2010 Released Qs And Ans36

Front 1

Premature loss of a primary maxillary
second molar usually produces a
malocclusion in the permanent dentition
that is characterized by
A. anterior crowding.
B. labially displaced maxillary canines.
C. delayed eruption of the permanent
first molar.
D. a Class II molar relationship on the
affected side.
E. a Class III molar relationship on the
affected side.

Back 1

D. a Class II molar relationship on the
affected side.

Front 2

An anterior cross-bite of a permanent
maxillary incisor in a mixed dentition is
often associated with
A. a functional shift.
B. unexplainable genetic factors.
C. lingually situated supernumerary
teeth.
D. prolonged retention of a primary
incisor.
E. premature eruption of a maxillary
incisor.

Back 2

D. prolonged retention of a primary
incisor.

Front 3

Excessive orthodontic force used to move
a tooth may
1. cause hyalinization.
2. cause root resorption.
3. crush the periodontal ligament.
4. impair tooth movement.

Back 3

E. All of the above.

Front 4

The predominant type of movement
produced by a finger spring on a
removable appliance is
A. torque.
B. tipping.
C. rotation.
D. translation.

Back 4

B. tipping.

Front 5

Following loss of a permanent mandibular
first molar at age 8, which of the following
changes are likely to occur?
1. Distal drift of second premolar.
2. No movement of second premolar.
3. Mesial drift of second permanent
molar.
4. No movement of second permanent
molar.

Back 5

1. Distal drift of second premolar.
3. Mesial drift of second permanent
molar.

Front 6

The terminal plane relationship of primary
second molars determines the
A. arch length between permanent
second molars.
B. future anteroposterior positions of
permanent first molars.
C. vertical dimensions of the mandible
upon eruption of permanent first
molars.
D. amount of leeway space that is
available for permanent premolars
and canines.

Back 6

B. future anteroposterior positions of
permanent first molars.

Front 7

The best space maintainer to prevent the
lingual collapse that often occurs
following the early loss of a mandibular
primary canine is a
A. Nance expansion arch.
B. lingual arch.
C. band and loop space maintainer.
D. distal shoe space maintainer.

Back 7

B. lingual arch.

Front 8

A unilateral cross-bite involving the
permanent maxillary first molar may be
A. associated with a mandibular shift.
B. a bilateral constriction of the maxilla.
C. corrected with palatal expansion.

Back 8

D. All of the above.

Front 9

Mouth breathing is most commonly
associated with Angle's malocclusion
Class
A. I.
B. II, Division 1.
C. II, Division 2.
D. III.
E. None of the above.

Back 9

B. II, Division 1.

Front 10

A l0-year old boy has an Angle Class III
molar relationship and an incisor crossbite
when in centric occlusion. When his
jaws are guided to a centric relation, the
molar relationship is Class I and the
incisors are edge-to-edge. You should
advise the parent that
A. the child has a growth problem and
occlusal correction will not be
completed until growth is complete.
B. if the malrelationship is corrected
now, future growth will likely undo
the correction.
C. the incisor malrelationship should be
corrected now.
D. future growth is likely to correct this
problem.

Back 10

C. the incisor malrelationship should be
corrected now.

Front 11

If the norm for the cephalometric angle
SNA is 82 degrees and a patient's reading
for SNA is 90 degrees, this would likely
indicate
A. protrusive maxillary incisors.
B. dysplasia of the anterior cranial base.
C. maxillary prognathism.
D. patient's ethnic background.

Back 11

C. maxillary prognathism.

Front 12

Recurring tooth rotations occur most
frequently after orthodontic correction due
to
A. density of the cortical bone.
B. persistence of tongue and finger
habits.
C. free gingival and transseptal fibres.
D. oblique fibres of the periodontal
ligament.

Back 12

C. free gingival and transseptal fibres.

Front 13

Rank the following permanent teeth
according to their ability to provide
anchorage.
1. Maxillary central incisor.
2. Maxillary canine.
3. Maxillary first molar.
4. Mandibular incisor.

Back 13

B. (3) (2) (1) (4)

Front 14

The design of a mucoperiosteal flap
should
1. provide for visual access.
2. provide for instrument access.
3. permit repositioning over a solid bone
base.
4. be semilunar in shape.

Back 14

1. provide for visual access.
2. provide for instrument access.
3. permit repositioning over a solid bone
base

Front 15

In the surgical removal of an impacted
mandibular third molar, which of the
following would be considered to be the
most difficult?
A. Mesio-angular.
B. Horizontal.
C. Vertical.
D. Disto-angular.

Back 15

D. Disto-angular.

Front 16

Cultures made from a dental abscess
indicate the infection is caused by beta
hemolytic streptococcus. Which of the
following is the drug of choice?
A. Penicillin.
B. Erythromycin.
C. Tetracycline.
D. Cloxacillin.

Back 16

A. Penicillin.

Front 17

A dental laboratory has returned a
removable partial denture framework. The
framework fit the master cast well but
when tried in the mouth, a stable fit could
not be achieved. The possible cause(s) of
the problem is/are
1. distortion in the final impression.
2. insufficient retention.
3. improper pour of the master cast.
4. casting error.

Back 17

1. distortion in the final impression.
3. improper pour of the master cast.

Front 18

Which of the following constituents of a
local anesthetic cartridge is most likely to
be allergenic?
A. Lidocaine.
B. Epinephrine.
C. Metabisulfite.
D. Hydrochloric acid.

Back 18

C. Metabisulfite.

Front 19

Which one of the following describes the
position of the needle tip during
administration of local anesthetic for the
inferior alveolar nerve block?
A. Anterior to the pterygomandibular
raphe.
B. Medial to the medial pterygoid
muscle.
C. Superior to the lateral pterygoid
muscle.
D. Lateral to the sphenomandibular
ligament.

Back 19

D. Lateral to the sphenomandibular
ligament.

Front 20

During dental treatment, a 62 year old
insulin-dependent diabetic, suddenly
complains of severe, crushing, retrosternal
pain. The appropriate initial management
would be to stop treatment and
1. administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
2. administer 100 oxygen.
3. monitor the patient.
4. administer 50 dextrose
intravenously.

Back 20

1. administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
2. administer 100 oxygen.
3. monitor the patient.

Front 21

Acid etching of dentin with 10-15%
phosphoric acid for 15-20 seconds
1. removes the smear layer.
2. increases dentinal permeability.
3. opens the dentinal tubules.
4. decalcifies the intertubular and
peritubular dentin.

Back 21

E. All of the above.

Front 22

Composite resin is
CONTRAINDICATED as a posterior
restorative material in cases of
1. cusp replacement.
2. bruxism.
3. lack of enamel at the gingival cavosurface
margin.
4. inability to maintain a dry operating
field.

Back 22

E. All of the above.

Front 23

Which of the following affect(s)
polymerization of visible light cured
composite resins?
1. Intensity of the light source.
2. Thickness of composite resin.
3. Proximity of light source.
4. Shade of composite resin.

Back 23

E. All of the above.

Front 24

In order to achieve a proper interproximal
contact when using a spherical alloy,
which of the following is/are essential?
1. A larger sized condenser.
2. A thinner matrix band.
3. An anatomical wedge.
4. Use of mechanical condensation.

Back 24

1. A larger sized condenser.
2. A thinner matrix band.
3. An anatomical wedge.

Front 25

Which of the following cements can
chemically bond to enamel?
1. Zinc phosphate cement.
2. Polycarboxylate cement.
3. Ethoxy benzoic acid cement.
4. Glass ionomer cement.

Back 25

2. Polycarboxylate cement.
4. Glass ionomer cement.

Front 26

Methyl methacrylate resins will perform
better than composite resins for long span,
temporary bridges because of superior
A. hardness.
B. fracture toughness.
C. wear resistance.
D. dimensional stability.

Back 26

B. fracture toughness.

Front 27

The "smear layer" is an important
consideration in
A. plaque accumulation.
B. caries removal.
C. pulp regeneration.
D. dentin bonding.

Back 27

D. dentin bonding.

Front 28

A 22 year old presents with a fracture of
the incisal third of tooth 2.1 exposing a
small amount of dentin. The fracture
occurred one hour previously. There is no
mobility of the tooth but the patient
complains that it is rough and sensitive to
cold. The most appropriate emergency
treatment is to
A. open the pulp chamber, clean the
canal and temporarily close with zinc
oxide and eugenol.
B. smooth the surrounding enamel and
apply glass ionomer cement.
C. smooth the surrounding enamel and
apply a calcium hydroxide cement.
D. place a provisional (temporary)
crown.

Back 28

B. smooth the surrounding enamel and
apply glass ionomer cement.

Front 29

Zinc phosphate cement, when used as a
luting agent for cast restorations, has
which of the following properties?
1. Insolubility.
2. Anticariogenicity.
3. Chemical adhesion.
4. Mechanical retention.

Back 29

4. Mechanical retention.

Front 30

As a dentist in Canada, it is ethical to
refuse to treat a patient on the basis of
1. religious beliefs.
2. physical handicap.
3. infectious disease.
4. recognition of lack of skill or
knowledge.

Back 30

4. recognition of lack of skill or
knowledge.

Front 31

For which of the following teeth is the risk
of root fracture increased if a rotational
force is used during extraction?
A. Upper canine.
B. Lower canine.
C. Upper first bicuspid.
D. Lower first bicuspid.
E. Upper lateral incisor.

Back 31

C. Upper first bicuspid.

Front 32

Which of the following systemic diseases
does/do NOT predispose a patient to
periodontitis?
1. Cyclic neutropenia.
2. Diabetes mellitus.
3. Acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome.
4. Hereditary hypohydrotic ectodermal
dysplasia.

Back 32

4. Hereditary hypohydrotic ectodermal
dysplasia.

Front 33

A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a
patient with a 3mm anterior functional
shift should be taken with the patient in
A. maximum intercuspation.
B. initial contact.
C. normal rest position.
D. maximum opening.
E. protrusive position.

Back 33

B. initial contact.

Front 34

A 12-year old male with a history of
thumbsucking has an Angle Class II molar
relationship with a SNA = 83 and a
SNB = 79. The etiology of this patient's
malocclusion is
A. dental.
B. skeletal.
C. neuromuscular.
D. dental and neuromuscular.
E. skeletal and neuromuscular.

Back 34

C. neuromuscular.

Front 35

Physiologic (racial) pigmentation differs
from melanoma because melanoma
A. is macular.
B. contains melanin.
C. affects the gingiva.
D. undergoes clinical changes.

Back 35

D. undergoes clinical changes.

Front 36

In the treatment of necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis (NUG) with associated
lymphadenopathy, which of the following
medications is the treatment of choice?
A. An anti-inflammatory.
B. A topical antibiotic.
C. A systemic antibiotic.
D. An analgesic.

Back 36

C. A systemic antibiotic.

Front 37

Which articular disease most often
accompanies Sjögren’s syndrome?
A. Suppurative arthritis.
B. Rheumatoid arthritis.
C. Degenerative arthrosis.
D. Psoriatic arthritis.
E. Lupus arthritis.

Back 37

B. Rheumatoid arthritis.

Front 38

The tooth preparation for a porcelain
veneer must have a
1. rough surface.
2. space for the veneer material.
3. margin at least 1mm supragingivally.
4. definite finish line.

Back 38

E. All of the above.

Front 39

The use of an etchant and bonding system
before insertion of a composite resin
restoration results in
1. improved retention of the restoration.
2. decreased marginal leakage.
3. reduced polymerization shrinkage
effect.
4. greater strength of the restoration.

Back 39

1. improved retention of the restoration.
2. decreased marginal leakage.
3. reduced polymerization shrinkage
effect.

Front 40

The most frequent cause for composite
resin restoration failure is
A. brittleness of the composite.
B. excessive polymerization shrinkage.
C. presence of voids within the material.
D. inadequate moisture control during
placement.

Back 40

D. inadequate moisture control during
placement.

Front 41

A patient complains of sensitivity the day
following placement of a conservative
posterior composite resin restoration. The
most probable cause is
A. acid etching.
B. microleakage.
C. unpolymerized resin.
D. prolonged application of the curing
light.
E. inadequate base thickness

Back 41

B. microleakage.

Front 42

A patient with a tumor in the right
infratemporal fossa shows a significant
shift of the mandible to the right when
opening. Which nerve is involved?
A. Facial nerve VII.
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve IX.
C. Trigeminal nerve V.
D. Hypoglossal nerve XII.

Back 42

C. Trigeminal nerve V.

Front 43

Which two muscles are involved in
sucking?
A. Caninus and depressor angularis.
B. Risorius and buccinator.
C. Buccinator and orbicularis oris.
D. Levator labii superioris and
zygomaticus major.

Back 43

C. Buccinator and orbicularis oris.

Front 44

Following root planing, a patient
experiences thermal sensitivity. This pain
is associated with which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings.
C. Odontoblastic processes.
D. Cementoblasts.

Back 44

B. Free nerve endings.

Front 45

A 45 year old, overweight man reports that
his wife complains that he snores. The
initial management of the patient’s snoring
problem is to
A. fabricate an appliance to reduce
snoring.
B. fabricate restorations to increase the
patient’s vertical dimension of
occlusion.
C. refer for an orthognathic surgery
consultation.
D. refer for a sleep assessment.

Back 45

D. refer for a sleep assessment.

Front 46

The most appropriate treatment of
necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis (NUP)
in a patient with no fever and no
lymphadenopathy is
1. periodontal debridement.
2. antibiotic therapy.
3. oral hygiene instruction.
4. topical steroid therapy.

Back 46

1. periodontal debridement.
3. oral hygiene instruction.

Front 47

In periodontal therapy, “guided tissue
regeneration” is most successful in
treating
1. horizontal bone loss.
2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
3. a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation
involvement.

Back 47

2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation
involvement.

Front 48

The most likely cause of tooth loss
following a tunneling procedure to provide
complete access for a mandibular Class III
furcation involvement is
A. root caries.
B. root sensitivity.
C. pulpal involvement.
D. recurrent pocketing.

Back 48

A. root caries.

Front 49

The severity of periodontitis depends upon
the
1. host resistance.
2. presence of balancing occlusal
interferences.
3. bacterial virulence.
4. level of salivary amylase.

Back 49

E. All of the above.

Front 50

The predominant organism(s) associated
with chronic (adult) periodontitis is/are
1. Prevotella intermedia.
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
3. Porphyromonas gingivalis.
4. Heliobacter pilori.

Back 50

1. Prevotella intermedia.
3. Porphyromonas gingivalis.