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300 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is a Stypman hearing used for |
a public request to validate impounds or storings of vehicles |
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Subject agrees to sit in back seat of patrol car while you run him for warrants. What type of contact? |
Consenual |
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Deputies shine a flashlight on subject, rush at him while telling him to "get your hands out your pockets", then ask if he is on parole or probation. What type of contact? |
Detention |
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Pursuant to 40302 CVC, how long can you keep a subject in custody to confirm his identity? |
2 hours |
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Foster care has custody of a child. Natural parents steal the child. Who has the handle? |
Station Detectives |
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You work Carson and recover a Lakewood stolen. What URN do you use? |
Lakewood original URN |
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A victim is forcibly raped. Who is immediately notified? |
Station Detectives |
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How many days must be worked in order to get an evaluation? |
10 |
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If an employee refuses to sign an evaluation, what must be done? |
Write "refused to sign" and sign and date it |
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If an adult missing person needs continuous medication, what type of missing are they? |
Critical (920C) |
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Which vehicle code section allows a vehicle to be impounded for hit and run? |
22655 CVC-Impound for evidence |
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When can a Deputy be ordered to submit a memo? |
Supervisory inquiry, before an A/I is started |
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A patrol unit is involved in a t/c in a contract city with serious property damage and injury. Who do you notify to handle? |
Traffic Services Detail |
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During a supervisory inquiry, a Deputy requests to obtain representation, what do you do? |
Allow it |
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Who do you contact to initiate an administrative investigation (A/I) that could lead to punishment more than a written reprimand? |
Unit Commander |
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After an earthquake, what is the primary job of a supervisor? |
All Deputies are accounted for, Roll call. |
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You believe a citizen possess a video recording containing evidence of a homicide, what do you do? |
Seize it. Allow the citizen to return to the station review the recording. |
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A self supporting unit generally comprised of personnel from a single station equipped with assets of that station is? |
Mobile Field Force |
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The smallest element of a single station which generally consists of 11 deputies and is commanded by a sergeant is a? |
Squad (ERT) |
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Who commands a Mobile Field Force? |
a Lieutenant |
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How many Field Booking Slips and Flex Cuffs are each deputy assigned to a Squad within the Mobile Field Force required to have? |
4 of each |
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Who outfits each Mobile Field Force with the required equipment? |
Station |
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What roster must accompany a Mobile Field Force when activated? |
Emergency Personnel Roster |
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What types of ammunition is required when deploying the Mobile Field Force? |
12 gauge #4 buck, 12 gauge rifled slugs, 9MM, and .223 rifle. |
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How many rounds of 9MM ammunition does the Mobile Field Force have upon deployment? |
700 rounds |
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Who investigates incidents of shots fired, use of force, and allegations of misconduct when it occurs within the Mobile Field Force? |
Mobile Field Force Commander, Lieutenant |
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Who completes the Mobile Field Force necessary reports, memos, and Supervisors Report of Special Operations Report? |
MFF Sergeant |
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How many traffic control posts can a Mobile Field Force provide? |
Maximum of 20 |
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The Mobile Field Force is augmented with two vans for prisoner transport, what is the make of the deputies assigned to the vehicles? |
Each van must consist of one male and one female deputy |
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Call signs for the Mobile Field Force shall be in what series? |
700 (ie. 726A PLM, 706A SCV) |
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A Mobile Field Force must be prepared to for deployment for how long without relief? |
12 hours |
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A Mobile Field Force may be deployed for _____ hours, if followed by 24 hours off? |
24 |
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What is the chain of command for a Mobile Field Force? |
MFF Commander (Lieutenant), MFF Sergeant, Squad Sergeant, Car Commander |
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What type of deputy may be provided to a Mobile Field Force by Emergency Services Detail? |
an Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) |
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When a Mobile Field Force is deployed, who rides in the car with the MFF Commander, Lieutenant? |
Rifleman and video deputy |
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When a Mobile Field Force is deployed, who rides with the MFF Sergeant? |
Rifleman/Driver, video person, and EMT |
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When a Mobile Field Force is deployed who wears the designation of one HORIZONTAL bar 1/2" wide and 3" long on the back of their helmet? |
Sergeant |
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When a Mobile Field Force is deployed who wears the designation of one VERTICAL bar 1/2" wide and 3" long on the back of their helmet? |
Lieutenant |
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Typically how many personnel make up a Mobile Field Force? |
56 |
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What actions may be included in response to storm related problems? |
Traffic direction, road closures, access control, rescue, evacuation, sheltering, and station/facility relocation. |
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What is the Penal Code section states that the access to effected areas should be limited to emergency personnel? |
409.5 PC |
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What is the initial role of Field Operations in the event of an earthquake? |
Disaster intelligence |
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After an earthquake, what are the four reports the WC is required to prepare and what are the time limits for preparation? |
(I) WC Initial Report-15 minutes; (R) Reconnaissance Report-30 minutes; (S) Station Status Report-45 minutes; (C) City Status Report-60 minutes. (IRSC;15,30,45,60) |
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The ________ Initial Report reflects the intensity and facility conditions observed? |
Watch Commanders |
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What form is used to communicate a quick visual report on the status of the services either provided by the city or through county contract? |
Reconnaissance report |
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The ________ report and the _________ report shall be completed for each contract city in the Watch Commanders station area? |
Reconnaissance/City Status |
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What report contains information that shall be supplied to the SCC upon their request? |
Watch Commanders initial report |
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Ordinance 2.68 establishes who as the Director of Emergency Operations? |
The Sheriff |
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When are Disaster Communications Service (DCS) personnel utilized? |
Whenever a station functions as an EOC of has a local emergency requiring supp communications |
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Emergency Operating Procedures are intended to provide supplemental information supporting the Department MPP and as such, carries the same force of order as does the_________? |
Manual of Policy and Procedures (MPP) |
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A Regional Station identified as a response station in a Tactical Alert has the responsibility for the allocation of what percentage of their combined field strength? |
50% |
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Is a local station listed on a Tactical Alert as an independent station? |
No |
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List four examples of events or situations that may require the issuance of a Tactical Alert |
Rock Concerts, Event where a large amount of people will be consuming alcohol, parades, any event we anticipate providing a significant departmental response |
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In preparing for events that require a Tactical Alert, a_________ assessment must be made and a plan developed. |
Threat |
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Who should units contact prior to writing any Operations Plan, for intelligence and/or historical information that may benefit the planning process |
EOB |
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Tactical Alerts must be broadcast to __________ via the JDIC system using the pneumonic "XASF" |
all Sheriff's Department Units |
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How many hours prior to an event should a Tactical Alert message be broadcast? |
No later than 72 hours prior to the event |
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When preparing a tactical alert, what unit will designate the appropriate stations to fulfill the request for personnel? |
EOB |
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It is __________ that an Operations Plan be developed for all Tactical Alerts |
Mandatory |
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If an event which warrants the issuance of a tactical alert is within the jurisdiction of another agency, who shall prepare a supplemental operations plan to the responsible agencies ops plan? |
the responsible Sheriff's Station |
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What does "Event Matrix" (which must be attached to each Ops plan) depict? |
Tasks, units assigned to accomplish each task, and the time the task should be accomplished |
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The Tactical Alert Ops Plan must be distributed to the units at least _______ hours prior to the planned event? |
72. Or as soon as possible for events that arise without prior notice |
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All operations plans shall be written in how many paragraph format? |
Five |
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What are the five paragraph headings for an operation plan? |
Situation, Mission, Concept of Operation, Execution, and Administrative Instructions |
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What should be in the Situation paragraph? |
The general situation causing the preparation of the ops plan |
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What should be in the Mission paragraph of an ops plan? |
The mission of the Department for the event |
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What should be in the Concept of Operations paragraph? |
The Incident Commanders's intent. This clearly states how the Incident Commander plans to accomplish the Departments (Units) mission. |
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What should be in the Execution paragraph of an ops plan? |
Used to make specific assignments to all units involved in the operation |
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What should be in the Administration Instructions paragraph? |
Administrative announcements that are necessary to make the operation successful |
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Where are the departments Emergency Operations Plans referenced? |
LASD MPP Volume 5, Chapter 6 |
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What is SEMS, and what is its purpose? |
"Standardized Emergency Management System". SEMS is a state mandated system developed to promote uniform management of emergency operations by the various disciplines involved during these operations. |
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What is Law Enforcement's responsibility regarding evacuations? |
Evacuation of all persons affected by hazardous situation and providing security for the affected area once it has been evacuated |
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What does the Emergency Operations Procedure define as a "hazardous situation"? |
A situation involving hazardous materials, fire, flood, earthquake, and other acts of God. |
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What is the Penal Code that gives Law Enforcement/Health Officials the authority to close or evacuate an area for public safety? |
409.5 PC |
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If a person refuses to leave an area closed or evacuated due to public safety, what charge should be used? |
148 PC (imminent danger or extreme interference)
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Authorized members of the _______, if properly credentialed are allowed to stay in areas that have been evacuated |
Media |
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Who "normally" makes the decision to evacuate an area? |
Fire Department Incident Commander or County Health Services Representative |
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Can the Law Enforcement Incident Commander order an area evacuated based on conflicting information? |
Yes |
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What is the policy of this Department regarding the decision to evacuate? |
Protect the health and safety of the community effected by the incident |
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If an evacuation takes place, who must be notified? |
EOB and the Red Cross |
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Who is responsible to know what resources are available during an incident? |
Incident Commander |
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What is the Local Emergency Alert System (EAS)? |
A local radio network for disseminating emergency information to the public via radio and TV stations |
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Who is the Administrator of the EAS ? |
The Sheriff, he is designated the "Director of Emergency Operations" for the county. |
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When should the Emergency Alert System be used? |
situations of such urgency that failure to interrupt regular programming to inform the public at once may result in injury, death, and property damage |
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Can an Emergency Alert System broadcast be generated at a Sheriff's Station? |
Yes, with the WC approval |
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Regarding evacuations, what is an "incident support agency"? |
Agencies that can provide additional support to the operation such as, CHP, Animal Control, and Red Cross |
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What is the responsibility of the Red Cross regarding evacuations? |
Mass Care of evacuees and management of evacuaction shelters |
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Whose responsibility is planning for transportation resources during an evacuation? |
Law Enforcement |
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Where can the Incident Commander find transportation resources for evacuations? |
Station's Emergency Resources and Logistical Guide |
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Who should be given special consideration regarding transportation during an evacuation? |
The elderly and disabled |
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What is the role of the County or City Department of Public Works? |
Provide traffic barricades, to close streets, and to provide signs to direct evacuees to evacuation shelters and routes |
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What is the role of CHP during evacuations? |
Traffic control on all freeways and roadways in unincorporated areas |
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Can CHP or CALTRANS close freeways on their own during an evacuation? |
No, only at the direction of the incident commander |
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If a hazardous material situation occurs on the freeway or unincorporated street, who is responsible for evacuations? |
The effected local law enforcement agency |
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Regarding Haz-Mat situation requiring evacuations, what is LACO Fire responsible for? |
Dispatch Haz-Mat personnel, monitor and assist in mutual response, declaring areas "safe" for evacuees to re-enter, obtain and supervise "clean-up" personnel |
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What is the Sheriff's Department Policy regarding allowing persons to re-enter areas evacuated for health reasons? |
NO Person shall be allowed to re-enter without the approval of the on scene Haz-Mat Official |
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Who shall be the Incident Commander at a Command Post? |
A representative from the government agency having the MOST responsibility for abating the incident |
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If both the Sheriff's and Fire Department have substantial responsibilities during an incident, what type of incident command system would be used? |
Unified Command |
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What is an Area Command Team (ACT) ? |
A team of personnel designed to remove the burden of managing extraordinary incidents from stations |
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When should an Are Command Team be considered for use? |
when the incident is particularly complex in nature, requires resources of more than one station, and is multi-jurisdictional or multi-discipline in nature |
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Can an Area Command Team be used to relieve the station of its duties not related to the incident? |
No |
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What are the components of an Emergency Operations Center that shall be housed in the Incident Command Post? |
The Incident Command, Operations, Intelligence, Finance, and Logistics |
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What is paramount in determining the location of an Incident Command Post? |
Health and Safety of the staff, not too close to the incident, size for additional resources |
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Name three methods Department personnel may advise the public of an evacuation order/warning? |
Media via Emergency Alert System, broadcast via radio car, and door to door |
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What is the "Red Zone"? |
An area contaminated by hazardous materials or inaccessible due to flood/fire. We do not enter the Red Zone. |
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What is the "Orange Zone"? |
An area that may be effected by haz-mat or flood/fire, but is safe to enter |
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What is the "Blue Zone"? |
An area safe to enter and will not normally be effected by a change in the incident. This is where the Command Post, Staging Areas, and Evacuation Centers may be located |
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Who maintains pre-identified incident Command Post, Staging Area, and Evacuation Shelter locations? |
The Station's Disaster Coordinator |
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After an area has been evacuated, what mission does law enforcement have in the protected area? |
Prevent unsuspecting public from entering the effected area. Prevent looting. Control re-entry operations |
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What is the Demobilization Plan? |
Documenting resources used to prevent the premature release of personnel from other units |
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Because of the sheer size of the operation during an Aircraft Disaster, who should be activated? |
Area Command Team (ACT) |
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Who has jurisdiction for recovery of survivors in the water during an aircraft crash incident? |
United States Coast Guard |
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Who has responsibility for all non-criminal fatal civilian aircraft crashes? |
National Transportation Safety Bureau (NTSB) |
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Who investigates civilian aircraft accidents to determine if Federal Aviation Laws and Regs were violated? |
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) |
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If it is determined criminal acts caused the aircraft to crash, who has investigative responsibility? |
Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI) |
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Military aircraft accidents are investigated by who? |
Military Authorities |
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What is the role of LASD Aero Bureau at aircraft crash sites? |
Establish liaison with Federal agencies and determine if state laws were violated |
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The Coast Guards recovery responsibilities stretch ____ miles from the shore line? |
3 |
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Which LASD unit assists Coast Guard with outer perimeter during rescue at sea operations? |
LASD Harbor Patrol |
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Who is responsible for releasing the names and identity of the deceased of aircraft accidents to next of kin and media? |
Coroner |
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Employee Support Services Bureau (ESSB) is required to conduct an after incident debriefing within ______ hours of the termination of the operation? |
72 |
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Who is the Incident Commander of aircraft accidents that occur in LASD jurisdiction? |
LASD Watch Commander of the station where the incident occurred |
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Who removes pieces of wreckage from a plane crash? |
National Transportation Safety Bureau (NTSB) |
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What Zone should the command post of an aircraft accident be located? |
Blue Zone |
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Who provides the command post of an aircraft accident? |
Emergency Operations Bureau (EOB) |
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What must be staffed immediately upon notification of an aircraft disaster in order to liaison with Red Cross, local utilities, and on site Command Post? |
Station Emergency Operations Center |
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Who must be notified in the event of an aircraft crash? |
SHB, EOB, SCC, ESSB, Aero, Homicide, Media Relations, and local City Officials |
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When is a peace officer prohibited from engaging in political activity? |
When on duty or in uniform |
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Can a peace officer be required to engage in political activity? |
No |
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Can a peace officer seek election to a school board district? |
Yes |
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Whenever a deputy is under investigation and subject to interrogation that could lead to punitive action, what conditions shall exist? |
Be at a reasonable hour. Deputy shall be given investigators name, rank, and command (Unit). Advised of the nature of the investigation. Be for a reasonable time. Shall not be subjected to offensive language or threats of punitive action. |
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Can the complete interrogation of a deputy be recorded? |
Yes |
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All questions directed to the deputy under interrogation shall be asked by no more than _____ investigators at one time? |
Two |
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Failure/Refusal to answer questions directly related to the investigation may result in? |
Punitive action |
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Is the deputy entitled to a transcribed copy of any notes made by the stenographer or to any reports or complaints made by investigators or other persons? |
Yes |
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If prior to or during the interrogation it is deemed the deputy may be charged criminally, he shall be immediately informed of what? |
Constitutional Rights (Miranda) |
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If a deputy refuses to cooperate during another agencies criminal investigation, what may he be charged with? |
Insubordination |
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No punitive action shall be taken against a deputy if the investigation is not completed within ______ year of the DISCOVERY of the allegation of misconduct? |
One |
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Name two exceptions to the one year statute of limitation for allegations of misconduct against a deputy? |
Subject to Criminal investigation or deputy waives in writing the time period |
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If discipline will be imposed as a result of an investigation, the deputy must be notified within _______ days of its decision |
30 |
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Prior to a document adverse to the interest of a deputy being placed in his personnel file, what must occur? |
The deputy must read and sign the document. If the deputy refuses to sign, that should be noted on the document and signed by the person initiating the document |
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How many days does a deputy have to file a written response to any adverse comment entered into his personnel file? |
30 |
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If a deputy finds material in his personnel file which he believes was mistakenly or unlawfully placed in his file, what may he do? |
Request in writing that the entry be corrected or removed |
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How many days does the department have to correct, remove, or deny the request by the deputy regarding a mistaken/unlawful entries to his personnel file? |
30 calendar days from the request |
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How must the department respond to a deputy if they refuse do remove/correct an entry to his personnel file? |
In writing, listing why. The response will be placed in the deputies file |
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When may a deputy's locker be searched? |
When he is present, with his consent, a search warrant, or when he has been notified |
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Who has jurisdiction over an alleged violation of the POBR by a deputy against the department? |
The Superior Court |
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Can a deputy refuse to take a polygraph test? |
Yes |
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Can the fact a deputy refused to take a polygraph test be used against him? |
No, including all criminal and admin investigations |
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Can a deputy be required, as a condition of employment, to consent to the use of his photo or identity in social media if he believes it would result in threat or harm to himself or family? |
No |
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Can a deputy be asked to disclose his, or his families, personal finances for purposes of a job assignment? |
Yes, if it tends to indicate a conflict of interest based on the nature of the assignment |
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Management shall provide at least one clipboard for union information at locations with a minimum of how many employees? |
10 |
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All non union related information must be approved by whom? |
A supervisor prior to posting |
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Who is the only person entitled to ask if an employee is the subject of a formal Departmental investigation for misconduct? |
The union president or his authorized representative |
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Can the Commander deny disclosure of any information regarding a personnel investigation? |
Yes, if he believes it will jeopardize the investigation of interfere |
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Can an employee who is under investigation enjoy the same overtime opportunities as other employee? |
Yes |
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Can an employee work overtime assignments with duties related to the matter the employee is being investigated? |
No |
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When conducting investigations, investigators are the direct representative of whom? |
The Sheriff |
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Who maintains the A/I manual and updates? |
IAB Lieutenant |
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The POBR does not apply to Whom? |
Non-sworn and Reserve Deputy's |
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Administrative rights forms are administered to who prior to an interview? |
"Subjects" and "Witnesses", sworn and non-sworn |
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Can a Department employee refuse to have their interview tape recorded? |
No |
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Can witnesses who are not members of the Department refuse to have their interview tape recorded? |
Yes |
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Who may tape record their own interview during an A/I? |
Subjects |
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Completed A/I should have a disposition sheet prepared and finalized within _______ days of the completion of the investigation? |
30. 20 for ROD employees |
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What part of the A/I is stored at the station/unit? |
None |
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Can personnel from other police agencies be investigated as subjects of an A/I? |
No, witnesses only |
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Are members of an outside agency entitled to representation during an interview? |
Only if permitted by their agency |
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Where does a deputy have a "reasonable expectation of privacy"? |
Desk, locker, briefcase, gym bag, or purse |
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Who must approve the use of a polygraph for sworn or non-sworn members during an investigation? |
Commander, office of the Undersheriff |
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Who MUST Immediately be notified in the event of an allegation of employee misconduct? |
The Watch Commander |
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If a supervisor believes that an employee committed misconduct that could result in discipline, should he conduct a supervisory inquiry? |
No |
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Punitive action is defined as what? |
Disciplinary action ranging from written reprimand to discharge |
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Which investigations MUST be handled by IAB and not unit level? |
If founded may result in discharge, POE, hostile work environment, domestic violence, and workplace violence |
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During a supervisory inquiry, if the matter involves potential criminal conduct who should the unit commander contact? |
ICIB |
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832.5 PC requires the Watch Commanders Service Comment Reports to be kept for how long? |
5 years |
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Who may seek the initiation of a criminal investigation? |
Unit Commander |
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In 148, 69, or 243(b) arrests who should be contacted to interview the suspect? |
Station Detectives |
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When should interviews of Department members be conducted? |
On duty |
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What is required for all completed administrative investigations (A/I) ? |
A disposition sheet |
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What two terms are synonymous when used in investigations? |
Exhibits and evidence |
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Subjects who are notified of pending suspension, reduction, or discharge discipline are entitled to a ________ hearing with the Division Chief? |
Skelly |
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What is the lowest form of discipline? |
Written reprimand |
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How many days does a subject have to respond to adverse comments including written reprimands? |
30 |
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What is the first document a subject receives after a founded investigation where the Department intends to impose discipline? |
Letter of intent |
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How many days does the subject have to respond to the letter of intent? |
10 business days |
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Can suspensions of 1 or 2 days include any regular days off? |
No |
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Who can discontinue a Departmental Investigation? |
Division Chief |
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What are two major concerns of investigators during a resignation? |
Should not be coerced, and should be recorded |
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What should be written on a resignation that is signed by a subject? |
"Accepted" |
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Who may rescind a resignation? |
the Sheriff |
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What two types of resignations are recognized by LA County Code? |
Written and Conduct |
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Does the Department except verbal resignations? |
No |
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Who should respond if a Department member is arrested? |
Watch Commander |
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Who must be notified if a "for cause" urine test is warranted? |
IAB on call Lieutenant |
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Are Civilian employees relieved of duty? |
No, they have no police powers |
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Who must be contacted prior to administering a urine test for drugs? |
Area Commander |
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What type of test is used to determine the presence of alcohol for Department personnel? |
Breath |
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Can Department personnel refuse a breath test for alcohol on duty? |
No |
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Can a Department member request representation prior to a breath test? |
Yes, but the test can be administered prior to the arrival of the rep |
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A prisoner must be permitted to make application for bail deviation within _____ hours of booking? |
8 |
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Who at the station will be contacted to verify inmates information when inmate applies for bail reduction? |
WC, WS, or jailer |
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If a deputy is apposed to a prisoner receiving bail or O.R. release, who must the deputy receive approval from? |
WC |
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How long are bail deviation forms maintained |
2 years |
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Who is responsible for reviewing the booking slip and signing the bail deviation form for each prisoner booked at the station who is not eligible for release on a citation? |
Watch Sergeant |
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What is the "Younblood Decision"? |
Requires defendant must be arraigned no later than the second court day following arrest |
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What days are excluded from the "Youngblood Decision"? |
Saturdays, Sundays, and Holidays |
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What must occur to all prisoners who have a communicable disease? |
Must be segregated |
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Where are inmates who must take medication transported to? |
IRC |
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What type of cell is used for the hosing of prisoners who are a threat to their own safety or others due to their state of intoxication? |
Sobering cell |
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Inmates housed in sobering cells shall be checked? |
No less than every half hour |
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Where are the sobering cell checks documented? |
On the back of the Intoxication Assessment Form |
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How shall inmates hosed in sobering cells be woke up? |
By shaking |
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In no case shall an inmate be held in a sobering cell over _______ hours without a re-evaluation by the jailer. |
6 |
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What must happen to an inmate prior to booking in a station jail if he received an injury? |
Must be medically cleared to book (ok to book) |
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Any inmate that is under the influence of PCP and is being booked directly into IRC the handling deputy must get approval from who? |
IRC Watch Sergeant |
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Can an inmate be deprived of their prosthetic or orthopedic device? |
Yes, with probable cause and WC approval |
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If an inmate has his prosthetic or orthopedic device taken, how soon must he be examined by a Dr.? |
Within 24 hours |
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If a female is held over 24 hours can she have access to birth control? |
Yes |
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If a female is held over 24 hours and requests to see her personal physician, can she? And if so, who pays for it? |
Yes she can and it is at her expense |
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Where are pregnant females who complain of complications transferred? |
LAC/USC |
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Where are medical diets provided? |
Twin Towers |
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An employee exposed to communicable disease must notify his supervisor and complete the paperwork within how many days? |
2 |
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Mental health screening will be performed on women who have given birth within _________ and are charged with 187 or A/187 of their infants |
Past year |
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Who is responsible for checking the food temperature and ensuring the food service workers are trained at the station? |
The jailer |
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What are the temperatures for food? Hot _____ degrees, Cold _______ degrees. |
140 and 41 |
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How is left over food stored at the station? |
Food is not stored it must be discarded |
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How many meals are inmates entitled to in 24 hours? |
3 |
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How many hot meals must inmates have? |
1 |
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If more than _____ hours pass between meals, supplemental food must be served |
14 |
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Any inmate missing a regularly scheduled meal must be provided a ________ and beverage? |
Sandwich |
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Inmates requiring special diets are transferred to what facilities? |
MCJ or TTCF |
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What is the minimum amount of time an inmate has to consume his food? |
30 minutes |
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What is the minimum age a minor can be held in a secure detention? |
14 |
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Any minor in temporary custody under the age of 14 or does not pose a safety/security risk shall be place where? |
Non-secure detention |
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Minors shall not be secured to a stationary object for more than how long? |
60 minutes, unless secure detention is warranted but not available |
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Who must approve a request to secure a minor to a stationary object? |
Supervisor |
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Any intoxicated minor or any minor known or suspected to have ingested any substance that could result in a medical emergency shall be what? |
Medically cleared (Ok to book) |
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Intoxicated minors shall be checked every ______ minutes until sober or release |
15 |
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When a deputy is ordered to return to work after the end of his shift, what is the minimum OT he will be paid? |
4 |
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If a deputy gets called in to start up to two hours early due to operational requirements, how is he compensated? |
Normal pay. It would be considered an early shift start and not a call back (Ordered back) |
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Which patrol station is exempt from the MTO requirement |
Avalon |
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Deputy's can be subject to a urine test _______ times a year |
Three |
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Failure to provide a urine sample within ____ hours may constitute a refusal |
3 |
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What is the ideal method if dealing with a grievance? |
The employee and supervisor handle the grievance informally |
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How many days from the occurrence of what a complaint is based does the employee have to discuss the matter with his supervisor or file a grievance? |
10 business days |
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After contacting the employee's supervisor when may the employee take the grievance to the second level supervisor or file a formal grievance? |
3 days if the supervisor does not respond, 5 days if the employee feels the response was unsatisfactory |
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If the employee did not receive a decision from the third level supervisor within five business days or was not satisfied with the response, what is the next step? |
The employee submits the grievance to the Division Chief within 10 days |
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What is the minimum time compensated for an On-Call Subpoena? |
2 hours including travel to court |
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What is the minimum time compensated for a Must Appear Subpoena? |
3 hours plus actual time in court over 2 hours, includes travel time and evidence pick-up |
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What is the compensation for DMV Telephonic Hearing? |
One hour of overtime or actual time spent beyond one hour |
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Time earned for court appearances or hearings will be credited in what increments? |
15 minutes |
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Does a deputy need to be step 8 to be appointed to a bonus position? |
No |
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What is a "Skelly" hearing? |
A hearing on proposed discipline before the discipline is imposed |
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What are the five "C's" ? |
Command Control Coordinate Communicate Contain (Critique) |
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When responding to a labor dispute who should deputy's consult with prior to enforcing trespassing provisions? |
Industrial Relations Detail |
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When a detective receives a request or court order for witness security or relocation, who must be notified? |
Major Crimes Bureau will handle, except Narco and Homicide |
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Who is responsible for next-of-kin notification with homicides, suicides, accidental, and natural deaths? |
Homicide Bureau |
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What is required on a Person Dead Apparent Natural Causes where the person has been seen by a Dr within the last 20 days and the Dr will sign the death certificate? |
No Report, Log Entry Only, Homicide Notified, WC Notified. |
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What is required on a Person Dead Natural Causes where the person has been seen by a Dr B/T 21-60 days? |
Person Dead Report (SH-R-49), Homicide Notified, WC Notified. Coroners case number will be obtained by Homicide later. |
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Incidents regarding labor disputes or strikes in the field shall be reported on what form? |
Labor Dispute Complaint Form (SH-CR-531) |
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After the Watch Sergeant reviews the labor dispute form shall send copies to who? |
Division Headquarters & NPD, Industrial Relations Detail |
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"Involuntary Missing" is defined as the abduction of a child under circumstances other than what? |
"Family Abduction" |
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What 5 things will classify a missing person/child as "At Risk" ? |
-Crime or Foul Play -In Need of Medical Attention -No Pattern of runaway or disappearing -Possible Parent Abduction -Mentally/Physically Impaired
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What is considered a "Critical Child Missing"? |
Any child 12 or younger, or any At Risk child |
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What Penal Code Section defines "Parent/Family Abduction" of a child? |
277 PC |
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How long can an incorrigible juvenile (601 WIC) be held in a secure facility to locate a parent/guardian? |
24 hours, but may be extended to 72 due to distance or difficulty locating |
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A Missing Person Report (SH-R-12) shall be taken ____________ when requested |
Immediately, including telephonic requests |
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How long does a deputy have to enter a Missing Person Report after it has been taken? |
One Hour |
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Department personnel responding to a missing/abducted child or person call shall complete the ___________________________ form and attach it to the report. |
"Deputy Checkoff List for Missing/Abducted Child/Person" form (SH-R-12A) |
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In order for an abduction to qualify for an AMBER Alert, all four of the following conditions must exist |
-A Confirmed Abduction -Victim is 17 or younger or have mental/physical disability -Imminent danger of bodily injury or death -Information is available that if disseminated to the public could assist in safe recovery
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Does a family abduction with license plate information and possible destination qualify for an AMBER alert when there is no threat to the health of the child? |
No |
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If there is any indication a kidnapping is for Ransom or Extortion uniformed deputy personnel _______ ______ be dispatched to the location |
Shall Not |
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Who must me notified in the event of a kidnapping for ransom or extortion? |
Station Detectives and Major Crimes Bureau |
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What is a "Phase 1" Child-Critical Missing? |
An attempt to locate any child under 12 years old or any age "at risk" |
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How long do field personnel conduct the "Phase 1" search? |
4 hours |
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Who takes functional supervision of the investigation in Phase 2 Critical Missing? |
Station Detectives |
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Who is the Primary Unit of assignment for Critical Missing Phase 3? |
Station Detectives with a designated officer of Lieutenant |
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When any female is taken into custody for 5150 WIC, she shall be transported to a psych hospital by? |
No Less Than TWO Deputies |
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If a patrol deputy deploys an AR-15 rifle in the field how is he required to document the deployment? |
MDC Log Entry |
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All centerfire semiautomatic handguns .25 caliber or larger shall be submitted the SSB/Firearms ID Section for test fire and entry into the _____ ______ _______ ______ ______ database |
National Integrated Ballistics Information Network (NIBIN) |
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True or False All Crime Related expended shell casings ,25 caliber or larger are submitted to SSB/Firearms ID Section for NIBIN entry? |
TRUE |
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Firearms in possession or control of a person detained for 5150 WIC shall be? |
Confiscated |
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When a person who was detained for a 72 hour obs, 5150 WIC, and firearms were confiscated, do they need a court release pursuant to 8103 WIC to get the firearms back? |
NO |
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It is the policy of this Department to perform all code 3 responses in accordance with applicable laws, utilizing red light and sounding a siren, as may be _______ ________, with due regard for the safety of all persons using the highway |
Reasonably Necessary |
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Code 3 operations initiated solely for the purpose of training is? |
Strictly Prohibited on Public Streets or any other area accessible to the public |
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Immunity from liability while conducting code 3 operations may only be in force when the vehicle is operated with what? |
Due Regard for the Safety of all Persons using the Highway. (Red Light and Siren when Reasonably Necessary) |
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Any doubt concerning emergency circumstances or questions of jurisdiction should be resolved by a deputy responding? |
Code 3 |
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In non-pursuit Code 3 operations vehicle speeds should not exceed? |
Reasonable and Prudent, within the restrictions imposed by 22350 CVC, Basic Speed Law. |
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What is "Code 9" |
Pre-Stop Coordination |
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When does a Code 9 turn into a pursuit? |
When the suspect makes any attempt to flee or avoid being detained |
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When preparing to conduct a Code 9 traffic stop, while closing the distance if a deputy needs to violate basic speed laws or other rules of the road, is it okay to use red lights and siren? |
Yes (MPP 5-09/205.00) |
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A pursuit MAY be initiated under what conditions? |
-Serious Felony -Confirmed GTA -Designated misdemeanor offenses |
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A deputy observes a 459 suspect of a warehouse, the suspect flees in a vehicle. Can the deputy initiate a pursuit? |
No. 1st degree burglary only |
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What are the Misdemeanor exceptions to initiate a pursuit? |
-Deputy or Reliable Wit observed suspect displaying 417 in assaultive manner
-Flagrantly reckless DUI
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A pursuit SHALL NOT be initiated or continued for? |
-An infraction or misdemeanor crime (except 417/Reckless DUI)
-Any crime Not a serious felony
-A Possible GTA |
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What are the "Keys to a Successful Conclusion of a Pursuit"? |
Proper self-discipline and sound professional judgement |
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Can a department vehicle without red lights and siren initiate a pursuit if they observe a 245? |
No. Under no circumstances shall a vehicle without red lights and siren initiate a pursuit |
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If a deputy initiates a pursuit of a known stolen vehicle and the suspect driver is driving reckless or at excessive speeds, the pursuit shall be? |
Terminated Immediately |
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pursuit speeds exceeding _____ MPH over the posted or prima facia speed would normally be considered unreasonable |
20 |
