2010 Released Qs And Ans25

Front 1

The principal growth sites of the maxilla
in a downward and forward direction
include the
1. frontomaxillary suture.
2. zygomaticomaxillary suture.
3. pterygopalatine suture.
4. median palatine suture.

Back 1

1. frontomaxillary suture.
3. pterygopalatine suture.

Front 2

In determining the ideal proximal outline
form for a Class II amalgam cavity
preparation in a molar the
1. axial wall should be 1.5mm deep.
2. gingival cavosurface margin must
clear contact with the adjacent tooth.
3. proximal walls diverge occlusally.
4. facial and lingual proximal
cavosurface margins must just clear
contact with the adjacent tooth.

Back 2

2. gingival cavosurface margin must
clear contact with the adjacent tooth.
4. facial and lingual proximal
cavosurface margins must just clear
contact with the adjacent tooth.

Front 3

A line angle NOT present on a Class I
cavity preparation on tooth 1.6 is
A. mesiopulpal.
B. buccopulpal.
C. linguopulpal.
D. axiopulpal.
E. None of the above.

Back 3

D. axiopulpal.

Front 4

Major connectors of a cast maxillary
partial denture are beaded at the periphery
in order to
A. improve tissue contact.
B. aid in retention of the denture.
C. produce a stronger framework.
D. form a finish line between metal and
acrylic.
E. retain the acrylic to the metal of the
framework.

Back 4

A. improve tissue contact.

Front 5

A patient has a history of shortness of
breath and ankle edema. You would
suspect
A. asthma.
B. emphysema.
C. rhinophyma.
D. cardiac insufficiency.

Back 5

D. cardiac insufficiency.

Front 6

A primary molar, in the absence of its
permanent successor,
A. should be treated endodontically to
prevent root resorption.
B. may remain for years with no
significant resorption.
C. will undergo normal root resorption.
D. should be extracted.
E. is more susceptible to dental caries.

Back 6

B. may remain for years with no
significant resorption.

Front 7

Wettability is NOT a desirable property
for which of the following?
A. Dental impression materials.
B. Acrylic resin for denture bases.
C. Uncured composite resins.
D. Hand instruments for placing resins.
E. Trituration of amalgam.

Back 7

D. Hand instruments for placing resins.

Front 8

The yield strength of an orthodontic wire
is
A. the same as the proportional limit.
B. decreased by work hardening.
C. the same as the stress at fracture.
D. higher than the proportional limit.

Back 8

D. higher than the proportional limit.

Front 9

A vital canine is to be used as the anterior
abutment of a four unit fixed partial
denture and it has 2.0mm remaining
coronal tooth structure. The most
acceptable foundation restoration would
be
A. bonded amalgam core build-up.
B. a pin retained amalgam core buildup.
C. a pin retained composite resin core
build-up.
D. devitalization followed by a post and
core restoration.

Back 9

D. devitalization followed by a post and
core restoration.

Front 10

A patient wearing complete dentures
complains of tingling and numbness in the
lower lip bilaterally. This is often an
indication of
A. allergy to denture base material.
B. impingement of denture on the
mandibular nerve.
C. defective occlusal contacts.
D. impingement of denture on the
mental nerve.
E. neoplastic invasion of the inferior
mandibular nerve.

Back 10

D. impingement of denture on the
mental nerve

Front 11

Which pontic type is best for a knife edge
residual ridge where esthetics is not a
major concern?
A. Sanitary.
B. Conical.
C. Ridge lap.
D. Modified ridge lap.

Back 11

B. Conical.

Front 12

A dental radiograph will accurately
indicate
A. periodontal pocket depth.
B. the height of the bone on the facial
surfaces of the teeth.
C. the extent of furcation involvements.
D. infrabony pocket topography.
E. None of the above.

Back 12

E. None of the above.

Front 13

If the lining cement is left on the gingival
cavosurface margin of a Class II amalgam
restoration,
A. cement dissolution will lead to
leakage.
B. the preparation will lack retention
form.
C. the preparation will lack resistance
form to bulk fracture.
D. the preparation will lack
appropriate outline form.

Back 13

A. cement dissolution will lead to
leakage.

Front 14

Which of the following teeth is the
LEAST desirable to use as an abutment
tooth for a fixed partial denture? A tooth
A. with pulpal involvement.
B. with minimal coronal structure.
C. rotated and tipped out of line.
D. with a short, tapered root and a long
clinical crown.

Back 14

D. with a short, tapered root and a long
clinical crown.

Front 15

The most likely cause of fracture of the
veneering porcelain, that leaves the
underlying metal exposed, on a porcelain
fused to metal bridge is
A. flexure of the bridge under the
occlusal load.
B. veneering porcelain that is more than
2mm thick.
C. contamination of the metal prior to
porcelain application.
D. porosities inside the veneering
porcelain.
E. overglazing of the porcelain.

Back 15

C. contamination of the metal prior to
porcelain application.

Front 16

The risk of transmission of Hepatitis B
Virus (HBV) is greater than that of Human
Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) because
HBV is
1. more resistant than HIV.
2. more transmissible through saliva.
3. in higher numbers in blood than HIV.
4. autoclave resistant.

Back 16

1. more resistant than HIV.
2. more transmissible through saliva.
3. in higher numbers in blood than HIV.

Front 17

The major advantage of glass ionomer
cement as a restorative material is that it is
A. highly translucent.
B. a fluoride releasing material.
C. highly esthetic.
D. unaffected by moisture during the
setting reaction.

Back 17

B. a fluoride releasing material.

Front 18

In a xerostomic patient, which salivary
gland(s) is/are most likely responsible for
the lack of lubrication?
A. Accessory.
B. Labial.
C. Parotid.
D. Sublingual and submandibular.

Back 18

D. Sublingual and submandibular.

Front 19

Gigantism is caused by
A. a hyperactive thyroid.
B. atrophy of the posterior pituitary.
C. hyperplasia of the anterior pituitary.
D. hyperplasia of the parathyroids.
E. none of the above.

Back 19

C. hyperplasia of the anterior pituitary.

Front 20

Which chemical mediator of inflammation
is blocked or reversed by a nonsteroidal
anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)?
A. Bradykinin.
B. Histamine.
C. Substance P.
D. Prostaglandin.

Back 20

D. Prostaglandin.

Front 21

Oral signs and/or symptoms of vitamin B2
(riboflavin) deficiency may include
1. glossitis.
2. angular cheilitis.
3. pain.
4. erythematous oral mucosa

Back 21

E. All of the above.

Front 22

Which of the following statements is/are
true when using forceps for extraction of a
maxillary first molar?
1. Palatal bone is thinner than buccal
bone.
2. Buccal bone is easier to expand.
3. Forcep movement should be
principally in the palatal direction.
4. Forcep movement should be
principally in the buccal direction.

Back 22

2. Buccal bone is easier to expand.
4. Forcep movement should be
principally in the buccal direction.

Front 23

A rubber dam should be used in
A. pulp capping procedures.
B. amalgam placement.
C. composite placement.
D. removing carious dentin from deep
lesions.
E. all of the above.

Back 23

E. all of the above.

Front 24

Which of the following would NOT be
prescribed for a patient receiving warfarin
(Coumadin®)?
1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
2. Metronidazole.
3. Erythromycin.
4. Codeine.

Back 24

1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
2. Metronidazole.
3. Erythromycin.

Front 25

In a 4 year old the most appropriate
treatment for a chronically infected, nonrestorable
first primary molar is to
A. extract it and place a space
maintainer.
B. observe it until it exfoliates.
C. extract it.
D. observe it until it becomes
symptomatic.

Back 25

A. extract it and place a space
maintainer.

Front 26

The most appropriate management for a
tooth with a history of previous trauma
that now exhibits apical resorption is
A. observation over 6 months for further
resorption.
B. complete instrumentation and
medication with intracanal calcium
hydroxide.
C. immediate instrumentation and
obturation followed by apical
curettage.
D. extraction, apical resection,
retrofilling and replantation.
E. extraction and replacement with a
fixed or removable prosthesis.

Back 26

B. complete instrumentation and
medication with intracanal calcium
hydroxide.

Front 27

Which of the following would be
considered normal blood pressure for a
healthy 75 year old?
A. 175/95.
B. 138/86.
C. 130/100.
D. 185/94.

Back 27

B. 138/86.

Front 28

The presence of anterior diastemas and
distally inclined maxillary incisors in a
9 year old child will most likely
A. be associated with a Class II division
II malocclusion.
B. involve the presence of mesiodens.
C. self correct.
D. require orthodontic treatment.
E. be associated with hypodontia.

Back 28

C. self correct

Front 29

One week after receiving a complete
denture a patient returns with an isolated
sore spot. The most likely cause is
A. incorrect vertical dimension.
B. localized pressure.
C. an inaccurate centric relation record.
D. decreased tissue tolerance.

Back 29

B. localized pressure.

Front 30

The preparation of an anterior tooth for a
porcelain fused to metal crown should
provide
1. adequate length for retentionresistance.
2. space for a thickness of metal that will
resist deformation.
3. space for a thickness of porcelain that
will be esthetic.
4. a single path of insertion.

Back 30

E. All of the above.

Front 31

The most appropriate management for a
tooth with a history of previous trauma
that now exhibits apical resorption is
A. observation over 6 months for further
resorption.
B. complete instrumentation and
medication with intracanal calcium
hydroxide.
C. immediate instrumentation and
obturation followed by apical
curettage.
D. extraction, apical resection,
retrofilling and replantation.
E. extraction and replacement with a
fixed or removable prosthesis.

Back 31

B. complete instrumentation and
medication with intracanal calcium
hydroxide.

Front 32

Which medication is used to control pulpal
hemorrhage when performing an
emergency pulpotomy?
A. Iodoform.
B. Ferric sulfate (15%).
C. C.M.C.P.
D. Cresatin.
E. Epinephrine (1:1000).
F. Formocresol.

Back 32

B. Ferric sulfate (15%).

Front 33

Which of the following agents is most
effective in cold testing?
A. Ice water.
B. Air jet.
C. CO2 (dry ice).
D. Ethyl chloride.

Back 33

C. CO2 (dry ice).

Front 34

The best way to disinfect gutta-percha
cones prior to obturation is to
A. immerse in a 5.25% sodium
hypochlorite solution.
B. immerse in ethyl alcohol.
C. autoclave for a full cycle.
D. wipe with an alcohol soaked gauze.

Back 34

A. immerse in a 5.25% sodium
hypochlorite solution.

Front 35

Which statement is FALSE regarding the
use of a barbed broach?
A. Removal of vital or non-vital pulp
tissue.
B. Removal of food debris from the
canal.
C. Removal of paper points and cotton
pellets.
D. Removal of gutta-percha during nonsurgical
retreatment.

Back 35

D. Removal of gutta-percha during nonsurgical
retreatment.

Front 36

Root canal filling pastes containing
paraformaldehyde
A. can be used routinely because of
their antibacterial action.
B. reduce the incidence of postoperative
pain.
C. are considered to be below the
standard of care in Canada.
D. do not cause systemic toxicity.
E. are well tolerated by periradicular
tissues.

Back 36

C. are considered to be below the
standard of care in Canada.

Front 37

The occlusal parameter that is most useful
to differentiate between an overbite of
dental or skeletal origin is the
A. mandibular curve of Spee.
B. mandibular curve of Wilson.
C. molar sagittal relationship.
D. mandibular anterior lack of space.
E. maxillary curve of Wilson.

Back 37

A. mandibular curve of Spee.

Front 38

The side effect LEAST likely to occur
during rapid maxillary expansion is
A. increasing the vertical dimension.
B. decreasing the vertical dimension.
C. mesial movement of the maxilla.
D. increasing maxillary inter-molar
width.
E. increasing mandibular inter-molar
width.

Back 38

B. decreasing the vertical dimension.

Front 39

The most important factor to consider
before extracting a mandibular incisor is
A. severity of the crowding.
B. mandibular curve of Spee.
C. a Boltan discrepancy.
D. the vertical incisor relationship.
E. the horizontal incisor relationship.

Back 39

C. a Boltan discrepancy.

Front 40

The diagnostic information for a 10 year
old patient with a mildly prognathic
mandible and 0mm overjet and 0mm
overbite should include
A. photographs, cephalometric and
panoramic radiographs.
B. family history, photographs,
cephalometric and panoramic
radiographs.
C. family history, photographs,
cephalometric, panoramic and
periapical radiographs.
D. photographs, cephalometric,
panoramic and periapical
radiographs.

Back 40

C. family history, photographs,
cephalometric, panoramic and
periapical radiographs.

Front 41

The application of cold to a tooth will
temporarily relieve pain in
A. acute suppurative pulpitis.
B. chronic pulpitis.
C. acute apical abscess.
D. pulpal necrosis.

Back 41

A. acute suppurative pulpitis

Front 42

Following radiation therapy to the
mandible, extraction of mandibular teeth is
most likely to result in
A. fracture.
B. actinomycosis.
C. osteomyelitis.
D. soft tissue necrosis.
E. development of malignancy.

Back 42

C. osteomyelitis.

Front 43

A laboratory remount of processed
dentures is done in order to correct
occlusal disharmony produced by errors
primarily in the
A. mounting of the casts in the
articulator.
B. registration of jaw relation records.
C. processing of acrylic.
D. registration of condylar guidance.

Back 43

C. processing of acrylic.

Front 44

Aspiration prior to a local anesthetic
injection reduces the
A. toxicity of local anesthetic.
B. toxicity of vasoconstrictor.
C. possibility of intravascular
administration.
D. possibility of paresthesia.

Back 44

C. possibility of intravascular
administration.

Front 45

A patient who is a hepatitis B carrier
presents for an extraction. The extraction
should be delayed and
A. rescheduled at the end of the day for
infection control.
B. an antibiotic prescribed
prophylactically.
C. the patient referred to a hospital
dental department.
D. an evaluation of liver function
performed.

Back 45

D. an evaluation of liver function
performed.

Front 46

The mesial furcation of maxillary first
molars is best probed from the
A. buccal.
B. buccal or lingual.
C. lingual.

Back 46

C. lingual.

Front 47

All of the following are possible effects of
acetylsalicylic acid EXCEPT
A. reduction of fever.
B. shortening of bleeding time.
C. suppression of inflammatory
response.
D. bleeding from the gastrointestinal
tract.

Back 47

B. shortening of bleeding time.

Front 48

The most common type of collagen found
in the gingival connective tissue,
periodontal ligament, and cementum is
composed primarily of
A. type I.
B. type II.
C. type III.
D. type IV.

Back 48

A. type I.

Front 49

Management of a “dry socket” should
include
A. hydrogen peroxide irrigation of
socket.
B. vigorous curettage of the socket.
C. placement of a dressing in the socket.
D. a prescription for antibiotics.

Back 49

C. placement of a dressing in the socket.

Front 50

Which anatomical structures form the
inverted Y (Y line) in maxillary periapical
radiographs?
A. Nasopalatine/incisive canal and floor
of the nasal fossa.
B. Anterior nasal spine and
nasopalatine/incisive canal.
C. Floor of the nasal fossa and
maxillary sinus border.
D. Zygomatic process of the maxilla and
maxillary sinus border.

Back 50

C. Floor of the nasal fossa and
maxillary sinus border.