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142 Cards in this Set

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contagious:

ability of an infectious disease to spread within a susceptible population by direct or indirect contact

infectious:

disease can be induced by transmission or innoculation of agent/organism

infectivity:

ability to cause infection in a susceptible host (minimum number of infectious particles)

pathogenicity:

ability of agent to induce disease (attack rate: proportion of individuals clinically affected after exposure)

virulence:

ability to induce severe disease or death

immunogenicity:

ability to induce immune response in host that can be protective in case of future exposure

what are means of horizontal transfer?

direct contact, oral, aerosol, vehicle borne, vector borne

what are means of vertical transfer?

trans-ovarial, in utero, colostral

endemic:


cluster:


epidemic:


pandemic:

Endemic: habitual presence of disease within area


cluster: a greater than expected group of cases in certain place and time


Epidemic: level of disease clearly in excess of expected


pandemic: world wide epidemic

what is the iceberg concept?

for one apparent clinically infected animal there are more subclinically infected that remain unseen


economic cost of subclinical disease usually exceeds clinical disease- strategic testing to assess prevalence

what are four misconceptions due to not understanding the iceberg phenomenon

considering only clinically ill animals, interpreting absence of clinical cases as absence of disease, presence of infection as indicating agent is cause of disease, decline of clinical cases over time as evidence that interventions were effective

what makes up the epidemiologic triad? What are examples of each?

agent factors (dose, virulence, toxicity), environmental factors (stocking density, movement b/w groups, housing), and host factors (intrinsic- age/genetics or extrinsic- vaccinated/intact/neutered)

what is R0?

mean # of secondary cases a typical case will cause in population with no immunity in absence of interventions


basic reproduction number

what is Ro of both sides?

what is Ro of both sides?

right Ro= 1, will persist in population at stable prevalence


left Ro=2, will increase in prevalence

what values of Ro indicate the outcome of a disease? What determines R0?

Ro<1 will die out


Ro=1 endemic


Ro>1 will spread


infectivity of the agent and likelihood of susceptible host encountering agent (amount shedding, stability in environment, number of susceptible animals)

what is C?

C= proportion of population not susceptible


1-C= proportion at risk


RoX(1-C)<1 disease can be erradicated

why does vaccination not equal immunization?

approved does not mean efficacious


passive immunity, immunocompromised, failure to booster vaccine

point source:


continuous common source:


propagating:

point source: animals are exposed to the same exposure over a limited, defined period of time (usually one incubation period)


continuous common source: exposure to the source is prolonged over an extended period of time


propagating: case of disease serves as a source of infection for subsequent cases (serve as a source for later cases)

what do the cases vs time look like for point source, continuous common source and propagating?

point source: rises rapidly, contains definite peak, followed by gradual decline


continuous common source: down slope of curve may be very sharp if source removed or gradual if exhausts itself


propagating: series of successively larger peaks

what are the specific objectives for outbreak investigation?

determine the cause, identify how exposed, determine extent, take corrective actions, recommend preventive actions

what are the steps for outbreak investigation?

Verify an outbreak is occurring•Gather info from responsible personnel •Establish a case definition•Examine healthy animals•Examine sick animals•Examine dead animals•Consider findings distinguishing casesand others•Develop hypotheses/ rule-outs•Analytical assessments•Reach tentative diagnosis/conclusion•Make recommendations for prevention infuture•Write up/disseminate for others?

biosecurity:


biocontainment:


biological risk management:

biosecurity: efforts, programs or interventions to exclude introduction (no impact on endemic)


biocontainment: measures that reduce the spread of disease on an operation & b/w


biological risk management: evaluation of risk and implementation to limit potential dz

what are approaches to disease control?

symptom- specific (moderate sensitivity, poor specificity), agent/disease specific (require microbiological confirmation), route of transmission (easily understood, applicable)

what are routes of transmission?

Aerosol: close contact of respiratory droplet


oral: consumption in feed, water or contaminated objects


direct contact: may require mucous membranes or wound to enter or may infect skin


fomite: inanimate object can transmit


vector borne: mechanical or biological

what are steps in BRM assessment?

risk perception (what is a threat), risk assessment (exposures via each route), risk management (risk assessment, short/long term), risk communication (input important, all parties)

how can you practice BRM in the veterinary clinic?

hospital layout, animal flow and housing, people flow, disinfection & maintenance (gross debris first), minimize zoonotic and nosocomial infections (wash, gloves), risk communication (clients and employees)

how can you practice BRM in shelter med?

similar to clinic (mix sick and healthy animals, nosocomial infection & zoonosis), more difficult by financial realities

how can you practice BRM in ambulatory practice?

clean vehicle and use client owned equipment, PPE, wash hands, healthy animals first, sick animals last, risk communication (farmers and employees)

direct zoonoses:


metazoonoses:


cyclozoonoses:


saprozoonoses:

direct: transmitted from infected host to a susceptible host by direct contact, fomite, mechanical vector (no changes of organism)


metazoonoses: agent multiples, develops or both in an invertebrate before transmission to a vertebrate host


cyclozoonoses: requires more than one vertebrate host but no invertebrate


saprozoonoses: requires non-animal development site or reservoir, such as food plants, soil or other organic material

direct:


indirect:


airborne:


horizontal:


vertical:

direct: immediate transfer


indirect: transmission by intervening factor


airborne:dissemination of infectious aerosols to suitable port of entry


horizontal: direct or indirect transmission from infected individual to susceptible individual


vertical: transmission from one generation to another

what is the organism and description of anthrax? what does sporulation require and what is the lethal dose?

bacillus anthracis- large, gram + non-motile rod, spores, poor nutrients and oxygen


lethal dose 2500 to 55000 spores

what are the human transmissions for anthrax and what processes do they involve?


what about animal transmission?

cutaneous: occupational (biting flies)


inhalation: occupational


gastrointestinal: undercooked meat


injection


usually ingestion of contaminated soil, feed or bone meal, flies other transmission

what are animal outbreaks associated with? what are the geographical distributions?

alkaline soil, drought-flood period in fall/summer


ND/SD & SW TX

what are the two virulence factors of anthrax?

capsule: poly D glutamic acid


exotoxins: protective antigen (binding sites for factors), lethal factor (macrophage lysis), edema factor (adenylate cyclase)

what are the three forms of illness caused by anthrax?

peracute: ruminants, rapid onset, sudden death, bloody discharge, incomplete rigor


acute: ruminants and equine, 1-3days, bleed from orfaces/ internal bleeding, abortions


subacute-chronic: swine dogs cats, pharyngeal and lingual edema, ventral edema, asphyxiation

how does anthrax present in equine and swine patients?

Equine: ingestion- death in 48hr, colic


insect bites: hot, painful, spreads= death


Swine: sudden death w/o symptoms, pharyngeal edema= asphxiation, ingestion of spores

what is the diagnosis and treatment of anthrax? Is there a prevention?

DO NOT OPEN CARCASS, sample peripheral blood (bandage and disinfect), penicillin and tetracyclines


REPORTABLE


sterne strain : live nonencapsulated spore vaccine, immunity in 7-10 days

when should anthrax be high on differential list?

high mortality rate in group of herbivores, sudden death with unclotted blood from orifices, localized edema

what are the three forms of anthrax in humans?

cutaneous- 3-5 days, pruritic papule, necrotic ulcer, central black eschar, severe edema


inhalation- 1-7days, initially nonspecific, second phase: severe respiratoy distress, mediastinal widening, die 24-36hrs, 75-90% fatality


GI- severe gastroenteritis, 2-5days, 25-75% fatality

how do you diagnose and treat anthrax in humans?

isolate in blood, skin or respiratory secretions


serology- rapid ELISA, 2004


nasal swabs as a screening tool


penicillin is the drug of choice, ciprofloxacin if resistant

what are prevention measures for anthrax in humans?

human vaccine- wool mill workers, vets, lab workers, military


wear protective clothing, quarantine area, REPORT


burn or bury carcass, decontaminate (quicklime for soil, 1:10 bleach)

what do TSE's have in common?

caused by infectious protein particle: altered endogenous protein and altered 3D conformation


transmissible: oral transmission, intracerebral inoculation, blood transfusions


spongiform lesions


encephalopathies NOT encephalitides: no inflammation


lymphoreticular system plays role


genetic component

what are the differences between TSEs

distribution of infectivity: scrapie widely distributed, CWD less widespread, BSE narrow tissue distribution


species barrier: ability to cause neurologic dz, pathognomonic lesions, detect PrPres, high for CWD and scrapie, minimal for BSE


strains will cause different lesions, digestion and blotting patterns and clinical features depending on species



what are barriers in place to prevent BSE in the US?

prevent dz from entering the country, prevent infectious material from entering cattle feed (amplification), detect infected cattle at slaughter, prevent potentially infectious material from entering food supply, stop eating beef

what animals are considered high risk for BSE surveillance program?

adult animals with neurological signs, downer cows, rabies-negative cattle, cattle dying on farms

what steps are taken to prevent infectious material from entering the food supple?

spinal cord can't be used in Advanced meat recovery (AMR), downer cattle banned from food supply, carcass held until results recieved, cannot use spinal cord, skull, etc in cattle >30mo, or distal ileum and tonsils in all cattle

what is the rendering rule and why was it made? what are issues with the rule?

exclude tissues from feeds "cattle material prohibited from animal feed"


extend people food restriction to animal feed


costly and encourages improper disposal of carcasses (scavengers increase risk of spread)

what is brucellosis? describe the morphology

chronic dz involving the reproductive tract of animals resulting in abortion/infertility


gram negative, aerobic coccobacilli, facultative intracellular

brucella abortus


brucella suis


brucella melitensis


brucella canis


brucella ovis

brucella abortus: cattle abortions


brucella suis: swine abortions


brucella melitensis: sheep and goats abortion brucella canis: dogs, abortion epididymitis brucella ovis: ram epididymitis rarely abortion

what is the pathogenesis of brucella?

enter through mucosa, replicate in lymphnodes, survive in macrophages (spread to other tissues- hemolymphatic, repro, udder, joints and bursa)

which of brucella abortus brucella suis brucella melitensis brucella canis and brucella ovis are zoonotic and what is the severity?

Zoonotic, most to least virulent: B. melitensis>> Brucella suis, B. abortus>>>>> B. canis


not zoonotic: B. ovis

what is the current cooperative program for brucellosis eradication?

surveillance (agglutination card), vaccination (RB51- attenuated strain, no reactive Abs for agglutination), indemity: pay for reactors

what is the US barrier to eradication?

endemic in Yellow stone national park wildlife and mexico, MT, ID, WY and TX free last 1-5yrs

how does WHO view the need for a human brucellosis vaccine?

most widespread of all zoonoses, toll on people and animal industry, development of human vaccine, animal control and surveillance as high priority

what are the signs of brucellosis in humans?

acute or insidious onset of fever, night sweats, undue fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, headache, and arthralgia

what are long term affects of human brucellosis?

osteoarthritis, synovitis, endocarditis, CNS and genitourinary


relapse common- long term antibiotic treatment

what is the importance of unpasturized milk?

brucella transmitted through ingestion

what are signs of humans with leptospirosis?

2-29day incubation, biphasic


Acute: fever, myalgia, headache, chills, diarrhea


chronic: all signs above, uveitis, renal or hepatic failure, pulmonary hemorrhage (weil's dz)

how is leptospirosis transmitted to humans and animals?

direct: MM or abraded skin contact with urine, transplacental or venereal


indirect: contaminated water


humans: contaminated food or water, aerosol, skin abrasions

what are two important serovars in cattle and one in swine?

L. pomona and hardjo


L bratslavia - pigs

how do you treat leptospirosis in humans and animals?

dogs: penicillin followed by doxycycline for 2 wks


LA: tetracyclines


humans: tetracycline, doxycycline, amoxicillin

what are the variation in vaccines between people and animals?

killed whole cell bacterins


cattle: 5 way (C,G,H,I,P)


dogs: 2 way (C,I) 4 way (G&p)


no vaccine available for people except in china

what are occupations/situations that increase risk of dz?

farmers, mine workers, sewer workers, slaughterhouse workers, vets, fish handlers, military, slums (rats/poor hygiene)

what is the human and bovine etiologic agents for tuberculosis?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis: human


mycobacterium bovis


mycobacterium avium: humans with AIDS

where is TB globally? in US?

developing countries, texas, new mexico, california, minnesota, michigan

what are route of transmission for animals, humans and between both?

Animals: aerosol droplets from people/animals (inhaled- housed cattle and pasture cattle), ingestion: pastured cattle, large infective dose required


Humans: infected milk, bodily secretions from infected animals

what are the regulations in place for animal TB

caudal fold tuberculin test, comparative cervical test, INFy test, slaughter check: check for TB pathology with trace back

what are the necropsy findings of animals infected with TB?

tuberculous granulomas in any lymphnode, fibrous capsules, lung involvement

what is the organ involvement with the 3 zoonotic mycobacteriums?

m. tb: primary pulmonary involvement


M. bovis: tendency for extrapulmonary involvement


M. avium: opportunistic mycobacterial agent (AIDS)

what are the clinical signs and treatments for TB

cough fever malasie


Tx: rifampin, isoniazid fluoroquinolones

what is the etiologic agent, Hosts susceptible, Clinical signs, and Age ofsusceptibility of johne's

m. avium paratuberculosis, ruminants, chronic diarrhea and weight loss in animals over 2yrs

what are similarities b/w johne's and crohns?

chronic inflammatory bowel dz, may be caused bu M. paratuberculosis, potentially zoonotic

what is the etilogical agent for Q fever and the manifestation in animals?

coxiella burnetii, seen in cattle sheep and goats in found in placenta, milk and other reproductive discharges causes abortions, tick--> ruminant cycle

what are the clinical signs in man of Q fever? How is it transmitted and how often is disease apparent/inapparent?

Acute: febrile illness lasts 7-10 days, vomiting


Chronic: endocarditis, hepatitis


tick, inhalation, ingestion-- 60% asymptomatic, 2-5% acute


LOW DOSE AEROSOLIZED- 1 organism, incubate 3-30d

what are the drug choices in humans? is there a vaccine available?

18-36mo of doxycycline, no vaccine in US

what is the etiologic agent of the plague?

yersinia pestis

Which disease form (s) is/are most common? Which disease form most commonly associated with higher mortality? what is the difference between primary and secondary pneumonic?

bubonic: 80-90% of cases, fever, malaise, chills, headache, bubo (painful lymphnodes) untreated 50-60% mortality


septicemic: systemic spread, bubonic plus prostration, shock, DIC, necrosis of extremities, untreated mortality: 100%


pneumonic: primary: inhaled, secondary: septicemic form spreads, fever, chills, headache, respiratory distress, hemoptysis

what are the typical reservoirs and areas of geographical significance?

southwest: N NM, S CO, N AZ, Cali


rock and ground squirrels, prairie dogs, mice, voles

what are transmissions and drugs used for tx:

flea bite, direct contact, aerosol


aminoglycosides, doxy/tetra, chloramphenicol NOT penicillins/cephalosporins

Describe some aspects of the disease in wildlife. Know the two epidemiologic cycles. What is the chief US vector of plague?

most important vector: oropsylla montana, asia africa SA: xenopsylla cheopis


sylvatic (wild- greatest human threat): enzootic- slow death rate, changes host= large die offs (epizootic)


urban (domestic): rapid die offs

Describe the animal species susceptibilities (or lack thereof), clinical presentations, etc. Know some key clinical signs of animal plague.

serologically positive: bears, bobcats, badgers, fox, skunks


rodents: most die off


farm animals and dogs: resistant to dz


cats: severe illness and die, transmit to humans via fleas, bite, scratch, pneumonic

what is the etiological organism for tularemia? what are the different biovars and their reservoirs?

francisella tularensis


A: more virulent, NA, rabbits, squirrels, ticks


B: less virulent, Eurasia NA, muskrats, mice, rats

what are the common transmissions to man? the infectious dose?

ingestion (large infectious dose), inhalation (small infectious dose), direct (skinning/necropsy)

where are common foci in the US?

central US, marthas vineyard (imported rabbits for hunting)

what are the 6 clinical syndromes seen? which is most common and which is most fatal?

ulceroglandular: most common, ulcerative lymphadenopathy


glandular: no ulcer, lymphadenopathy (75-80% cases)


oculoglandular: conjunctivitis, lymphadenopathy


oropharyngeal: pharyngitis, diarrhea, vomitting, tonsil pseudomembrane


typhoidal: acute, septicemia


pulmonary: inhalation, septicemia 30-60% fatal

what is the drug of choice in people?

streptomycin <1% mortality if treated


untreated <8% overall, typhoidal/pneumonic 30-60%

what animals is tularemia seen in and what are the signs?

wildlife: usually found dead, hares easily caught


Sheep: lymphadenopathy, fever, dyspnea, diarrhea, rigid gait, outbreaks


cats: fever, apathy, ulcerated tongue/palate


dogs: fever, ocular/nasal discharge, abscess at site of infection

what lesions are found on necropsy for an animal with tularemia?

gray necrotic foci on lymph nodes , spleen and liver


thrombosis and infarcts of small blood vessels, enlarged/discolored spleen and liver

what is a metazoonoses and what is an example?

metazoonoses: require both vertebrates and invertebrates to complete transmission


WNV

what is the etiological agent for RMSF? What are the regions and vectors?

rickettsia rickettsii


NA, mexico, CA and SA


ticks- Dermacentor- east & central US, R. sanguineous in Arizona

what are the signs and treatment for RMSF? what can distinguish it from other diseases (erhlichia, lyme)?

fever, headache, anorexia, vasculitis (rash), kidney failure, CNS (fatal), thrombocytopenia


history of tick bite


doxycycline


vasculitis, petchiae hemorrhage rash


erhlichia- leukopenia

what are the zoonotic ehrlichia

ehrlichia chaffeensis


E. ewingii


Anaplasma phagocytophilum


neorickettsia sennetsu


E. canis (RARELY)

what is the erhlichia that infects monocytes?


granulocytes? what are the vectors, geography, and drug choice for both?

E. chaffeensis: human monocytic erhlichiosis, lone star tick, mississippi & south, doxy


E. ewingii/ A. phagocytophilum: human granulocytic erhlichiosis, lone start/ixodes, missouri, NE/ NC US, Doxy

what are the signs and symptoms of human erhlichiosis?

tick bite, elevated liver enzymes, thrombocytopenia, LEUKOPENIA

what is the etiologic agent, vector and reservoir for typhus?

Epidemic: Rickettsia prowazekii, lice are vector, humans and flying squirrels are reservoir


endemic: murine typhus, rickettsia typhi, vector- fleas reservoir- rodents

what are the clinical signs in man? what is the mortality with and without treatment?

high fever, chills, headache, cough, severe myalgia (Coma) Rash after one week of onset on upper trunk which spreads to the entire body but face, palms and soles


doxycycline, vaccine (not commercially available)


1-20% fatality w/ antibiotics, up to 100% without

what is the etiologic agent of cat scratch disease? which type of cat is most likely to be infected?

bartonella henselae, kitten, stray/shelter, fleas, multicats

what are the symptoms in humans?

immunocompromised: bacillary angiomatosis, bacillary peliosis, bacteremia


immunocompetent: benign- papule, fever, lymphadenopathy, fatigue. more severe: liver/spleen, neurologic, lymphatic, skeletal

what is bacillary angiomatosis?

tumor like lesions on skin that are not neoplastic


peliosis hepatis: lesions on the liver

How frequent are asymptomatic human infections? How severe? To what extent? Are most human symptomatic infections? Immunocompromised?

???????

what are the signs/symptoms of lyme disease?

early local: skin is initial target- erythema migrans 7-14d after bite, with fever, myalgia, headache, malaise


early disseminated: multiple EM lesions, conjunctivitis, meningitis, encephalitis, (CNVII), AV block, arthralgias involves knees


late: mo to yrs after infection, joints or CNS

what is erythema migrans? what is the treatment for lyme disease?

initial target sign rash seen with early lyme dz, penicillins and tetracyclines

where is lyme disease predominately seen in the US? what is the vector and etiologic agent?

northeast, midwest, west


ixodes scapularis, burelia burgdorferi


white footed mouse reservoir

what is chronic disease related to lyme?

not generally accepted, no medical proof but medicine works (pain management)

what is the etiologic agent for psittcosis? what are the two forms of this organism and where are they found?

chlamydophila psittaci


elementary body: infectious, in environment


reticulate body: non-infectious

in what animals is psittacosis seen in? how is it shed? what are the signs?

psittacines, gulls, doves, pigeons, turkeys, ducks


healthy carriers: intermittent


disease: young, crowding


anorexia, yellow droppings, sinusitis, nervous signs (ataxia- pigeons, trembling- ducks)


ANY LETHARGIC BIRD

what is the means of psittacosis transmission to humans

inhalation: elementary body in droppings or feather dust


mouth to beak


direct contact (plumage)


no person to person

what are the clinical signs of psittacosis in humans? how do you confirm dz?

flu-like, throbocytopenia, encephalitis, jaundice, arthritis, lethargy, epistaxis, hepatitis


culture, IgM by MIF

what is the treatment? prognosis?

tetracyclines


1-5% fatality with tx


10-40% w/o tx

what makes MRSA resistant? what is the difference between hospital acquired or community acquired MRSA?

b-lactamase producing strains, alter penicillin binding protein


hospital acquired: invasive via hand contact with colonized or infected patients


community acquired: skin and soft tissue infection (NASAL, skin, perineal and other mucosal colonization)

where was MRSA first isolated? what species has it been found in?

milk cows with mastitis 1st


dogs, cats, horses, sheep, pigs

where do small animals acquire MRSA? Horses? which are zoonotic?

SA likely acquire from owners


equine found with both community and hospital isolates


transmission b/w horses (foal) and humans reported, none found for dogs to humans


PPE

what is the common name for dermatophytosis?


what are the etiologies and what are their sources?

ring worm!


microsporum canis: cats, dogs


M. equinum: horse


M. nanum: pigs, soil


t. mentagophytes: rodents


t. verrucosum: cows, sheep goats

what is the transmission, pathogenesis and treatment for dermatophytosis?

arthroconidia infective, keratolytic and keratophilic, hyphae invade stratum corneum


terbinafine, griseofulvin

what is the etiologic histoplasmosis? what forms are infective? what kind of zoonosis?

histoplasma capsulatum, microconidia and mycelial forms


saprozoonosis: inhalation from bird or bat droppings

what are the five clinical presentations of histoplasmosis?

1. asymptomatic


2. acute pulmonary histo (pericarditis)


3. chronic pulmonary histo


4. disseminate histoplas


5. mediastinal fibrosis, CNS, broncholithiasis

what are the controls and tx for histoplasma?

immunocompromised: antifungals


often not treated b/c asymptomatic


tree roosts, spelunking, and recently disturbed soils a risk

what is the common name, etiologic agent and transmission of sporotrichosis?

rose handlers dz, sporothrix schenckii, zoonotic from cats, scratches or abrasions

what are the three zoonotic streptococci? what are the clinical signs and transmission?

streptococcus suis: undercooked pork, occupational exposure, meningitis/sepsis


streptococcus iniae: fish and dolphin, immunocompromised people, sepsis, arthritis, endocarditis


streptococcus canis: most human occurrences non-zoonotic, elderly men who own dogs (distal leg ulcers and sepsis)

what are the veterinary erysipelas?

erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae: fish handlers dz or diamond skin dz in swine


human erysipelas: streptococcus pyogenes


erysipeloid: fish handlers dz, cutaneous infection of erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

what is the etiologic agent of cryptosporidium? what is the transmission and from who?

cryptosporidium parvum


aerosol (rare)


fecal oral, person<---->animal (holsteins> jerseys)


dogs and cats possible but minimally zoonotic


lakes pools splash parks, water supplies

what are the symptoms of cryptosporidiosis in man?

profuse, watery diarrhea, 1-12 days


acute self limiting gastroenteritis, can be asymptomatic in healthy patients or life threatening in immunosuppressed patient


nitazoxanide



what is the etiologic agent of toxoplasmosis? Who is the DH and IH? where is infection seen?

toxoplasma gondii DH: cats, intestinal and extraintestinal IH: warm blooded mammals, extraintestinal only



what are the modes of transmission for T gondii?

fecal oral (sporulated oocyst)


consumption of infected tissue (bradyzoites)


transplacental



what are the clinical signs of toxoplasmosis in humans? what are the affects depending on trimester? what about AIDS

clinical is rare- france, central america or women of childbearing age


congenital infections when infected during pregnancy


first: 80% severe


second: 30% severe


third: 70-90% subclinical


AID/immuno: death, encephalitis most common sign

what animals are susceptible?

domestic animals: serve as reservoir, sheep and goats (aborting), hogs, cattle (subclinical)


wild animals: source, black bears and WTD


marine mammals: encephalitis in sea otters

what is the etiologic agent of chagas? what areas is it prevalent? what is the transmission?

trypanosoma cruzi, south>central>>north america, southern US and Cali


triatomine (stercoarian) foodborne in milk, fruits, juices

which species are affected by chagas? what are the clinical signs in dogs?

opossums, armadillos, raccoons, coyotes, rats, mice, cats


dogs: acute phase- lymphadenopathy, diarrhea, acute myocarditis in 2-3wks post-infection


chronic phase- congestive heart failure, cardiac dilation, sudden death

what are the clinical signs and mortality of chagas in humans? treatment?

acute phase: parasitemic, most adults asymptomatic 5%


indeterminate phase: follow resolution of acute, non-parasitemic 5-8%, deaths in children, meningoencephalitis, myocarditis


chronic phase: year later, myocarditis, megaesophagus 20-30%, cause for progression unknown

what are the two species of taenia, who do they occur in and what is the infective stage? what is the disease concern?

taenia solium: pig to human (DH or IH), cysticerus, neurocystis sarcosis


taenia saginata: cow to human (DH), cysticercus, no dz

what are the two species of echinococcus, what is the infective stage, what part does humans play in life cycle and where is it found? who is the DH?

echinococcus granulosus: hydatid cyst, humans IH found in liver and lungs, dogs DH


echinococcus multilocularis: hydatid cyst, humans IH

what do the cycst look like for E. granulosus? where is it found in US? what is the treatment for cestodes?

large, won't fit on slide, diagnosed macroscopically


AZ, NM, Utah, Cali


praziquantel, pyrantel (horse) albendazole

what does disease of cestodes depend on?

depends on location, size, and invasiveness of larval form

what four genus and species of nematodes are zoonotic?

trichinella spiralis, baylisascaris procyonis, ancylostoma caninum, toxocara spp.

what is the disease cause, organism (where in the body is it found?), sources, and control of trichinellosis?

trichinella spiralis, larvae in muscle, grow and encyst. pork and bear meat, must cook meat thoroughly, cook garbage fed to hogs, improve production practices

what are the clinical signs and tx for trichinellosis?

GI, abdominal pain, larval migration through muscle tissue (periorbital and facial edema, eosinophilia) rarely life threatening


steroids and antiparasitics

what genus and species cause cutaneous larval migrans? what genus and species cause neural, ocular, visceral?

hookworms, ancylostoma caninum


baylisascaris procyonis and toxocara

what is the DH, transmission, and distribution of B procyonis?


how long does it take for eggs to become infective?

DH: raccoons


transmission: consumption of eggs


common in raccoons and widespread through US


require 2-4 to be infectious

what are clinical features of humans infected with b. procyonis? what is the treatment? how do you diagnose?




what are the risk factors?

asymptomatic, VLM, OLM, NLM


no treatment (antiparasitics), limited tests (biopsy) or clinical signs




children, pica, raccoon contact

what is the DH for t. canis/cati, transmission, and prevalence? what ascarids are humans an aberrant host for?

DH dogs/cats, transplacental, transmammary and environmental, 100% puppies


toxocara canis/cati, ascaris suum

what disease occurs in humans infected with toxocara?

Larva migrans: VLM, OLM, NLM


VLM: liver heart lungs muscle, most mild, eosinophilia (<3yrs age)


OLM: inflammation, retinal scarring, vision loss, unilateral, granulamatous lesion near retina


NLM: CNS, meningitis, encephalitis

what are diagnosis, treatments and control methods for toxocara?

Ab detection, clinical signs


antiparasitics, antiinflammatories


treat dogs/cats, hygiene, limit fecal contact