualified in underwater and beach reconnaissance and demolition wear the Special Warfare insignia.
	If a person has four or more ribbons, what is the minimum number of medals that can be worn on the uniform?	If a person has four or more ribbons, that person must wear three on the uniform.
	List four examples of military decorations.a.b.c.d.	Military decorations include the following:a. Medal of Honorb. Navy Crossc. Distinguished Service Medald. Purple Heart
	List two types of nonmilitary decorations.a.b.	Nonmilitary decorations include the following:a. Presidential Medal of Freedomb. Gold and Silver Life Saving Medalsc. National Sciences Medal
	When wearing medals or ribbons on a uniform, what is their order of precedence?	The person wears the medals from top to bottom inboard to outboard, within rows.
	Name five actions that you should not take with regard to your ID card.a.b.c.d.e.	A person shouldn’t take any of the following actions with regard to their ID card:a. Alter itb. Intentionally damage itc. Lend it to someoned. Counterfeit ite. Use it in an unauthorized manner
	Describe the difference between the purpose for the military ID card and dog tags in wartime.	The military ID card identifies you to the capturing authorities if held as a prisoner of war. The ID tags (dog tags) are designed for identification purposes in casualty reporting and for grave registration of members who die in combat.
	List the information contained on the dog tags.a.b.c.d.	The following information is embossed on the dog tags:a. Full nameb. Social security number (SSN) and theletters USNc. Blood type and Rh factord. Religious preference of the wearer
	While in uniform, how many (a) wristwatches and (b) bracelets can be worn?a.b.	While in uniform, you may wear—a. One wristwatchb. One bracelet
	To what Navy publication should you refer for further explanation of grooming standards?	To find an explanation of grooming standards, you should refer to the U.S. Navy Uniform Regulations Manual.
	When in uniform, what type of earrings is authorized for E-6 and below and CPOs and above?a. E-6 and below:b. CPO and above:	When in uniform, female Sailors may wear 6mm ball-type earrings (either post or screw on) with a brushed matte finish. The following information applies:a. E-6 and below wear silver earrings.b. CPOs and officers wear gold earrings
	List three reasons for military formations.a.b.c.	Military formations have the following purposes:a. To move a large number of personnel from one place to another in an orderly fashion.b. To make personnel alert and to pay attention to information or instructions being put out.c. To teach a group of individuals to act as a team.
	What is the meaning of the term rank or line with reference to military formations?	With reference to military formations rank or line is a formation of elements or persons abreast of each other or side by side.
	List the two parts of a facing command.a.b.	The two parts of a position and facing command are—a. Preparatory commandc. Execution Command
	When in a formation, what are the four commands for rest?a.b.c.d.	The four positions of rest for a formation are—a. Parade restb. At easec. Restd. Fall out
	What command tells you to smartly turn your head 45° to the right?	The command given to turn your head 45° to the right is Eyes RIGHT.
	Define an LCPO according to the LCPO Leadership Course.	LCPOs are defined as "Individuals designated to assist in the administration supervision andtraining of Divisional or Departmental personnel; to include their professional and personalgrowth."
	IAW this reference, CPOs are responsible for, have authority to, and are held accountable for:	1 - Leading sailors and applying their skills to tasks that enable mission accomplishment for the US Navy.2. Developing enlisted and junior officer sailors.3. Communicating the core values, standards and information of our Navy that empowers Sailors to be successful in all they attempt.4. Supporting, with loyalty the endeavors of the COC they serve and their fellor CPOs with whom they serve.
	What is the primary tool for planning and executing your career?	The 5 Vector Model (5VM)
	Define proactive/intrusive leadership.	The process of proactive/intrusive leadership involves leaders at all levels, includingjunior Sailors, engaged in communicating standards, expectations of behavior, and sound leadership practices. This also includes identification of those at risk and bringing them alongside, before an event occurs.
	Name some of the individual concerns that a CPO may need to address regarding junior sailors.	In addition to the normal interactions at Quarters, chiefs must address individual concerns such as personalized help with technical skills, direct help with respect and discipline, tailored financial help, personal anger management, and military bearing guidance.
	Define proactive leadership.	Proactive leadership means asking the right question, getting the right answer, ensuring standards are being met, and nurturing and mentoring their Sailors. It means that chiefs are aware of their Sailors’ hobbies, interests, concerns, what makes them tick, and what they do on and off duty.
	Why is communication important?	One reason, critical to your success as a leader, is the necessity to communicate your vision and obtain support of group members.Another reason is because a leader spends more time communicating than doing any other single activity. However, studies show many people have not had a great deal of training in the four basic types of communication: reading, writing, speaking, and listening. Communicating effectively is absolutely critical to your success.
	Name the characteristics of communication in a superior command.	1. Communication occurs frequently.2. People listen to each other.3. Explanations are given often.4. Communication flows up, down, and accross the COC.5. Officers and chiefs get out and about.6. Personal issues are addressed.
	State guidelines that will assist you in establishing a good working relationship with your seniors.	1. Clarify your relationship2. Read your seniors3. Organize for your Divo Officer4. Morning meetings5. Offer constructive feedback6. Determine the CO's priorities
	Define the four areas or scales of personality features.	1. Energizing2. Attending3. Deciding4. Living
	What are the 3 values of personality typing?	1. It can assist in helping an individual understand him or herself, and thus relate better.2. It can assist in helping an individual understand others so he or she is better able to relate.3. It is a helpful aid when learning to work with others in an organization or team. By learning to anticipate the actions of others, the team can function more effectively.
	Energizing is how a person is energized. Define its components: (1) Extraverion, (2) Introversion.	1. Extraversion: The preference for drawing energy from the outside world of people, activities or things.2. Introversion: The preference for drawing energy from one's internal world of ideas, emotions, or impressions.
	Attending is what a person pays attention to. Define its components: (1) Sensing, (2) Intuition.	1. Sensing: The preference for taking in information through the five senses and noticing what is actual.2. Intuition: The preference for taking in information through a sixth sense and noticing what might be (unconcious perceiving).
	Deciding is how a person decides. Define its components: (1) thinking, (2) feeling.	1. Thinking: The preference for organizing information to decide in a logical, objective way.2. Feeling: The preference for organizing and structuring information to decide in a personal, value oriented way.
	Living is the life-style a person adopts. Define its components: (1) judgement, (2) perception.	1. Judgement: The preference for living a planned and organized life.2. Perception: The preference for living a spontaneous and flexible life.
	In Naval writing, when is the only time you should delay your main point?	Only delay your main point to soften bad news or to introduce a controversial proposal.
	What DON instruction establishes the policy regarding Operational Risk Management (ORM)?	OPNAV Instruction 3500.39B
	Who is responsible for operational risk management, and when?	All individuals are responsible for operational risk management, on and off duty.
	When should ORM be applied?	All naval activities shall apply the ORM process in planning, operations and training to optimize operational capability and readiness.
	The concept behind ORM is?	a. A decision making tool used by personnel at all levels to increase operational effectivemess by identifying, assessing, and managing risks. By reducing the potential for loss, the probably of a successful mission is increased.b) Increases our ability to make informed decisions by providing a formal operational risk management process.c) Minimizes risk to acceptable levels. The amount of risk accepted at war is more than peace, but the process remains the same.
	Identify the first step in ORM:	Identify hazards: Begin with an outline or chart of the major steps in operation (operational analysis). Conduct a Preliminary Hazard Analysis by listing all of the hazards associated with each step in the operational analysis along with possible causes for those hazards.
	Identify the second step in ORM:	Step 2: Assess HazardsFor each hazard identified, determine the associated degree of risk in terms of probability and severity. Although not required, the use of a matrix may be helpful in assessing harzards.
	Identify the third step in ORM:	Step 3: Make Risk DecisionsFirst, develop risk control options. Start with the most serious risk first and select control that will reduce the risk to a minimum consistent with mission accomplishment. Decide if the benefit outweighs the risk. If risk outweighs benefit, consult with the chain of command.
	Identify the fourth step in ORM:	Step 4: Implement ControlsUse the following measures to eleminate hazards or reduce the degree of risk (listed by preference:1. Engineering Controls2. Aministrative Controls3. Peronal Protective Equipment
	Identify the fifth step in ORM:	Step 5: SuperviseConduct follow-up evaluations of controls to ensure they remain in place and have the desired effect. Monitor for changes, which may require further ORM.
	What are the three ORM process levels?	1. Time Critical2. Deliberate3. In depthDeciding which of the three levels is necessary is based on the situation, proficiency level, and time and assets available.
	What is a Category I hazard?	CAT I: The hazard may cause death, loss of facility/asset or result in grave damage to national interests.
	What is a Category II hazard?	CAT II: The hazard may cause severe injury, illness, or property damage, damage to national or service interests or degradation to efficent use of assets
	What is a catagory III hazard?	Cat III: The hazard may cause minor injury, illness, property damage, damage to national, service or command interests or degradation to efficient use of assets.
	What is a catagory IV hazard?	Cat IV: The hazard presents a minimal threat to personnel safety or health property, national, service or command interests of efficient use of assets.
	What is Mishap Propability?	The probability that a hazard will result in a mishap or loss, based on an assessment of various factors.
	What is mishap probability Sub-catagory A?	Sub-catagory: Likely to occur immediately or within a short period of time. Expected to occur frequently to an individual item or person or continuously to a fleet, inventory or group.
	What is mishap probability sub-catagory B?	Sub-catagory B: Probability will occur in time. Expected to occur several times to an individual item or person or frequently to a fleet, inventory or group.
	What is mishap probability sub-catagory C?	Sub-catagory C: May occur in time. Can reasonably be expected to occur some time to an individual item or person or several times to a fleet, inventory or group.
	What is mishap probability sub-catagory D?	Sub-catagory D: Unlikely to occur.
	The Risk Assessment Code (RAC) uses numbers within a severity matrix to indicate risk. Define the numbers.	RAC Definitions:1 - Critical risk2 - Serious risk3 - Moderate risk4 - Minor risk5 - Negligible risk
	Navy suicide prevention programs consist of four elements:	TrainingInterventionResponseReporting
	suicide prevention should be conducted at least?	Annually for all active and reserve
	what is the Opnav for Suicide Prevention?	OPNAVINST 1720.4A
	IAW 4790 ch5 how is management defined as?	the efficient attainment of objectives
	IAW 4790 ch5 how is maintenance defined as?	all actions taken to retain material in a serviceable condition or to restore it to serviceability
	Who is responsible to manage resources in an efficient manner?	maintenance manager
	All OMA Maintenance Control personnel, officer and enlisted, E-6 and above of OMA NALCOMIS Optimized squadrons shall complete what to become a maintenance manager?	the Naval Aviation Officer and Senior Supervisor NALCOMIS OOMA Familiarization course (Course D/E-555-0054)
	what does SA/A stand for?	system administrator/ analyst
	the SA/A shall provide what?	qualitative and quantitative analytical information
	who does the SA/S provide thequalitative and quantitative analytical information to?	MO-Maintenance Officer
	Why does the MO need this information provided from the SA/S?	provides continuous review of the management practices within the activity/department
	Who does the SA/A must be IAW 4790.2 ch5?	Senior Petty Officer or NCO formally trained in MDS procedures to include NALCOMIS, data processing capabilities, data replication between the foundation, mid tiers, top tiers, and ADW and the techniques of statistical analysis
	How many SA/A's are required if detached for longer than 90 days?	One per detachment
	Who has the overall responsibility to provide the aircrew with the best product available?	The person certifying a safe for flight condition
	Who designates in writing as Safer for Flight for personell?	CO
	As Safe for Flight what are the minimums requirements he/she will comply with?	review ADB;ensure fuel samples are taken;ensure oil consumption has been reviewed;update aircraft weight/balance; during hot seat ops debrief debarking pilot for any new discrepencies
	As Safe for flight what are you looking for when reviewing the ADB?	ensure all downing discrepancies and all flight safety QA inspections are signed off and a valid daily/turnaround inspection is completed
	As Safe for Flight what manuals are you ensuring the fuel samples have been complied with?	T/M/S MIMs/MRCs/GAI manuals
	As Safe for Flight fuel samples have specific intervals iaw the applicable aircraft MRC. Unless otherwise specified in aircraft MRCs, fuel samples shall be taken within how many hours preceding the aircraft’s initial launch and shall not be valid for more than how many hours.	24 and 24
	As Safe for Flight you ensure the oil consumption has been reviewed for which engine/gearbox prior to every flight	each
	as safe for flight during hot seat operations; when you debrief the debarking pilot for any new discrepencies to ensure flight safety what block of what record do you ensure the debarking pilot signs?	block 10 of the Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141 (Figure 5-1) verifying the aircraft is safe for flight.
	Who shall review the ADB for aircraft discrepancies and corrective actions for at least how many previous flights and shall sign block what of the Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) (Figure 5-1), assuming full responsibility for the safe operation of the aircraft and the safety of the other individuals aboard.	Pilot in command;10;11;
	The Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) (Figure 5-1) provides what?	The pilot's acceptance of the aircraft in its present condition;Identification of aircraft by BUNO, T/M/S, and reporting custodian;Certification of an aircraft's readiness for flight by maintenance personnel, and a record of fuel, oil, oxygen, expendable ordnance aboard, special equipment, and limitations
	Block 1 of the Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) (Figure 5-1) is?	enter buno of aircraft
	Block 2 Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) (Figure 5-1) is?	enter the T/M/S of aircraft
	Block 3 Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) (Figure 5-1) is?	enter the reporting custodian of the aircraft
	Block 4 Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) (Figure 5-1) is?	Indicate total gaseous or liquid oxygen on board. Not applicable to aircraft with an on board oxygen generation system
	Block 5 of Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) (Figure 5-1) is?	Indicate grade and quantity of fuel on board
	Block 6 of The Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) (Figure 5-1) is?	Indicate grade and quantity of oil added to each engine on board.
	Block 7 of The Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) (Figure 5-1) is?	Indicate date of acceptance by the pilot-in-command.
	Block 8 of The Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) (Figure 5-1) is?	ORDNANCE/SPECIAL EQUIPMENT/LIMITATIONS/REMARKS. This section informs the pilot of uncorrected discrepancies or unique characteristics of the aircraft. Local instructions shall govern the specific content of this space.
	Block 9 of The Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) (Figure 5-1) is?	SIGNATURE OF PLANE CAPTAIN. Signature and rank or rate of the plane captain who inspected the aircraft
	Block 10 of The Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) (Figure 5-1) is?	SIGNATURE. Signature and rank or rate of designated personnel certifying safe for flight condition. All personnel signing the record shall be designated in writing by the CO. If the aircraft is away from home and qualified releasing authority is not available, the pilot-in-command shall sign the certification in the safe for flight block. The debarking pilot of a hot seating crew shall sign here
	Block 11 of The Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) (Figure 5-1) is?	SIGNATURE OF PILOT IN COMMAND. Signature and rank of pilot accepting the aircraft.
	where shall The Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) (Figure 5-1) be kept if at home?	shall remain at the place of first take-off
	where shall The Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) (Figure 5-1) be kept if away from home?	the record will be maintained by the transient host activity until safe completion of the flight.
	For hot seat evolutions what is the minimum signature required on the new Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141)?	"Hot Seat" shall be entered in Block 8,and the new pilot-in-command shall review the ADB and sign Block 11and the debarking pilot shall sign block 10.
	Does an aircraft require an FCF upon completion of standard rework conducted by the rework facility?	yes
	Does an aircraft require an FCF when a reporting custodian accepts a newly assigned aircraft, and upon return of an aircraft from standard rework?	yes
	Does an aircraft require an FCF when activities deploying detachments that transfer and accept between homeguard and detachments?	no
	Combining an FCF with an operational flight (check and go) is specifically prohibited when a post D-level evolution FCF attesting to the airworthiness of the aircraft has not been previously performed.	note in namp ch5. thought it was important to know. couldn't think of a question.
	Does an aircraft require an FCF upon the completion of phase inspections?	NO, unless the corrective action(s) resulting from a discrepancy discovered during the inspection requires it, or the item inspection requires a removal, disassembly, adjustment, alignment, reinstallation, or reassembly of any of those items in the following paragraphs.
	What will indicate the phase packages requiring partial system FCF	MRC
	Does an aircraft require FCF after the installation or reinstallation of an engine, propeller, propeller governor, major fuel system component, helicopter engine drive train, transmission, and gearbox; in addition, any other components which cannot be checked during ground operations.	yes
	Does an aircraft require an FCF when fixed flight surfaces have been installed or reinstalled.	yes, unless removal and reinstallation of quick-disconnect aft sections of gas turbine engine aircraft when no work which requires an FCF is performed on removed section.
	Does an aircraft require an FCF when movable flight surfaces or rotary wings have been installed, reinstalled, or rerigged.	yes
	Statement that best describes the term "blueprint reading."	Interpreting the ideas expressed by the engineer or craftsman.
	Stands and procedures prescribed by military and American National standards are published in which publication on 31 July annually?	Department of Defense Index of Specifications and Standards
	To find the correct drawing symbols to show fittings and electrical wiring on ships, you should refer to what standards?	MIL-STD-15 and MIL-STD-25A
	What is the primary differnece in the various methods of producting blueprints?	The type of paper and process used
	This block includes information required to identify the part, name and address of the organization that prepared the drawing.	Title block
	This block gives the reader information about material, specitations and so on, to manufacture the part.	Information block
	This block shows the drwaing compared to the size of the actual size part.	Scale block
	This block contains a list of the parts and/or material needed for the project.	Bill of material
	This block identifies directly or by reference the larger unit that contains the part or assembly	Application block
	What information provides contractors, supervisors and manufacturers with more information than is shown graphically on a blueprint?	Notes and specifications
	This block is used when a change hs been made to the drawing.	Revision block
	The plan used by the contractor to construct the ship	Working plan
	The plan used to illustrate design features of the ship subject to development.	Contract guidance plan
	The plan furnished by the ship builder that is needed to operate and maintain the ship.	Onboard plan.
	The plan that illustrates the general arrangement of equipment or parts that do not require strict compliance to details.	Type plan
	The Plan that illustraes the arrangement or details of equipment, systems or parts where specific requirements are mandatory.	Standard plan
	The plan submitted before the contract is awarded.	Preliminary plan
	The plan that illustrates the mandatory design features of the ship.	Contract plan
	What publication contains the letters to be used to designate the size of a blueprint?	MIL-STD 100
	In the current blueprint numbering plan, the activity that designed the object to be built is identified in which of the following positions?	Federal Supply Code Identification Number
	What is the major difference in the old and new shipboard numbeirng systems?	The Group numbers in block two plan
	Which of the following is necessary practice in caring for blueprints?	Properly fold and file them
	When a plan is revised, what is the disposition of the old plan?	It is removed and destroyed when replaced by the revised.
	On most ships, personnel in which of the following areas maintain the ship plans?	Engineering logroom
	Which code identifies the harder grade of pencil lead?	9H
	When using needle-in-tube pens, you produce different line widths by what means?	Change the needle points
	What instrument is used to produce irregular curves?	A set of French curves
	Lines used to indicate the part of a drwaing to which a note refers.	Leader
	Lines with alternating long and short dashes.	Center
	Lines used to shorten the view of long, uniform surfaces.	Break
	What is the major difference in the old and new shipboard numbeirng systems?	The Group numbers in block two plan
	Which of the following is necessary practice in caring for blueprints?	Properly fold and file them
	When a plan is revised, what is the disposition of the old plan?	It is removed and destroyed when replaced by the revised.
	On most ships, personnel in which of the following areas maintain the ship plans?	Engineering logroom
	Which code identifies the harder grade of pencil lead?	9H
	When using needle-in-tube pens, you produce different line widths by what means?	Change the needle points
	What is the major difference in the old and new shipboard numbeirng systems?	The Group numbers in block two plan
	What instrument is used to produce irregular curves?	A set of French curves
	Lines used to indicate the part of a drwaing to which a note refers.	Leader
	Lines with alternating long and short dashes.	Center
	Lines used to shorten the view of long, uniform surfaces.	Break
	What is the major difference in the old and new shipboard numbeirng systems?	The Group numbers in block two plan
	Which of the following is necessary practice in caring for blueprints?	Properly fold and file them
	When a plan is revised, what is the disposition of the old plan?	It is removed and destroyed when replaced by the revised.
	On most ships, personnel in which of the following areas maintain the ship plans?	Engineering logroom
	Which code identifies the harder grade of pencil lead?	9H
	When using needle-in-tube pens, you produce different line widths by what means?	Change the needle points
	What instrument is used to produce irregular curves?	A set of French curves
	Which of the following is necessary practice in caring for blueprints?	Properly fold and file them
	Lines used to indicate the part of a drwaing to which a note refers.	Leader
	Lines with alternating long and short dashes.	Center
	Lines used to shorten the view of long, uniform surfaces.	Break
	When a plan is revised, what is the disposition of the old plan?	It is removed and destroyed when replaced by the revised.
	On most ships, personnel in which of the following areas maintain the ship plans?	Engineering logroom
	Which code identifies the harder grade of pencil lead?	9H
	When using needle-in-tube pens, you produce different line widths by what means?	Change the needle points
	What instrument is used to produce irregular curves?	A set of French curves
	Lines used to indicate the part of a drwaing to which a note refers.	Leader
	Lines with alternating long and short dashes.	Center
	Lines used to shorten the view of long, uniform surfaces.	Break
	Lines used to indicate the surface in the section view imagined to have been cut along the cutting plane line.	Section
	Lines used to dimension an object	Extension and dimension
	Lines used to designate where an imaginary cutting took place.	Cutting plane
	Lines used to show surfaces, edges or corners of an aobject that are hidden from sight.	Hidden
	Thick, alternating lines made of long and short dashes.	Chain
	Lines that should stand out clearly in contract to all other lines so that the shape of the object is apparent to the eye.	Visible
	Lines used to indicate alternate and adjacent positions of moving parts, adjacent positions of related parts and repetitive detail.	Phantom
	Lines used when drawing partial views of symmetrical parts.	Symmetry Extension and dimension
	Which of the following forms contains a curve that does not follow a constant arc?	Ireegular curve
	Which of the following CAD components allows the draftsman move from one command to another without the use of the function keys?	The digitizer tablet
	Which of the following is a disadvantage of reproducing prints o na printer?	You cannot get the quality from a printer that you can from a pen plotter
	What CAD component(s) produce(s) the drawing after after it has been completed on the computer screen?	The plotter only
	What is the main advantage of using numerical control machines rather than normally operated machines?	They allow faster production
	Which of the following best describes direct numerical control (DNC)?	It provides instructions that can be stored in a central computer memory, or on disk, for direct transfer to one or more machines that will make the part.
	What types of training are required to operate CAD and computer-aided manufacturing (CAM) systems?	Formal and on-the-job (OJT)
	The view of an object is technically known by what term?	Projection
	To visualize the object to be made from a blueprint, you should take what step first?	Study all views
	Oblique and axonometric projections show which of the following dimensions?	Height, width and length
	How would you best describe an axonometric projection?	A form of orthographic projection in which the projectors are perpendicular to the plane of projection and the object is angled to the plane of projection
	Conventional 3-view drawings are drawn by eliminated which of the following views from the third-angle orthographic projection?	Left side, bottom and rear
	Complex multiview drawings normally have how many views?	Six
	When drawing a 3-view orthographic projection, the side and top views are drawn by extending lines in what direction(s)?	Horizontally ot the right and vertically from the front view
	Which of the following views shows the most characteristic features of an object?	Front
	What is the main purpose of a perspective drawing?	To show the object becoming proportionally smaller - a true picture of the object as the eyes see it
	A view that gives a clearer view of the interior or hidden features of an object that normally are not seen in other views.	Section view
	A vie wthat shows the true shape and size of the inclined face of an object	Auxiliary view
	A view that shows an object that is symmetrical in both outside and insdie detail	Half section
	A view that shows the inner structure of a small area by peeling back or removing the outside surface.	Broken-out section
	A view that shows the relative locations of parts when you assemble an object.	Exploded view
	A view that shows particular parts of an object.	Removed section
	who is overall responsible for ships maintenance?1. CO2. XO3. 3M coordinator4. person performing maintenance	1. CO
	who is the 3M manager?1. CO2. XO3. Dept Head4. 3M coordinator	2. XO
	Who approves the division quarter board?1. XO2. Dept Head3. Divo 4. Work Center supervisor	3. Divo
	what does a dash (-) on the LOEP on the new force revision annotates?1. change to the LOEP line entry2. change on the MIP3. needs review4. discrepancies on the LOEP have been noticed	2. change on the MIP
	what does a slash (/)on the LOEP indicate1. change to the LOEP line entry2. change on the MIP3. needs review4. discrepancies on the LOEP have been noticed	1. change to the LOEP line entry
	manditory required maintenance is identified by what symbol?1. =2. -3. #4. +	3. #
	who maintains the PMS master file?1. xo2. divo3. 3m coordinator4. lcpo	3. 3m coordinator
	what provides detailed percedures for performing maintenace requirements to a particular work center?1. MIP2. LOEP3. MRC4. Navseainst 4790.8	3. MRC
	* asterick following the periodicity code indicates what?1. correction to MRC is needed2. safety of ship item3. divo approval4. 3m coordinator approval2.	2. safety of ship item
	what must be done if changes to a mrc is required or questions about the information on a mrc?1. contact the 3m coordinator2. contact the work center supervisor3. submit a feedback report4. enform the 3m manager	3. submit a feedback report
	who signs and approves the cycle board?1. xo2. dept head3. 3m coordinator4. LCPO	2. dept head
	when issues come up while performing pms who should be notified?1. 3m manager2. 3m coordinator3. lcpo4. work center supervisor	4. work center supervisor
	a PMS FBR (feedback report) is used to notify who?1. CO2. XO3. 3m manager4. FTSCLANT/FTSCPAC	4. FTSCLANT/FTSCPAC
	how many different types of FBR are there?1. 12. 23. 34. 4	3. 3 category acategory burgent
	which type of FBR may requires FTSCLANT/FTSCPAC for resolution?1. category a2. category b3. urgent	2. category b
	what FBR category is for the replacement of missing classified MIP/MRC?1. category a2. category b3. urgent	1. category a
	what FBR category requires a message for a response?1. category a2. category b3. urgent	3. urgent
	PMS revision packages will be addressed "attention" to who?1. co 2. 3m manager3. 3m coordinator4. ship work center supervisor	3. 3m coordinator
	the first force revision of 2006 is identified how?1. 1/20062. 1-063. 06-14. 2006/1	2. 1-06
	force revision are usually effective when? 1. first monday of the quarter 2. last sunday of the quarter 3. friday prior to the quarter 4. the middle of the week	1. first monday of the quarter
	maintenace for inactive equipment is group in how many categories?1. 12. 23. 34. 4	4. 4lay uppreventive maintenacestart up maintenaceoperational test

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