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50 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Bleeding gingiva and loosening of the
teeth may be associated with a deficiency
of
A. intrinsic factor.
B. folic acid.
C. niacin.
D. ascorbic acid.
E. riboflavin.
D. ascorbic acid.
Hypochromic anemia is associated with
A. iron deficiency.
B. aminopyrine therapy.
C. vitamin B12 deficiency.
D. folic acid deficiency.
A. iron deficiency.
Children receiving systemic fluoride will
exhibit the highest fluoride concentration
in the
A. enamel surface.
B. enamel matrix.
C. dentino-enamel junction.
D. cementum.
D. cementum.
The Fluorosis Index is used to measure the
A. degree of protection offered against
dental caries by fluoride
supplements.
B. concentration of fluoride in public
water supplies.
C. degree or severity of mottled enamel.
D. opposition to fluoridation by citizens'
groups.
E. total amount of fluoride ingested.
C. degree or severity of mottled enamel.
A characteristic of the periodontium which
allows safe temporary separation of the
teeth is the
A. nature of acellular cementum.
B. elasticity of bone.
C. modified continuous eruption of the
teeth.
D. passive eruption.
B. elasticity of bone.
Deposition of plaque on teeth occurs in
A. less than 24 hours.
B. 24 to 48 hours.
C. 2 to 4 days.
D. 5 to 7 days.
A. less than 24 hours.
Acquired pellicle
A. is composed of salivary
glycoproteins.
B. takes 24 hours to establish.
C. is difficult to remove.
D. causes inflammation
A. is composed of salivary
glycoproteins
Which microorganisms predominate in
early plaque?
A. Gram-positive aerobic rods.
B. Gram-negative aerobic rods.
C. Gram-positive aerobic cocci.
D. Gram-negative aerobic cocci.
E. Gram-positive anaerobic cocci.
C. Gram-positive aerobic cocci.
A patient complains of dull, constant pain
in his jaws upon awakening. You would
suspect
A. acute pulpitis.
B. sinusitis.
C. bruxism.
D. chronic gingivitis.
C. bruxism.
Areas of isolated gingival recession are
most frequently seen on teeth that are
A. non vital.
B. moderately mobile.
C. ankylosed.
D. labially prominent in the arch
D. labially prominent in the arch
A furcation invasion in which bone loss
allows the probe to extend completely
through the furcation is classified as
A. incipient.
B. Class I.
C. Class II.
D. Class III.
E. chronic.
D. Class III.
Destruction of bone in periodontal disease
occurs
A. continuously.
B. in cycles lasting for about 3~months.
C. in random cycles.
D. None of the above.
C. in random cycles.
Following periodontal surgery, the most
important factor to promote healing is
A. a salt water rinse.
B. thorough plaque control.
C. gingival massage.
D. leaving the site undisturbed for a
period of 3 months.
B. thorough plaque control.
In the oral cavity, decalcification of the
enamel occurs only through
A. proteolytic enzymes.
B. loss of calcium.
C. sulfuric acid.
D. hyaluronidase.
B. loss of calcium.
The primary reason for placing a surgical
dressing after a gingivectomy is to
A. prevent hemorrhage.
B. protect the wound.
C. stabilize the teeth.
D. protect the sutures
B. protect the wound.
Examination reveals an area of gingival
recession that exposes a wide area of
denuded root. The procedure of choice to
obtain coverage of this root surface is
A. free gingival autograft.
B. apically positioned flap.
C. laterally positioned pedicle graft.
D. coronally positioned flap.
C. laterally positioned pedicle graft.
Which of the following is essential for
successful periodontal treatment?
A. Scaling.
B. Final evaluation and maintenance on
a one-year recall.
C. Periodontal surgery.
D. Elimination of local etiologic factors
through plaque control.
D. Elimination of local etiologic factors
through plaque control.
Following periodontal surgery, the most
common cause of recurrence of pockets is
A. systemic disease.
B. traumatic occlusion.
C. failure to splint.
D. poor oral hygiene
D. poor oral hygiene
The efficacy of pit and fissure sealants is
affected by
A. occlusal relationship.
B. opacity of the sealant.
C. stage of tooth eruption.
D. type of polymerization reaction.
E. systemic fluoride treatment.
C. stage of tooth eruption.
A radiographic term used to describe the
dense bone image of the socket and septal
crest is
A. periodontal ligament space.
B. cancellous bone.
C. cribriform plate.
D. lamina dura.
E. cortical bone
D. lamina dura.
In health, the level of the interproximal
alveolar crest is related to the
A. thickness of the alveolar process.
B. location of the gingival margin.
C. amount of underlying trabecular
bone.
D. position of the cemento-enamel
junction.
D. position of the cemento-enamel
junction.
The predominant types of inflammatory
cells present in CHRONIC gingivitis are
A. polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
B. monocytes and polymorphonuclear
leukocytes.
C. lymphocytes and plasma cells.
D. eosinophils.
E. mast cells.
C. lymphocytes and plasma cells.
Narrow ‘slit-like” areas of gingival
recession over the roots of teeth are called
A. festoons
B. clefts.
C. craters.
D. fenestrations.
E. dehiscences.
B. clefts.
Vitamin D is a factor in
A. caries susceptibility.
B. calculus formation.
C. calcium absorption.
D. repair of hypoplastic defects of the
enamel.
C. calcium absorption.
The tooth surfaces LEAST susceptible to
caries are
A. mesial of the maxillary arch.
B. lingual of the mandibular arch.
C. distal of the maxillary arch.
D. occlusal of the mandibular arch.
E. lingual of the maxillary arch.
B. lingual of the mandibular arch.
In normal gingiva, the predominant
microflora of gingival plaque are
A. gram-positive cocci.
B. gram-negative cocci.
C. gram-negative facultative and
anaerobic rods.
D. spirochetes
A. gram-positive cocci.
In clinically normal gingiva, the distance
between the bottom of the sulcus and the
alveolar crest is
A. 0.5-1mm.
B. 1.5-2mm.
C. 3-5mm.
D. None of the above.
A. 0.5-1mm.
Which of the following drugs is most
effective against candidiasis?
A. Nystatin.
B. Neomycin.
C. Bacitracin.
D. Polymyxin B.
A. Nystatin.
The physiologic wear of hard dental tissue
resulting from mastication is known as
A. decalcification.
B. attrition.
C. abrasion.
D. erosion.
B. attrition.
Which of the following conditions may
result from cross-brushing the teeth?
A. Erosion.
B. Abrasion
C. Attrition.
D. Hypoplasia.
B. Abrasion
The most common complaint of a patient
with chronic marginal gingivitis is
A. bleeding on brushing.
B. painful gums.
C. changes in the shape of the gingiva.
D. bad breath.
C. changes in the shape of the gingiva.
The most important diagnostic element in
assessing the periodontal status of a
patient is
A. the results of vitality testing.
B. the radiographic appearance.
C. the depth of periodontal pockets.
D. the mobility of the teeth.
C. the depth of periodontal pockets.
In patients with periodontal disease, which
of the following is most directly
responsible for tooth loss?
A. Resorption of root surfaces.
B. Gingival inflammation.
C. Destruction of supporting alveolar
bone.
D. Inflammation and thickening of the
periodontal ligament.
E. Necrosis of exposed cementum.
C. Destruction of supporting alveolar
bone.
Chronic gingival inflammation is best
eliminated by
A. gingival surgery.
B. regular use of a water-irrigating
device.
C. root planing and curettage.
D. occlusal correction.
E. splinting.
B. regular use of a water-irrigating
device
The primary objective of initial
periodontal therapy is to
A. reduce occlusal trauma.
B. make adequate dietary and
nutritional adjustments.
C. remove the colonized masses of
microorganisms and calculus.
D. eliminate crowded and tilted teeth.
C. remove the colonized masses of
microorganisms and calculus.
Successful repair of bony defects is
dependent upon
A. its depth.
B. the number of walls.
C. the distance between the buccal and
lingual walls.
D. the distance from the crest of the
defect to the cemento-enamel
junction.
B. the number of walls.
Residual soft tissue interdental craters not
associated with underlying bony changes
are eliminated by
A. root planing.
B. subgingival curettage.
C. flap operation.
D. gingivoplasty.
E. None of the above.
D. gingivoplasty.
In mandibular distal extension free-end
saddle removable partial dentures,
periodontal damage to the abutment teeth
can best be avoided by
A. maintaining tissue support in the
saddle areas.
B. clasping at least two teeth.
C. maintaining the clasp arms on all
abutment teeth.
D. using bar type clasps.
A. maintaining tissue support in the
saddle areas.
In taking an impression with polysulfide
or silicone materials, if the heavy bodied
tray material begins to set before seating,
the resultant die will
A. not be affected dimensionally.
B. be overall smaller.
C. be overall larger.
D. develop a rough surface texture.
E. develop bubbles at the interface of
the syringe and tray material.
B. be overall smaller.
Hydrocolloid impression materials must
be poured immediately because they
A. adhere to plaster and stone if not
poured immediately.
B. are subject to syneresis and
inbibition.
C. lose strength and disintegrate if left
unpoured.
D. begin to swell immediately after
removal from the mouth.
B. are subject to syneresis and
inbibition.
In soldering nickel-cobalt-chromium
alloys and stainless steel, the function of
the fluoride flux is
A. to lower the melting range of the
solder.
B. to reduce the copper-oxide content of
the alloy.
C. to stop the flow of the molten solder
onto undesired areas.
D. to reduce the formation of chromium
oxide during soldering.
D. to reduce the formation of chromium
oxide during soldering.
Dental stone casts reach their maximum
strength after
A. l hour.
B. 5 hours.
C. 10 hours.
D. 24 hours.
D. 24 hours.
A "broken stress" or "non-rigid" type fixed
prosthesis is indicated when
A. the retainers can be so designed as to
have equal retentive qualities.
B. 2 or 3 teeth are to be replaced.
C. constructing a mandibular fixed
prosthesis.
D. the abutments cannot be prepared in
parallel without excessive removal of
tooth structure.
D. the abutments cannot be prepared in
parallel without excessive removal of
tooth structure.
The vertical relation of rest is
A. the same as the vertical relation of
occlusion.
B. greater than the vertical relation of
occlusion.
C. less than the vertical relation of
occlusion.
D. the same as the interocclusal
distance.
B. greater than the vertical relation of
occlusion.
The lesion most frequently associated with
an ill-fitting denture flange is
A. stomatitis.
B. lichen planus.
C. epulis fissuratum.
D. angular cheilosis.
C. epulis fissuratum.
The vertical dimension of occlusion
between the maxillary and mandibular
teeth is the
A. relationship of the occlusal plane to
the Frankfort plane.
B. relationship of the mandible to the
maxilla "at rest".
C. relationship of the mandible to the
maxilla with the teeth together.
D. most comfortable unstrained
relationship of the mandible to the
maxilla.
C. relationship of the mandible to the
maxilla with the teeth together
Clasps should be so designed that upon
insertion or removal of a partial denture,
the reciprocal arms contact the abutment
teeth when the retentive arms pass over
the height of contour in order to
A. prevent distortion of the clasps.
B. assure complete seating of the
framework.
C. provide needed support to abutment
teeth during a period of added stress.
D. permit insertion and removal without
applying excessive force.
C. provide needed support to abutment
teeth during a period of added stress
The line drawn through the occlusal rests
of two principal abutments is
A. survey line.
B. terminal line.
C. axis of rotation.
D. line of greatest torque.
C. axis of rotation.
In constructing a full gold crown,
recession of the gingival tissue can be
most effectively prevented by
A. narrowing the food table.
B. accurately reproducing the tooth
form.
C. slightly overcontouring the tooth
form.
D. extending the margins of the crown
1mm into the gingival crevice.
B. accurately reproducing the tooth
form.
A patient wearing complete dentures has
angular cheilosis. The most likely cause is
A. increased vertical dimension.
B. insufficient horizontal overlap
(overjet).
C. decreased vertical dimension.
D. excessive vertical overlap (overbite).
C. decreased vertical dimension.