2010 Released Qs And Ans46

Front 1

Which one of the following tests is used to
confirm the presence of an acute
infection?
A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
B. Urinalysis.
C. Differential white cell count.
D. Serum alkaline phosphatase.

Back 1

C. Differential white cell count.

Front 2

Which of the following drugs is most
addictive?
A. Meperidine.
B. Hydromorphone HCl.
C. Morphine sulfate.
D. Oxycodone.
E. Codeine.

Back 2

C. Morphine sulfate.

Front 3

Which of the following antibiotics would
commonly be prescribed for a patient
presenting with a compound fracture of
the jaw?
A. Chloromycetin.
B. Tetracycline.
C. Penicillin.
D. Erythromycin.
E. Nystatin.

Back 3

C. Penicillin.

Front 4

After giving buccal infiltration anesthesia
for the removal of a maxillary premolar,
the patient complains of a sharp pain in the
cheek which blanches. This is a result of
A. injecting too much solution.
B. injecting the solution too rapidly.
C. stimulating sympathetic nerves
around an artery.
D. intravenous injection

Back 4

B. injecting the solution too rapidly.

Front 5

Patients with a history of rheumatic fever
and known heart valve damage should be
given prophylactic antibiotic coverage
before dental extractions because of the
risk of
A. myocardial infarction.
B. subacute bacterial endocarditis.
C. cardiac arrest.
D. All of the above.

Back 5

B. subacute bacterial endocarditis.

Front 6

To avoid aspiration of blood or other
debris, the general anesthetic technique of
choice is
A. insufflation.
B. open drop.
C. endotracheal intubation.
D. intravenous barbiturate with nitrous
oxide-oxygen.

Back 6

C. endotracheal intubation.

Front 7

In local anesthesia, depression of
respiration is a manifestation of
A. puncture of a blood vessel.
B. use of non-isotonic solution.
C. toxic effects of the solution.
D. trauma to a nerve trunk by the
needle

Back 7

C. toxic effects of the solution.

Front 8

Which is NOT a sign of thyrotoxicosis?
A. Tremor.
B. Exophthalmos.
C. Slow pulse rate.
D. Temperature elevation.

Back 8

C. Slow pulse rate.

Front 9

Hydrolysis of anesthetic salts is facilitated
by
A. a tissue pH above 7.0.
B. a tissue pH below 5.0.
C. a tissue pH between 5.0 and 7.0.
D. lipophilic properties of the nerve
fibres.

Back 9

A. a tissue pH above 7.0.

Front 10

In achieving hemostasis, external cold
application produces
A. positive chemotaxis.
B. a transient vasoconstriction.
C. increased vascular permeability.
D. accelerated healing

Back 10

B. a transient vasoconstriction.

Front 11

A differential white blood cell count is
useful in the diagnosis of
A. anemia.
B. infection.
C. spherocytosis.
D. thrombocytopenic purpura.

Back 11

B. infection.

Front 12

In a Factor VIII hemophiliac, which of the
following laboratory findings is typical?
A. Prolonged clotting time.
B. Prolonged bleeding time.
C. Abnormally low blood platelet count.
D. Prothrombin time 30 of normal.

Back 12

A. Prolonged clotting time.

Front 13

Use of nitrous oxide analgesia produces
ringing in the ears as a result of
A. central nervous system reaction.
B. peripheral action on the eardrum.
C. increased pressure in the middle ear.
D. cochlea effect.
E. dysphoria.

Back 13

C. increased pressure in the middle ear.

Front 14

For a patient with a history of glaucoma
and porphyria, the pharmaco-sedation
technique preferred is
A. intravenous secobarbital.
B. intravenous diazepam.
C. oral diazepam.
D. nitrous oxide.
E. intravenous thiopental.

Back 14

D. nitrous oxide.

Front 15

A lingual nerve block will NOT
anesthetize the
A. anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
B. lingual gingivae.
C. posterior one-third of the tongue.
D. floor of the mouth.
E. parasympathetic fibers to the
submaxillary salivary gland.

Back 15

C. posterior one-third of the tongue.

Front 16

Cardiovascular collapse caused by a high
circulating dose of a local anesthetic is due
to
A. vagal stimulation.
B. histamine release.
C. myocardial depression.
D. medullary stimulation.

Back 16

C. myocardial depression.

Front 17

A 5 year old child presents with yellow
pigmentation of the deciduous teeth which
under ultraviolet light gives a bright
yellow fluorescence. This is diagnostic of
A. tetracycline pigmentation.
B. pigmentation associated with
chromogenic bacteria.
C. amelogenesis imperfecta.
D. enamel hypoplasia.

Back 17

A. tetracycline pigmentation.

Front 18

An ideal Class II cavity preparation for an
amalgam restoration in a primary molar
should have a
A. proximal box that diverges
occlusally.
B. reverse curve.
C. proximal retention grooves.
D. rounded axiopulpal line angle.
E. definite bevel on the gingival
cavosurface angle.

Back 18

D. rounded axiopulpal line angle.

Front 19

The highest incidence of congenitally
missing lateral incisors is most likely seen
in a patient with
A. unilateral cleft lip and palate.
B. congenital heart disease.
C. Down's syndrome.
D. hyperthyroidism.

Back 19

A. unilateral cleft lip and palate.

Front 20

The facial and lingual walls of the occlusal
portion of a Class II cavity preparation for
an amalgam in deciduous teeth should
A. be parallel to each other.
B. diverge toward the occlusal surface.
C. converge toward the occlusal
surface.
D. not follow the direction of the
enamel rods.

Back 20

C. converge toward the occlusal
surface.

Front 21

In deciduous molars, the cusp with the
largest pulp horn is the
A. distolingual.
B. distobuccal.
C. mesiolingual.
D. mesiobuccal

Back 21

D. mesiobuccal

Front 22

Concerning hand-wrist radiographs, which
of the following statements is correct?
A. Bone age is estimated by the
presence or absence of osseous
centres in particular bones and
compared with standards.
B. Hand-wrist radiographs are a precise
measure of progress in skeletal
development in normal children.
C. The hand-wrist radiograph is of little
value in orthodontic diagnosis.
D. The information obtained from
radiographs alone is enough to make
an accurate determination of skeletal
age.

Back 22

A. Bone age is estimated by the
presence or absence of osseous
centres in particular bones and
compared with standards.

Front 23

The sum of the widths (in mesiodistal
diameter) of the first and second
deciduous molars is generally
A. greater than the permanent
successors.
B. smaller than the permanent
successors.
C. same as the permanent successors.
D. not related to the permanent
successors.

Back 23

A. greater than the permanent
successors

Front 24

A 12-year old child presents with
characteristic tetracycline discoloration of
the maxillary and mandibular incisors and
permanent first molars. The probable age
at which this child received tetracycline
therapy was
A. 6 years.
B. 4 years.
C. 1 year.
D. before birth.

Back 24

C. 1 year.

Front 25

A 5-year old child presents with a
toothache involving a mandibular
deciduous second molar. The tooth has a
large carious exposure. Your treatment
would be
A. extraction.
B. pulp capping.
C. pulpotomy.
D. pulpectomy.

Back 25

C. pulpotomy

Front 26

The most appropriate treatment for a
permanent central incisor with a necrotic
pulp and a wide open apex is
A. pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide.
B. apexification with calcium
hydroxide.
C. apexification with zinc oxide.
D. root canal therapy using guttapercha.
E. root canal therapy followed by a
retrograde amalgam filling

Back 26

B. apexification with calcium
hydroxide

Front 27

In determining a patient's skeletal growth
pattern, the most important factor is
A. diet.
B. habits.
C. heredity.
D. occlusion.

Back 27

C. heredity.

Front 28

The greatest period of cranial growth
occurs between
A. birth and 5 years.
B. 6 and 8 years.
C. 10 and 12 years.
D. 14 and 16 years.

Back 28

A. birth and 5 years.

Front 29

An overjet of 8mm is usually associated
with
A. Class I cuspid relationship.
B. Class II cuspid relationship.
C. Class III cuspid relationship.
D. Class I molar relationship

Back 29

B. Class II cuspid relationship.

Front 30

An 8 year old patient has lost both
maxillary central incisors in an accident.
The most appropriate treatment is
A. observation.
B. orthodontics to close the space.
C. placement of a space maintainer with
bands cemented on the lateral
incisors.
D. construction of a removable partial
denture.
E. construction of a fixed bridge.

Back 30

D. construction of a removable partial
denture.

Front 31

The significant factor in the correction of
an anterior cross-bite is the
A. age of patient.
B. depth of cross-bite.
C. shape of the tooth involved.
D. space available mesiodistally.

Back 31

D. space available mesiodistally.

Front 32

The occlusal surface of a non-carious
submerged mandibular deciduous second
molar is level with the gingival margin.
The second premolar is present
radiographically. Your treatment of the
deciduous tooth is to
A. loosen the tooth to encourage
eruption.
B. cover the tooth with an oversized
crown.
C. extract the tooth and maintain the
space.
D. wait for it to be exfoliated

Back 32

C. extract the tooth and maintain the
space.

Front 33

Enamel maturation is completed
A. at eruption.
B. following eruption.
C. when the enamel organ is complete.
D. prior to eruption but after root
formation has begun.

Back 33

D. prior to eruption but after root
formation has begun.

Front 34

Which of the following represents the
normal relationship of the primary
canines?
A. The distal inclined plane of the
maxillary canine articulates with the
mesial inclined plane of the
mandibular canine.
B. The mesial inclined plane of the
maxillary canine articulates with the
distal inclined plane of the
mandibular canine.
C. Normal articulation of primary
canines is end-to-end.
D. None of the above.

Back 34

A. The distal inclined plane of the
maxillary canine articulates with the
mesial inclined plane of the
mandibular canine.

Front 35

Following premature deciduous tooth loss,
space problems occur MOST frequently in
the area of the
A. maxillary lateral incisor.
B. mandibular central incisor.
C. mandibular second premolar.
D. maxillary first premolar.

Back 35

C. mandibular second premolar.

Front 36

Between six and twelve years of age,
space for the second molar is obtained in
the mandible by
A. growth at the anterior surface of the
mandible.
B. anterior movement of all of the
erupted teeth.
C. resorption of bone along the anterior
border of the ramus.
D. widening of the mandible.
E. shedding of the first permanent
molars.

Back 36

C. resorption of bone along the anterior
border of the ramus.

Front 37

To determine the location of an impacted
maxillary cuspid, the radiographic view(s)
required is/are
A. occlusal.
B. periapical.
C. periapical and occlusal.
D. panoramic.

Back 37

C. periapical and occlusal.

Front 38

The postnatal increase in width of the
maxilla results from
A. sutural growth.
B. mandibular growth.
C. appositional growth.
D. both appositional and sutural growth.

Back 38

D. both appositional and sutural growth.

Front 39

The treatment for an 11-year old who has
intermittent swelling and pain associated
with a central incisor which was
traumatized 6 months ago should be
A. pulpotomy.
B. pulpectomy.
C. extraction.
D. observation.

Back 39

B. pulpectomy.

Front 40

In a 5-year old, a small mechanical
exposure in a vital primary molar would
be treated by
A. extraction of the tooth.
B. a pulp capping with calcium
hydroxide.
C. a routine amalgam restoration
without any specific treatment for the
exposed pulp.
D. the use of a cavity liner.

Back 40

B. a pulp capping with calcium
hydroxide.

Front 41

In an 8 year old patient the most
appropriate treatment of a vital permanent
molar with a large carious exposure is
A. pulpotomy.
B. pulpectomy.
C. direct pulp capping.
D. indirect pulp capping.

Back 41

A. pulpotomy.

Front 42

In an 8-year old child, the four maxillary
incisors are tipped lingually and are in
cross-bite. The optimum time for
treatment is
A. as soon as possible.
B. after the maxillary canines are in
position.
C. after the maxillary premolars erupt.
D. following completion of jaw growth.

Back 42

A. as soon as possible.

Front 43

A 7-year old child who complains of pain
when eating, has a large carious lesion on
a permanent molar. A radiograph reveals
no periapical change. Your treatment is
A. indirect pulp capping.
B. direct pulp capping.
C. vital pulpotomy.
D. prophylactic odontotomy.

Back 43

A. indirect pulp capping

Front 44

The causative organism in most acute
alveolar infections is
A. staphylococcus.
B. lactobacillus.
C. streptococcus.
D. candida albicans.
E. actinomyces.

Back 44

C. streptococcus

Front 45

An osteoclast is a cell
A. that forms bone.
B. of the endosteum.
C. that resorbs bone.
D. which forms collagen.

Back 45

C. that resorbs bone.

Front 46

Thumbsucking in most cases does not
cause permanent harm to the dentition if
the habit is
A. discontinued before four years of
age.
B. discontinued before eight years of
age.
C. practised only at night.
D. is light in intensity.
E. None of the above.

Back 46

A. discontinued before four years of
age.

Front 47

The eruption of which of the following
permanent teeth signals the beginning of
the mixed dentition stage?
A. Maxillary central incisor.
B. Maxillary canine.
C. Mandibular first molar.
D. Mandibular central incisor.

Back 47

C. Mandibular first molar.

Front 48

How long does it take bacterial plaque to
form acid from sucrose?
A. 2-10 minutes.
B. 30 minutes to 1 hour.
C. l-2 hours.
D. More than 12 hours.
E. 24 hours.

Back 48

A. 2-10 minutes.

Front 49

Which oral condition predisposes to
caries?
A. Xerostomia.
B. Leukoplakia.
C. Pharyngitis.
D. Stomatitis medicamentosa.

Back 49

A. Xerostomia.

Front 50

Which of the muscles of mastication is
associated with the condylar head and the
articular disc?
A. Masseter.
B. Temporalis.
C. Internal pterygoid.
D. External pterygoid.

Back 50

D. External pterygoid.