• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/50

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

50 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
For an otherwise healthy patient, with an
acute localized periodontal abscess, initial
treatment must include
A. scaling and root planing.
B. occlusal adjustment.
C. prescription of an antibiotic.
D. prescription of an analgesic.
A. scaling and root planing.
On bite-wing radiographs of adults under
the age of 30, the normal alveolar crest is
A. at the cementoenamel junction.
B. 1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel
junction.
C. 3-4mm apical to the cementoenamel
junction.
D. not clearly distinguishable.
B. 1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel
junction.
Which of the following structures may be
associated with the role of the central
nervous system in sleep (nocturnal)
bruxism?
A. Basal ganglia (nigrostriatal).
B. A delta and C nerves.
C. Sphenopalatine ganglion.
D. Petrous nerves.
A. Basal ganglia (nigrostriatal).
In a xerostomic patient which salivary
gland(s) is/are most likely responsible for
the lack of lubrication?
A. Accessory.
B. Labial.
C. Parotid.
D. Sublingual and submandibular.
D. Sublingual and submandibular
A line angle NOT present on a Class I
cavity preparation on tooth 1.6 is
A. mesiopulpal.
B. buccopulpal.
C. linguopulpal.
D. axiopulpal.
E. None of the above.
D. axiopulpal.
The physiopathology of sleep apnea is
most likely related to
A. excessive oropharyngeal muscular
tonus during sleep.
B. central nervous system respiratory
neuron depression.
C. obstruction in lower airways.
D. a severe Class III malocclusion.
B. central nervous system respiratory
neuron depression.
A 23 year old female complains of
bilateral stiffness and soreness in the
preauricular region. Her symptoms have
been present for the past week and are
most pronounced in the morning. The
most likely cause is
A. fibrous ankylosis of the
temporomandibular joints.
B. nocturnal bruxism.
C. early osteoarthritis.
D. mandibular subluxation.
B. nocturnal bruxism
Which of the following would maximize
vitamin E intake following osseous
surgery?
A. Lettuce.
B. Wheat germ.
C. Eggs.
D. Fish.
B. Wheat germ
What percentage of 5 - 17 year olds in
North America are caries free?
A. 15 - 25
B. 30 - 45
C. 50 - 60
D. 65 - 75
C. 50 - 60
Which type of malocclusion should be
corrected as early as possible?
A. Class II Division 1 associated with
an anterior open bite.
B. Class II Division 2 associated with
an increased anterior overbite.
C. Class III associated with an anterior
open bite.
D. Cross-bite associated with a
functional shift of the mandible from
initial contact to maximum
intercuspation.
E. Anterior open bite associated with a
lip or digit sucking habit.
D. Cross-bite associated with a
functional shift of the mandible from
initial contact to maximum
intercuspation.
Long term stability of the orthodontic
correction of a deep anterior overbite is
better
A. in growing children compared to
adults.
B. when the correction is accomplished
by protrusion and intrusion of the
lower anterior teeth.
C. when a low interincisal angle is
established as a result of orthodontic
correction.
D. in non-extraction versus extraction
cases.
E. in patients with a high mandibular
plane angle.
D. in non-extraction versus extraction
cases.
The angles, SNA, SNB and ANB are often
used to describe relationships of the
maxilla and mandible. The reliability of
interpretations based on these angles is
A. good because research has proven
their accuracy.
B. good because these landmarks can be
identified accurately on the
cephalometric radiograph.
C. questionable because of variations in
vertical relationships in the lower
face.
D. questionable because of variations in
head posture.
C. questionable because of variations in
vertical relationships in the lower
face.
In its classic form, serial extraction is best
applied to patients with Class I occlusions
with crowding of
A. less than 10mm in each of the upper
and lower arches and 35% overbite.
B. 10mm or more in each of the upper
and lower arches and 35% overbite.
C. less than 10mm in each of the upper
and lower arches and 70% overbite.
D. 10mm or more in each of the upper
and lower arches and 70% overbite.
B. 10mm or more in each of the upper
and lower arches and 35% overbite.
The most common cause of persistent post
operative sensitivity following the
placement of posterior composite resin
restorations is
A. hyperocclusion.
B. microleakage.
C. acidic primers.
D. residual caries.
B. microleakage.
The maxillary cast partial denture major
connector design with the greatest
potential to cause speech problems is
A. a thick narrow major connector.
B. an anterior and a posterior bar.
C. a thin broad palatal strap.
D. narrow horseshoe shaped.
A. a thick narrow major connector.
The layer of intermingled collagen and
resin located beneath a restoration is called
the
A. smear layer.
B. hybrid layer.
C. Weil layer.
D. decalcification layer
B. hybrid layer
Which of the following structures lies
inferior to the mylohyoid muscle at the
level of the mandibular second molar?
A. Lingual artery.
B. Lingual vein.
C. Lingual nerve.
D. Submandibular duct.
B. Lingual vein.
Immediately following a left posterior
superior alveolar nerve block injection, the
patient’s face becomes quickly and visibly
swollen on the left side. The immediate
treatment should be to
1. apply a cold compress.
2. administer 0.3mg epinepherine
(sublingually).
3. apply pressure.
4. refer for immediate medical
treatment.
1. apply a cold compress.
3. apply pressure.
If a person falls from a bicycle, striking
the chin, the most likely region(s) of the
mandible to fracture is/are:
1. Symphysis.
2. Condylar necks.
3. Mid-body.
4. Angles of the mandible.
2. Condylar necks.
4. Angles of the mandible.
If a patient loses a permanent maxillary
first molar before the age of 11, the
1. premolar drifts distally.
2. maxillary second molar erupts and
moves mesially.
3. opposing tooth erupts into the space
created.
4. overbite increases.
E. All of the above.
Which of the following procedures should
be used to reduce the risk of exposure to
mercury vapour?
1. Staff education.
2. Rubber dam.
3. High velocity suction.
4. Surgical mask.
E. All of the above.
A 45 year old with insulin dependent
diabetes mellitus comes for a morning
dental appointment. During the
examination, the patient complains of
being lightheaded and weak. Sweating is
observed. The patient is most likely
experiencing
A. hyperglycemia.
B. hypoglycemia.
C. syncope.
D. hyperventilation.
E. cerebrovascular accident.
B. hypoglycemia.
An open proximal contact on an amalgam
restoration could have been caused by
1. inadequate wedging.
2. overtightening the matrix band.
3. inadequate condensing forces.
4. simultaneous placement of adjacent
proximal restorations.
1. inadequate wedging.
2. overtightening the matrix band.
3. inadequate condensing forces.
The antibiotic of choice for a periapical
dental abscess is
A. pen V.
B. cephalosporin.
C. erythromycin.
D. metronidazole.
E. ampicillin.
A. pen V
Wedge biopsies should be used to
diagnose
A. cysts.
B. nodules.
C. plaques.
D. macules.
C. plaques.
An ankylosed primary molar can cause
1. delayed eruption of the succedaneous
tooth.
2. alteration of arch length.
3. difficulty with extraction.
4. supraeruption of the opposing teeth.
E. All of the above.
Direct pulp capping of permanent teeth in
children under the age of 12 years is most
likely to be successful for
A. teeth that are symptomatic.
B. necrotic pulps.
C. teeth with open apices.
D. pulp exposures 3-5mm in size.
C. teeth with open apices.
A Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency
usually arises in patients
1. who are elderly.
2. with acute infection.
3. consuming a high protein or fat diet.
4. taking systemic antibiotics.
E. All of the above.
Following root canal therapy, the most
desirable form of tissue response at the
apical foramen is
A. cementum deposition.
B. connective tissue capsule formation.
C. epithelium proliferation from the
periodontal ligament.
D. dentin deposition.
A. cementum deposition.
While the teeth are set in wax, dentures
are tried in to
A. verify the maxillomandibular
records.
B. verify the vertical dimension of
occlusion.
C. evaluate esthetics.
D. All of the above.
Epinephrine in a local anesthetic solution
will
1. decrease absorption of the anesthetic.
2. assist hemostasis at the site of
injection.
3. prolong the action of the anesthetic
agent.
4. assist in post-operative healing.
1. decrease absorption of the anesthetic.
2. assist hemostasis at the site of
injection.
3. prolong the action of the anesthetic
agent.
Hypothyroidism in adults is associated
with
A. exophthalmos.
B. weight loss.
C. generalized edema.
D. tachycardia.
E. mental defects.
C. generalized edema.
Which of the following may affect the
results of electric pulp testing?
1. Patient anxiety.
2. Pain threshold.
3. Analgesics.
4. Recent trauma.
E. All of the above.
A lower molar requiring a crown has an
amalgam restoration extending 1.0 mm
sub-gingivally. The crown margin should
be placed
A. on the existing amalgam.
B. at the amalgam/tooth junction.
C. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin.
D. 2mm apical to the amalgam margin.
C. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin.
Which of the following statement is/are
true regarding light curing of a composite
resin?
1. The curing tip should be within 2mm
of the material.
2. Light intensity is inversely
proportional to the distance from the
material.
3. A darker shade of material requires
longer curing time.
4. Curing of composite resin cannot
occur through enamel.
1. The curing tip should be within 2mm
of the material.
2. Light intensity is inversely
proportional to the distance from the
material.
3. A darker shade of material requires
longer curing time.
The current recommended regimen of
antibiotic prophylaxis for a patient with a
prosthetic heart valve and an allergy to
penicillin is
A. amoxicillin 3g orally one hour before
procedure; then 1.5g six hours after
initial dose.
B. amoxicillin 2g orally one hour before
procedure only.
C. clindamycin 300mg orally one hour
before procedure; then 150mg six
hours after initial dose.
D. clindamycin 600mg orally one hour
before procedure only.
E. erythromycin stearate, 2g orally two
hours before procedure only.
D. clindamycin 600mg orally one hour
before procedure only.
A patient presents with a 3 week history of
prolonged tooth pain to hot and cold.
Three days ago the symptoms changed to
moderate pain on biting combined with a
dull, spontaneous ache relieved by cold.
The most likely diagnosis is
A. chronic apical abscess.
B. a cracked tooth.
C. pulpal necrosis.
D. reversible pulpitis.
E. a vertical root fracture.
C. pulpal necrosis.
Assuming daily maximums are not
exceeded, which of the following is/are
appropriate for pain management
following an emergency pulpectomy for
an adult with a history of severe asthma
and nasal polyps?
1. Naproxen 250mg, every 6 - 8 hours
p.r.n.
2. Acetylsalicylic acid 650mg every 4 -
6 hours p.r.n.
3. Ketorolac 10mg every 4 - 6 hours
p.r.n.
4. Acetaminophen 1000mg every 4 - 6
hours p.r.n.
4. Acetaminophen 1000mg every 4 - 6
hours p.r.n.
For a 20 year old, 80kg, patient with a
confirmed allergy to codeine, which of the
following is/are appropriate for pain
control following the removal of an
impacted third molar?
1. Hydromorphone, 2mg every 4 - 6
hours p.r.n.
2. Ibuprofen, 800mg 1 hour preoperatively
followed by 400mg every
4 - 6 hours p.r.n.
3. Acetaminophen, 650mg with
oxycodone, 10mg every 4 - 6 hours
p.r.n.
4. Ketorolac, 10mg every 4 - 6 hours
p.r.n.
2. Ibuprofen, 800mg 1 hour preoperatively
followed by 400mg every
4 - 6 hours p.r.n.
4. Ketorolac, 10mg every 4 - 6 hours
p.r.n.
Which one of the following luting agents
has been shown to reduce the incidence of
fracture in an all-ceramic restoration?
A. Resin modified glass ionomer
cement.
B. Zinc phosphate cement.
C. Composite resin cement.
D. Glass ionomer cement.
C. Composite resin cement.
Root caries risk in adults is
1. associated with previous enamel
caries experience.
2. reduced in communities with
fluoridated water.
3. greater in adults who have high
streptococcus mutans counts.
4. similar in institutionalized and noninstitutionalized
patients.
1. associated with previous enamel
caries experience.
2. reduced in communities with
fluoridated water.
3. greater in adults who have high
streptococcus mutans counts.
Normal aging changes in the hard tooth
tissues include
1. continuous deposition of cementum.
2. continuous deposition of dentin.
3. decreased blood supply to the pulp.
4. increased porosity of enamel.
1. continuous deposition of cementum.
2. continuous deposition of dentin.
3. decreased blood supply to the pulp.
A 34 year old male patient complains of
night sweats, weight loss, malaise,
anorexia and low-grade fever. Clinical
examination shows a nodular, ulcerated
lesion on the palate. The most likely
diagnosis is
A. viral hepatitis.
B. infectious mononucleosis.
C. tuberculosis.
D. actinomycosis.
B. infectious mononucleosis.
A 37 year old female patient presents for
routine dental treatment. She has tremors,
palpitations and excessive perspiration.
Her skin is smooth and warm. She
complains of weight loss and diarrhea.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hyperparathyroidism.
B. Viral hepatitis.
C. Hyperthyroidism.
D. Crohn’s disease.
E. Iron deficiency anemia.
C. Hyperthyroidism.
Epstein-Barr virus is associated with
which of the following?
1. Shingles.
2. Oral hairy leukoplakia.
3. Chickenpox.
4. Infectious mononucleosis.
2. Oral hairy leukoplakia.
4. Infectious mononucleosis.
Which of the following presents with high
serum calcium levels, thinning of cortical
bone and giant cell osteoclasts in the jaw
and drifting teeth?
A. Hyperthyroidism.
B. Hyperparathyroidism.
C. Hypothyroidism.
D. Hypoparathyroidism.
B. Hyperparathyroidism.
A mandibular fracture during normal
mastication is most likely to occur in a
patient with
A. osteoporosis.
B. a large intraosseous lesion.
C. an impacted tooth at the inferior
border.
D. advanced alveolar atrophy.
A. osteoporosis.
The most prevalent inflammatory cells
found in gingival tissue 24 hours
following flap surgery are
A. monocytes.
B. macrophages.
C. lymphocytes.
D. polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
D. polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
Which of the following dental health
recommendations is consistent with the
general nutrition guide on healthy eating
for Canadians?
A. Diet soft drinks and potato chips are
an acceptable snack.
B. A piece of fruit and plain yogurt is an
acceptable snack.
C. Eat a bigger lunch and do not snack.
D. Brush your teeth well after snacks
B. A piece of fruit and plain yogurt is an
acceptable snack.
An 8 year old patient with all primary
molars still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp
relationship of permanent maxillary and
mandibular first molars and good
alignment of the lower incisors. The
management of this patient should be to
A. refer for orthodontic consultation.
B. use a cervical headgear to reposition
maxillary molars.
C. disk the distal surfaces of primary
mandibular second molars.
D. place patient on appropriate recall
schedule.
D. place patient on appropriate recall
schedule.