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99 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Whats CONCEPTS are commonly known as the 6 "C"s? Utilized in a tactical incident (i.e. barricaded suspect).

1. Command


2. Contain


3. Control


4. Communicate


5. Coordinate


6. Contingency



**CRITIQUE is equally important and shall be performed at the conclusion of any tactical incident.

When a deputy collision occurs in another stations area, a supervisor assigned to that area (or nearest station supervisor) will be responsible for the investigation and will forward the supervisor's report and comprehensive memo to who?

To the deputy's concerned unit commander for final disposition.


** If collision is in another agency's area or county area, that agency's traffic unit writes the traffic collision report.

Who is notified if a deputy accidentally/unintentionally discharges his firearm (2 notifications)? AND, who gets notified if someone is struck?

1.Watch Commander (who SHALL respond to the accidental/unintentional shooting location. On INTENTIONAL shootings, UC SHALL respond, NOT WC)


2. IAB


**and HOMICIDE IF SOMEONE IS STRUCK.



**2020 MPP 3-10/110.00

When a deputy LACKS LEGAL STANDING, any force used thereafter is likely to be deemed what?

IMPROPER or NO GOOD


Deputy involved shooting of an animal, hit (4 notifications) OR miss (2 notifications), who gets notified?

1. Watch Commander


2. IAB


3. Risk Management Bureau-Civil Lit (IF HIT)


4. Animal control (IF HIT)



** Deputy writes detailed memo to UC

CONSULAR OFFICIALS can ONLY be arrested for?

Felonies AND only with a warrant.



**2020 MPP 4-07/018.00

What court case determines whether force is UNREASONABLE ?

Graham V. Connor (1989)



**Unreasonable use of force is PROHIBITED

The definition of custodial personnel refers to what rank?

Deputy, correctional officer, patrol persons or other equivolent, who's duties include the supervision of inmates.



**All custodial personnel UNDER the rank of Bonus Dep.

The definition of a "jail," refers to what type (I, II, III, IV ??) of facility?

Type II or III

A "Law Enforcement Facility" means a building that MAY CONTAIN one (or a combination) of the following 3 types of jails?

1. Type I jail (96 hr detention)


2. Temporary Holding facility (24 hr detention)


3. Lockup (locked room or secure enclosure, up to 12 hr detention)



**Does not include Type II or III jail.



**2020 T15 pg. 10

An evaluation of a mentally ill inmate, done by medical/mental health staff, shall be done within how many hours? Or at the next daily sick call, whichever is earliest.

24 hours



**2020 T15 pg. 30

A CUSTODY INMATE (bizarre behavior, threat to self or others), initially placed in a SAFETY CELL, shall be reviewed for CONTINUED DETENTION, how often?

Minimum of every 4 HOURS.



**2020 T15 pg. 31

A CUSTODY INMATE placed in a SAFETY CELL, SHALL have a MEDICAL ASSESSMENT completed within a MAXIMUM of how many hours?

12 hrs.



**2020 T15 pg. 31

A CUSTODY INMATE, placed in a SAFETY CELL (held longer than one day), SHALL be medically (NOT **mentally**) CLEARED (NOT ASSESSED), for CONTINUED retention/detention, how often?

Once, every 24 hours, until he is released. (For lengthy detentions)



**2020 T15 pg. 31

The CUSTODY FACILTY MANAGER (Captain) or MOST LIKELY, his DESIGNEE (Watch Commander of the Facility) SHALL obtain a **MENTAL** HEALTH EVALUATION on a CUSTODY INMATE who is detained in a Safety Cell (due to his dangerous behavior), within how many hours of the inmate being placed in the cell?

12 hours for Mental Evaluation



**2020 T15 pg. 31

A custody inmate placed in a SAFETY CELL, SHALL have **DIRECT VISUAL OBSERVATION**, how OFTEN?

At LEAST, Twice every 30 min.



**2020 T15 pg. 31

On custody inmates, RESTAINTS SHALL **ONLY** be used on inmates who display behavior which results in the destruction of property, or displays an intent to cause physical harm to ?

Self or others.



*Used only when other LESS RESTRICTIVE options fail.



**2020 T15 pg. 32

A restrained CUSTODY INMATE, who cannot be SAFELY removed from restraints (still a danger to self or others), shall be taken to a Medical Facility for evaluation after how many hours of remaining in restraints?

8 hours



**2020 T15 pg. 33

While a custody inmate is in RESTRAINTS (handcuffs, waist chains, safety chairs, NOT 3 OR 4 POINT), how often must he be visually observed?

Twice every 30 min.



**2020 T15 pg. 33


2020 CDM 7-03/000.10

A **custody inmate hearing** for violations of jail rules, shall be provided NO SOONER THAN how many hours AFTER the report has been submitted and the inmate informed of the charges?

24 hours.



**2020 T15 pg. 40

When a custody inmate violates jail rules, and a report is written regarding the violation, does the inmate get a copy of the report and/or separate written notice of the violation?

Yes he SHALL get a copy.



**2020 T15 pg. 40

A custody inmate discipline hearing (DRB) shall be ACTED ON (decided/adjudicated), no later than how many hours AFTER the inmate has been notified about the charges in writing?

72 hrs.



**2020 T15 pg. 40

Minors held in SECURE CUSTODY outside of a locked enclosure, shall not be secured to a stationary object for more than how many minutes?

30 Minutes



**While a minor is secured to a stationary object, staff personnel must maintain constant direct visual observation to assure the minors safety.



**2020 6-09/000.000


(T15 pg. 50, says start with 60 minutes, then every 30 minutes after that).

The ADVOCACY UNIT is the Sheriff Department's what?

Legal Advisor



**They provide legal advisement to: Case Review Committee, EFRC, ERRC, Equity Oversight Panel, and Improvement Needed Performance Evaluation Process.



**2020 MPP 2-04/010.15

CPA stands for?

Constitutional Policing Advisor

Possession of Marijuana, Transportation for sales 18+ ?


**Where 18-20 year olds are an Infraction, and 21+ is a Misdemeanor, but same HS code)

11360(a)(2) HS



**11360(a)(1) HS for UNDER 18 (transportation for sales) and INFRACTION



**2020 Ca. Law

True or false. Whenever a juvenile is detained or taken into custody by this department, a booking number shall be obtained?

False



**AS OF 111120, UPDATE TO POLICY SAYS JUVENILES HELD UNDER 300 WIC SECTIONS SHALL *NOT* HAVE A BOOKING NUMBER



**Must be obtained within 1 hour.



**2020 MPP 5-02/090.10

Following a pursuit, the watch commander shall ensure that the pursuit is de-briefed (can be done by the field Sgt. and later discussed with WC) and the WC then must complete what?

The Department Pursuit Evaluation Form


**Immediately submitted to the UC for review



**2020 MPP 5-09/210.30

CFRT stands for?



(They MONITOR the custody/facility supervisor as they conduct their force investigation).

Custody Force Response Team


**Comprised of ALL Sgt.s



**2020 CDM 7-07/010.00

A carotid restraint falls under what category of force?

Category 2 (IF admitted to hospital, then Cat 3)



**As of 060820, it can ONLY be used in a LIFE THREATENING incident....no longer used for assaultive/high risk (caused by George Floyd incident in MN.)


True or false. IAB ACTIVATION is required on Category 3, K-9 bites resulting in medical treatment?

False



**Only require NOTIFICATION to the on-call IAB Lieutenant (which he determines if there will be a roll out by the FSRT).



**2020 MPP 3-10/130.00

True or false. IAB FSRT ACTIVATION is REQUIRED when force is used and the suspect suffers a broken finger.

False



**A broken finger is only a IAB NOTIFICATION to the IAB on-call lieutenant (which he determines if a roll out is needed).



**2020 MPP 3-10/130.00

WCSCR must be completed within how many days?

30 calendar days



**2020 WCSCR Handbook pg. 7

Once a WCSCR package is completed within 30 calendar days (Unit Commander already reviewed), the unit's operations staff forwards the completed WCSCR package to who?

Division



**2020 WCSCR Handbook pg.7

True or false. It is a misdemeanor to knowingly lodge a false complaint against a police officer.

FALSE



**2005 9th Circuit and US Supreme Court ruled that 148.6(a)(1) PC Violated the 1st amendment and that the law was an unconstitutional infringement of free speech.



**2020 WCSCR Handbook pg. 10

In a WCSCR, a PERSONNEL complaint alleges misconduct against one or more ?

Employees



**Based on reasonable suspicion (determined by WC), if CRIMINAL conduct is alleged, the SCR shall be confidentially/immediately forwarded to the UC for him to determine if IAB involvement.



**2020 WCSCR Handbook pg.12

True or false. A WCSCR, where it is received as a SERVICE complaint, is a complaint against an EMPLOYEE.

False



**Service complaints are against GENERAL LASD policies/practices, NOT employees.



**2020 WCSCR Handbook pg. 13

In a WCSCR, can a complainant make both a personnel AND a service complaint at the same time?

Yes



**i.e. Driver complains of the deputy's rudeness during the traffic stop (personnel complaint), and the driver felt he should not have received a speeding ticket because he wasn't going more than 10 mph over the posted speed limit. (service complaint).



**2020 WCSCR Handbook pg. 13

When a WCSCR is started, who enters the SCR into the Preliminary Data Entry database, which automatically assigns the WCSCR sequential number?

Unit's OPERATIONS STAFF



**2020 WCSCR Handbook pg. 12

POE complaints are investigated by who?

Equity Investigations Unit of IAB



**2020 WCSCR Handbook pg. 17

In dealing with a civil disturbance or large scale disaster, an incident management team (IMT), made up of a designated commander, captain, and selected lieutenants and sergeants, will establish the ?

Incident Command Post (ICP).


***COMMANDER is in CHARGE OF IMT*** AND reports to Department Incident Commander (CHIEF).



**2020 EOP 4-4/030.00

A Watch Deputy "X" report, run at the END OF EACH SHIFT, is known as a ?

Read only report, for the WD cash register.



**X reports retained for a minimum of 3 years



**2020 FOD 04-001

What penal code gives you the authority to take a person to jail for failure to sign a promise to appear on a Misdemeanor (crime, not traffic) cite-out attempt?

853.6(i)(8) PC

On a traffic stop/citable violation, the driver refuses to sign the promise to appear on a traffic violation. A deputy has the authority to take the driver before a magistrate under what code?

40302(b) CVC



**When the person arrested refuses to give his or her written promise to appear in court.



**2020 Ca. CVC

Custody - Who provides medical AND mental health care services for inmates housed within the Los Angeles County Sheriffs Department jail facilities?

CHS-Correctional Health Services



**2020 CDM 2-00/050.00

True or false. In a custody EXTRACTION, the watch commander must ensure that a scribe has been assigned to document the course of events for the cell extraction?

True



**2020 CDM 07-01/050.00

In the event of a custody cell extraction, what shall be used as a guideline from the onset of the event?

The Watch Commander Extraction Checklist



**2020 CDM 07-01/050.00

Custody - If, during the inmate extraction process, the inmate decides to comply and exits WITHOUT force having to be used (only verbal commands/directions given), the incident SHALL be documented where?

e-LOTS - electronic Line Operations Tracking System



**Entered as "Inmate Extraction Averted"



**2020 CDM 07-01/050.00

An inmate complaint, while housed in the jail system, is known as a what?

An Inmate Grievance



True or false. Custody - Inmate grievances regarding medical/emergency, rape, staff, use of force, retaliation, harassment, and/or racial or identity profiling are subject to a **2 per week/or total of 4 per month** grievance LIMIT?

False


**That limit ONLY applies to NON-emergent grievances.



**2020 CDM 8-03/005.00

Custody - PREA stands for?

Prison Rape Elimination Act



**2020 CDM 8-03/005.00

Custody - Inmate grievances against staff, including allegations of retaliation or use of force, must be filed by an inmate within how many calendar days from the date of the incident?

30 calendar days



(PREA-NO grievance time limit). PREA-Prison Rape Elimination Act



**Non-Staff or Non-PREA, normal grievances shall be filed within 15 calendar days.



**2020 CDM 8-03/005.00

Custody - Inmate grievances shall be investigated, resolved, and responded to within how many calendar days from the date the grievance was received?

15 calendar days



**2020 CDM 8-03/005.00

True or false. The watch commander shall make an immediate verbal notification to the on call IAB lieutenant for any scene/incident where the sheriff's response team (SRT) is deployed (where SRT/SEB has been called in to assist).


**Worded weirdly, I believe the word "deployed" should read in policy as "needed"

True



**SRT is administratively assigned to Special Enforcement Bureau (SEB).



**2020 MPP 3-10/110.00

A CHP officer makes an arrest, books at Lancaster station, but fails to provide the PCD. The station WC (who is responsible for inmates/jail status), SHALL do the following:

1. Contact the CHP officer and determine the status of the PCD/judicial review.


2. If NO PCD is approved within 36 hours, release the inmate at the 48th hour of detention. (Because it is a non-sheriff department arrest, the duty commander does NOT need to be contacted/advised of the release).



**2020 MPP 5-03/005.50

At a patrol station, the watch sergeant and watch commander shall visually observe all inmates and conduct a visual inspection of the jail area, including the booking cells, how many times per shift?

At least TWICE per shift



*Logged in the Watch Commanders Log.



**2020 CDM 6-07/000.00

The JAIL INMATE WORKERS, SHALL be counted (NOT safety check of dormitory every 60 min) by the jailer, how often, EACH SHIFT?

At least ONCE per shift.



**2020 CDM 6-07/000.00

The station Jailer shall conduct a safety check of designated minimum security dormitory housing, inmate worker housing areas, how often?

At least once every 60 MINUTES



**2020 CDM 06-07/000.00

On a barricaded suspect, The AUTHORIZATION to 'send in' the SRT/SEB team MUST be made by THE **ON-SCENE** ?

INCIDENT COMMANDER


(SHALL BE the Capt. or Lt. assigned to SEB or the TEAM LEADER on scene if **IMMEDIATE** action is needed and the SEB Capt. or LT. is not on-scene yet).



**2020 MPP 5-06/110.70

True or False. A unit-level force package shall NOT be submitted on any force incident which is documented by IAB Force/Shooting Response Team personnel who have responded to the scene.

True



**2020 MPP 3-10/110.00

What notifications have to be made when media (video, photographs etc.) are **INVOLUNTARILY** SEIZED from the public versus SEIZED from the media?

In an INVOLUNTARY seizure from the public, a COMMANDER or higher SHALL be notified immediately TO APPROVE THE SEIZURE, and then hang on to the media until a search warrant can be obtained. When it is a seizure from the MEDIA, SIB SHALL be immediately notified on voluntary seizure (seizure and SIB notification documented in Sh-Ad-49).


If the media refuses to give up the media (UNLAWFUL TO FORCE *PRESS* TO TURN OVER MEDIA), advise your supervisor (no contact to SIB), INSTRUCT the member of the press to not destroy/delete the media, then assist in preparation of appropriate subpoena/warrant documents to obtain the press media.



**2020 MPP 5-04/020.30

The Executive Force Review Committee is comprised of who?

Three AREA Commanders, 1 of whom shall be designated as the chairperson by the Professional Standards Division CHIEF

True or false. The PIT (Pursuit Intervention Technique) maneuver may NOT be performed on a suspect vehicle if he is known to be armed with a firearm.

True



**Also CANNOT be performed when:


*Excess of 35 MPH


*Suspect vehicle is heavier


*Suspect vehicle has high center of gravity


*Suspect has known hazardous materials on board.



**2020 MPP 5-09/210.17

Search operations are classified and handled according to what?

Risk assessment



1. Highest risk (barricaded, automatic weapons/explosives etc.)


2. High risk (assault weapons, body armour or 3 HAZARDS: dog, cameras, handguns, 3x striker, alarms)


3. Moderate risk (1 or 2 HAZARDS from high risk)


4. Lower risk (having none of the hazards from high risk). Ex. Crime scene investigations or business record searches are lower risk



**2020 MPP 5-09/465.10


What are the four risk LEVELS (assessed) that determine search operations?

1. Highest risk


2. High risk


3. Moderate risk


4. Lower risk (yes "lower" not low)



**2020 MPP 5-09/465.10

*High risk* search operations require decisions be made by the INCIDENT COMMANDER of what rank?

Hard Sgt. or higher



*Highest risk* is hard LT. or higher



**2020 MPP 5-09/465.10

Supervisors (Incident Commanders-Lt. or Sgt. depending on the search warrant RISK ASSESSMENT) SHALL utilize the Search Warrant Preparation Checklist to assist them in making the determination whether or not to request a ?

TET (Personnel from SEB)



*Tactical Entry Team



These teams are assigned to conduct a search warrant entry and the expeditious clearing of locations, with the involved investigators providing backup and perimeter containment.



**2020 MPP 5-09/465.10

What is the definition of "high value" property?

Any money, narcotics, valuables (NOT vehicles or real estate), with an ESTIMATED value of 10K or more.



**2020 MPP 5-09/465.40



During a seizure of high value property (10K+), at a SECURE location with NO ONE PRESENT, may the receipt of seizure be left at the scene?

Yes



**2020 MPP 5-09/465.40

At the *initial* finding of high value property, 10K+, what shall the handling deputy IMMEDIATELY do?

Immediately request one deputy backup with the closest ETA, and also make notification to the field/team sergeant.



**2020 MPP 5-09/465.40

The maximum effective range of the FN303 against a point target is 50 meters (164 feet). The minimum standoff distance is ?

3 feet.



**The FN303 fires a .68 caliber fin stabilized projectile with a payload of .78 grams. There are two rounds authorized to be used with the FN303. The duty round, which is filled with O.C. (pava powder) and the inert powder round that may be used for training purposes



**2020 MPP 7-08/090.00

During an administrative investigation interview, NOT a WCSCR, if employees other than subjects, demand the right to tape record their interviews, they will be asked if it is their belief that they may be vulnerable to discipline as a result of the investigation. What do you do if the employee states that he feels his actions may expose them to discipline?

Terminate the interview and contact the concerned DIVISION CHIEF regarding possible subject status for the employee.



**Because of Admin Investigation, notification goes to Division Chief. If it were just a WCSCR, then that notification of possible SUBJECT classification would first go through the UC.



**2020 AIH pg. 2

What form is provided to all sworn/non-sworn employees PRIOR to an interview, who are under investigation for violating department policy and are subject to discipline.

The Administrative Rights (sworn/non-sworn) subject form



**2020 AIH pg. 2


2003 test question

What form is provided to all department member WITNESSES, prior to an ADMINISTRATIVE INVESTIGATION interview?

The Sworn/Non-Sworn Witness Form



*If the witness claims he may be a "subject," contact the *DIVISION CHIEF* regarding a possible "subject status" change. GO WITH DIVISION CHIEF for Administrative Investigation, and go with UC notification for "subject change" if just WCSCR (which does NOT require subject/witness admonitions).



*OTHER FLASHCARDS SAY TO NOTIFY IAB LT. BUT AIH pg. 2 clearly states DIVISION CHIEF!



**2020 AIH pg. 2

A representative is present during an interview at the request of a subject, in order to ensure compliance with the law and ?

Prevent abusive treatment of the subject.



**THE REP REALLY HAS NO POWER OTHER THAN HIS PRESENCE FOR SUPPORT.



Wrong answers are:


-Prevent answers to certain questions


-Object to questioning when needed



**2020 AIH pg.18-19


When dealing with NON-SWORN personnel, an investigation SHALL follow the procedures of the ?

Procedural Bill of Rights



**2020 IAB Brochure


Quote from brochure: "Although POBR only applies to full time peace officers, the department affords its professional staff many of the same rights."



**Although POBR says it only applies to sworn personnel, the 2003 test had this as an answer.



Other WRONG answers were:


-MPP


-IAB manual


-None of the above

If a complainant is uncooperative or insists on withdrawing the complaint (WC handling), who should be CONSULTED regarding inactivating the investigation. **Pay attention to "consulted"

Unit Commander



**BUT, if the test question asks who ONLY has the power to actually inactivate an investigation, the answer is the DIVISION CHIEF.



**2020 AIH pg.14

True or false. Outside agency police officers and employees shall be regarded the same as any other non-department complainant.

True



**2020 AIH pg. 15

Once the subject is given a written reprimand, and signs it, it is HELD at the unit for how many days before entering the document into the subjects personnel file or sending it to internal affairs?

10 days



**2020 AIH pg. 28

A supervisor with the perminent rank of ? shall make the decision to urine test a deputy based on reasonable suspicion when the employee is suspected of being under the influence of a narcotic or drug.

Captain or higher

A member relieved of duty may be RETURNED TO FULL DUTY on the authority of who?

DIVISION CHIEF **WITH the concurrence of the Sheriff OR Assistant Sheriff



**NO LONGER includes Undersheriff as of 2016 MPP update



**2020 MPP 3-04/020.10

Prior to making the decision to order a urine test (with reasonable suspicion FOR DRUGS), the UC (MUST be CAPT. or higher) should CONSULT with whom?

Area Commander



**Then, the On-Call IAB LT. is called. Two IAB investigators (Sgts) and the IAB LT. will respond to conduct the URINE test. After the test, IAB relieves the Deputy from duty (ROD).



2020 AIH pg. 39

Custody facility check, along with weapons, fire equipment and emergency equipment shall be checked by a LT., how often?

Weekly basis


(Different from a **security inspection** which is done once a month)



**Lt. to use a facility checklist (retained for 1 year)



**2020 CDM 3-06/020.00

It shall be the responsibility of a lieutenant to ensure that a facility security inspection (custody facility) shall be conducted at least how often?

Once per month



**Any inadequacy shall be remedied immediately.



**2020 CDM 3-06/060.00

It shall be the responsibility of a lieutenant to ensure that a facility security inspection is conducted at least once per ?

Month (Different from facility check that is done once per week by LT.)



**2020 CDM 3-06/060.00

Custody facility emergency preparedness drills shall be conducted how often?

Quarterly

How many custody inmate interviews shall a sergeant or senior conduct per month?

4 per month

Title 15 compliance reports are completed how often?

Quarterly

Watch commanders shall review the UDAL how often?

Weekly

A division wide body count shall be conducted when?

3am each morning??? SAW OTHER FLASHCARDS SAYING 1AM. ***Remember though, 1 count is done EACH shift, per 2020 policy ***



**2020 - COUNT TIME HAS BEEN ERASED/REDACTED IN MPP.

Extraction teams will consist of how many members?

9 to 11 members

Most cell extractions are categorized as calculated, and are considered what type of force?

Directed

Sworn members of JMET (Jail Mental Health Evaluation Team) are based out of ?


**3 Teams


North Team -ALL of PDC


South Team -TT/MCJ


CRDF Team-(1 team for females)

CCSB (Custody Compliance and Sustainability Bureau)



**JMET personnel report to the CCSB JMET Sgt.



**2020 CDM 7-02/030.00

Custody inmates are allowed to have how many photographs?

5 photgraphs

Custody correspondence privilege's shall not be restricted, unless the offense involved correspondence violations, and then no more than how many hours?

72 hours

A discipline diet shall be served how many times per day?

Twice (breakfast and dinner)

True or false. Absent a court order, inmates phone conversations will not be monitored.

True

If a member has the odor of an alcoholic beverage on their breath or there is reasonable suspicion to believe the member is under the influence of alcohol, who shall order a breath test of the member?

Unit Commander or higher



**2020 MPP 3-01/030.40

A low level use of force resulting in the fracture of the nose, fingers or toes, is what category?

Category 2



**2020 MPP 3-01/100.00