2010 Released Qs And Ans27

Front 1

Radiographically, the opening of the
incisive canal may be misdiagnosed as a
1. branchial cyst.
2. nasopalatine cyst.
3. nasolabial cyst.
4. periradicular cyst.

Back 1

2. nasopalatine cyst.
4. periradicular cyst.

Front 2

On a bite-wing radiograph of posterior
teeth, which of the following is most likely
to be misdiagnosed as proximal caries?
A. Cemento-enamel junction.
B. Marginal ridge.
C. Carabelli cusp.
D. Calculus.
E. Cemental tear.

Back 2

A. Cemento-enamel junction.

Front 3

A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent
lesion is present in the apical region of the
mandibular second premolar. The tooth
responds normally to vitality tests. The
radiolucency is most likely
A. a periradicular periodontitis.
B. a dentigerous cyst.
C. a rarefying osteitis.
D. the mental foramen.

Back 3

D. the mental foramen.

Front 4

A patient complains of acute pain 24 hours
after the insertion of a restoration in a
tooth with no preexisting periapical
pathology. The tooth is vital and tender to
percussion. The radiograph will show
A. an apical radiolucency.
B. acute osteitis.
C. root resorption.
D. condensing osteitis.
E. normal lamina dura.

Back 4

E. normal lamina dura.

Front 5

Which drug is most adversely affected by
ingestion of antacids?
A. Cephalexin.
B. Erythromycin.
C. Tetracycline.
D. Penicillin V.

Back 5

C. Tetracycline.

Front 6

A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will
produce a hypersensitive response if the
tooth
A. is nonvital.
B. has a periodontal pocket.
C. has a hyperemic pulp.
D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis.

Back 6

C. has a hyperemic pulp.

Front 7

The most appropriate radiographic
examination for a 4 year old without
visible or clinically detectable caries or
anomalies, and with open proximal
contacts is
A. maxillary and mandibular anterior
occlusals.
B. a pair of posterior bite-wings.
C. maxillary and mandibular posterior
periapicals.
D. no radiographic examination.

Back 7

D. no radiographic examination.

Front 8

One week after an amalgam restoration is
placed in the mandibular first premolar,
the patient returns complaining of a sharp
pain of short duration when eating or
drinking something cold. Teeth respond
normally to electric pulp testing and heat
and the radiographs are normal. The most
likely diagnosis is
A. hypercementosis.
B. reversible pulpitis.
C. pulpal microabscess.
D. acute periradicular periodontitis.

Back 8

B. reversible pulpitis.

Front 9

A 12 year old child presents with
characteristic tetracycline discoloration of
the maxillary and mandibular incisors and
permanent first molars. The probable age
at which this child received tetracycline
therapy was
A. 6 years.
B. 4 years.
C. 1 year.
D. before birth.

Back 9

C. 1 year.

Front 10

A 6 year old patient has a larger than
average diastema between the maxillary
central incisors. The radiographic
examination shows a mesiodens. In order
to manage the diastema, you should
extract the mesiodens
A. after its complete eruption.
B. once the patient has reached the age
of 12.
C. only if it develops into a cystic
lesion.
D. as soon as possible.

Back 10

D. as soon as possible.

Front 11

In children, the most common cause of a
fistula is a/an
A. acute periradicular abscess.
B. suppurative periradicular
periodontitis.
C. acute periodontal abscess.
D. dentigerous cyst.

Back 11

B. suppurative periradicular
periodontiti

Front 12

A large carious exposure occurs on a
permanent first molar of a 7 year old.
There is no periapical involvement and the
tooth is vital. The treatment should be to
A. cap the exposure with calcium
hydroxide and place zinc-oxide and
eugenol.
B. perform a pulpotomy and place
calcium hydroxide.
C. perform a pulpectomy.
D. extract the tooth and place a space
maintainer.

Back 12

C. perform a pulpectomy.

Front 13

In a 4 year old child, the primary central
incisor has discoloured following a
traumatic injury. The treatment of choice
is
A. pulpotomy.
B. pulpectomy.
C. observation.
D. extraction.

Back 13

C. observation.

Front 14

The most appropriate treatment following
the extraction of a first primary molar in a
4 year old child is
A. regular assessment of arch
development.
B. to perform space analysis.
C. insertion of a space maintainer.
D. extraction of the contra-lateral molar.
E. extraction of the opposing molar.

Back 14

C. insertion of a space maintainer.

Front 15

A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a
A. fracture of the zygomatic arch.
B. horizontal fracture of the maxilla.
C. fracture of the malar complex
involving the floor of the orbit.
D. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla.
E. craniofacial dysjunction.

Back 15

B. horizontal fracture of the maxilla.

Front 16

Which of the following will impede
healing following the surgical closure of
an oroantral fistula?
1. Poor flap design.
2. Excessive tissue tension.
3. Blowing the nose.
4. Sinus infection.

Back 16

E. All of the above.

Front 17

An 8 year old patient with all primary
molars still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp
relationship of permanent maxillary and
mandibular first molars. The management
of this patient should be to
A. plan serial extractions for more
normal adjustment of the occlusion.
B. refer the patient to an orthodontist for
consultation.
C. place a cervical headgear to
reposition maxillary molars.
D. disk the distal surfaces of primary
mandibular second molars to allow
normal adjustment of permanent
molars.
E. observe.

Back 17

E. observe.

Front 18

To prevent mesial drift of a permanent
first molar, the ideal time to place a distal
extension space maintainer is
A. as soon as the tooth erupts through
the gingival tissue.
B. after the permanent second molar has
erupted.
C. immediately after extraction of the
primary second molar.
D. as soon as the extraction site of the
primary second molar has completely
healed.

Back 18

C. immediately after extraction of the
primary second molar.

Front 19

Immediately following a posterior superior
alveolar block injection, the patient's face
becomes quickly and visibly swollen. The
immediate treatment should be to
A. use pressure followed by cold packs
over the swelling.
B. use hot packs over the swelling.
C. refer the patient to a hospital.
D. administer 100mg hydrocortisone
intravenously.
E. administer diphenhydramine
hydrochloride (Benadryl®) 50mg
intravenously.

Back 19

A. use pressure followed by cold packs
over the swelling.

Front 20

Epinephrine should NOT be used as a
vasoconstrictor for patients with
uncontrolled
A. hyperthyroidism.
B. hyperparathyroidism.
C. myxedema.
D. asthma.

Back 20

B. hyperparathyroidism.

Front 21

A known insulin-dependent diabetic
patient feels unwell following the
administration of a local anesthetic and
becomes pale and sweaty. This condition
does not respond to placing the patient in a
supine position. The most likely cause is
A. syncope.
B. adrenal insufficiency.
C. hyperglycemia.
D. hypoglycemia.
E. carotid sinus reflex.

Back 21

D. hypoglycemia.

Front 22

Generally, glass ionomer cements contain
A. zinc oxide and distilled water.
B. zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid.
C. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and
orthophosphoric acid.
D. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and
polyacrylic acid.

Back 22

D. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and
polyacrylic acid.

Front 23

A fracture in an all-ceramic crown may be
caused by
1. inadequate ceramic thickness.
2. sharp line angles in the tooth
preparation.
3. excessive occlusal load.
4. use of an inappropriate luting
material.

Back 23

E. All of the above.

Front 24

Which of the following conditions would
NOT require antibiotic premedication
before endodontic therapy?
A. Valvular heart disease.
B. Cardiac prosthesis.
C. Persistent odontogenic fistula.
D. Immunosuppressive therapy.
E. Organ transplant.

Back 24

C. Persistent odontogenic fistula.

Front 25

Under normal conditions, the most
definitive test to confirm the loss of pulp
vitality is
A. applying warm gutta percha to the
crown.
B. cutting into the dentin without
anesthetic.
C. applying ethyl chloride to the crown.
D. performing a radiographic
examination of the tooth.
E. performing an electric pulp test.

Back 25

B. cutting into the dentin without
anesthetic.

Front 26

A radiopaque area within the alveolar
process containing several rudimentary
teeth suggests a/an
A. periapical cemento-osseous
dysplasia.
B. ameloblastoma.
C. compound odontoma.
D. complex odontoma.
E. Pindborg tumor.

Back 26

C. compound odontoma.

Front 27

The usual adult dosage of codeine
administered orally is
A. 500-1000mg.
B. 250-500mg.
C. 30-60mg.
D. 2-5mg.

Back 27

C. 30-60mg.

Front 28

The minimum time to wait before placing
composite restorations after the
completion of a bleaching (whitening)
treatment is
A. 1 to 2 hours.
B. 24 to 48 hours.
C. 1 to 2 weeks.
D. 4 to 5 weeks.

Back 28

C. 1 to 2 weeks

Front 29

A 45 year old patient has 32 unrestored
teeth. The only defects are deeply stained
grooves in the posterior teeth. Clinical
examination reveals no evidence of caries
in the grooves. The treatment of choice is
A. application of pit and fissure
sealants.
B. preventive resin restorations.
C. conservative Class I amalgams.
D. prophylactic odontotomy.
E. no treatment.

Back 29

E. no treatment.

Front 30

For a cast gold restoration, a gingival
bevel is used instead of a shoulder because
a bevel
1. protects the enamel.
2. increases retention.
3. improves marginal adaptation.
4. increases the thickness of gold.

Back 30

1. protects the enamel.
3. improves marginal adaptation.

Front 31

Which type of malocclusion should be
corrected as early as possible?
A. Class II division 1 associated with an
anterior open bite.
B. Class II division 2 associated with an
increased anterior overbite.
C. Class III associated with an anterior
open bite.
D. Cross-bite associated with a
functional shift of the mandible from
initial contact to maximum
intercuspation.
E. Anterior open bite associated with a
lip or digit sucking habit.

Back 31

D. Cross-bite associated with a
functional shift of the mandible from
initial contact to maximum
intercuspation.

Front 32

Assuming there is adequate tooth structure
remaining, composite resins can be used
as a core material for endodontically
treated teeth to be crowned provided
A. the resin has a high contrast colour
with tooth structure.
B. there is an adequate ferrule.
C. the resin is autopolymerizing.
D. subsequent crown margins are not
located on cementum.

Back 32

B. there is an adequate ferrule.

Front 33

A child has received a successful inferior
alveolar nerve block using 1.5ml of
lidocaine 2% with 1:100000 epinephrine.
However, during placement of a rubber
dam clamp on the first permanent molar,
the child complains that the “tooth ring” is
hurting. Which of the following is the
most appropriate management?
A. Wait 15 minutes until more profound
anesthesia is achieved.
B. Anesthetize the lingual nerve with the
remaining lidocaine.
C. Anesthetize the long buccal nerve
with the remaining lidocaine.
D. Proceed with treatment without
rubber dam.

Back 33

C. Anesthetize the long buccal nerve
with the remaining lidocaine.

Front 34

Overlapping contacts on a bitewing
radiograph result from
1. malalignment of teeth.
2. incorrect vertical angulation of the xray
beam.
3. incorrect horizontal angulation of the
x-ray beam.
4. patient movement during the
exposure.

Back 34

1. malalignment of teeth.
3. incorrect horizontal angulation of the
x-ray beam.

Front 35

The primary retention of a Class II gold
inlay is achieved by
1. adding an occlusal dovetail.
2. increasing the parallelism of walls.
3. lengthening the axial walls.
4. placing a gingival bevel.

Back 35

1. adding an occlusal dovetail.
2. increasing the parallelism of walls.
3. lengthening the axial walls.

Front 36

The mesial furcation of maxillary
permanent first molars is best probed from
the
A. buccal.
B. buccal or lingual.
C. lingual.

Back 36

C. lingual.

Front 37

A 50 year old obese patient with type 2
diabetes takes oral hypoglycemics. He is
frequently skipping meals in order to
reduce his weight. During his 8:30 a.m.
appointment, his speech becomes slurred
and he is less alert than usual. Which of
the following is the most appropriate
management of this patient?
A. 175ml of diet cola.
B. 15g of glucose as tablets or in
solution.
C. 175ml unsweetened orange juice.
D. Dismissal of the patient to have his
breakfast.

Back 37

B. 15g of glucose as tablets or in
solution.

Front 38

Vitamin D is activated in the
A. skin upon ultraviolet radiation from
the sun.
B. liver upon hydroxylation.
C. kidney upon hydroxylation.
D. intestinal mucosa upon absorption.

Back 38

C. kidney upon hydroxylation.

Front 39

Gingival response to plaque
microorganisms in elderly patients is
A. exaggerated due to an altered host
immune response.
B. exaggerated due to a change in the
type of infecting microorganism.
C. decreased due to circulatory changes.
D. decreased due to an altered host
immune response.

Back 39

A. exaggerated due to an altered host
immune response.

Front 40

Which of the following agents is most
effective in cold testing?
A. Ice water.
B. Air jet.
C. CO2 (dry ice).
D. Ethyl chloride.

Back 40

C. CO2 (dry ice).

Front 41

Which of the following bone lesions of the
mandible is/are malignant?
1. Osteosarcoma.
2. Osteochondroma.
3. Ewing's tumor.
4. Fibrous dysplasia.

Back 41

1. Osteosarcoma.
3. Ewing's tumor.

Front 42

What is the most likely cause of a
maxillary denture dislodging when the
patient opens wide or makes extreme
lateral excursions?
A. Insufficient posterior palatal seal.
B. Poor denture base adaptation.
C. Labial frenum impingement.
D. Coronoid process interference.
E. Pronounced midpalatal raphe.

Back 42

D. Coronoid process interference.

Front 43

Which of the following dental procedures
could be performed with minimal risk for
a 35 year old patient with a severe
bleeding disorder?
A. Mandibular block anesthesia.
B. Supragingival calculus removal.
C. Incisional biopsy.
D. Subgingival restoration.

Back 43

A. Mandibular block anesthesia.

Front 44

The diagnostic information for a 10 year
old patient with a mildly prognathic
mandible and 0mm overjet and 0mm
overbite should include
A. photographs, cephalometric and
panoramic radiographs.
B. family history, photographs,
cephalometric and panoramic
radiographs.
C. family history, photographs,
cephalometric, panoramic and
periapical radiographs.
D. photographs, cephalometric,
panoramic and periapical
radiographs.

Back 44

C. family history, photographs,
cephalometric, panoramic and
periapical radiographs.

Front 45

Incomplete tooth fracture
A. can readily be diagnosed using
transillumination.
B. most commonly involves the
supporting cusps.
C. is associated with medium to largesized
restorations.
D. elicits dull, prolonged pain on
chewing.

Back 45

C. is associated with medium to largesized
restorations.

Front 46

The etiologic agent for necrotizing
ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) is
A. bacterial.
B. viral.
C. fungal.
D. protozoan.

Back 46

A. bacterial.

Front 47

Patients with known prion diseases such
as Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease are
characterized by
A. the disease being transmissible
through air or casual contact with an
infected patient.
B. needing no additional sterilization
precautions in the management of the
patient.
C. the disease usually being fatal within
one year.
D. having an incubation time of 3-6
months for the disease.

Back 47

C. the disease usually being fatal within
one year.

Front 48

Twenty-four hours following the simple
extraction of tooth 4.7, a patient presents
with severe bleeding from the extraction
site. The most likely cause of this bleeding
is a/an
A. disturbance of the hemostatic plug.
B. infection of the socket.
C. undiagnosed coagulopathy.
D. dry socket.

Back 48

A. disturbance of the hemostatic plug.

Front 49

During the administration of local
anesthesia, positive aspiration of blood
will occur most often in a/an
A. mental or incisive block.
B. posterior superior alveolar block.
C. inferior alveolar block.
D. anterior superior alveolar block.
E. long buccal nerve block.

Back 49

B. posterior superior alveolar block.

Front 50

A patient complains of the discolouration
of an unrestored maxillary central incisor.
Radiographically, the pulp chamber and
the root canal space are obliterated, there
is no evidence of caries and the
periodontal ligament space appears
normal. An external bleaching procedure
has not been successful. The most
appropriate management would be to
A. perform root canal treatment and
nonvital bleaching.
B. perform root canal treatment and
fabricate a post retained porcelain
fused to metal crown.
C. perform root canal treatment and
fabricate a porcelain veneer.
D. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal
crown.
E. fabricate a porcelain veneer.

Back 50

E. fabricate a porcelain veneer.