2010 Released Qs And Ans19

Front 1

A 9-year old has tooth 1.1 completely
erupted and tooth 2.1 is unerupted. The
radiographs reveal a palatally located
mesiodens. The preferred treatment would
be
A. observation and continued
monitoring.
B. allow the mesiodens to erupt into the
arch and then extract it.
C. extract the mesiodens and allow
passive eruption of the 2.1.
D. extract the mesiodens and
orthodontically extrude the 2.1.

Back 1

C. extract the mesiodens and allow
passive eruption of the 2.1.

Front 2

Which of the following periodontal
procedures is indicated on a maxillary
canine that will receive a full crown with
subgingival margins when the abutment
has 1mm of attached gingiva, no sign of
inflammation or loss of attachment?
A. Curettage and root planing.
B. Coronally positioned flap.
C. Localized gingivectomy.
D. Autogenous connective tissue graft.
E. There is no indication that this tooth
requires periodontal treatment.

Back 2

D. Autogenous connective tissue graft.

Front 3

Which of the following systemic diseases
does/do NOT predispose a patient to
periodontitis?
1. Cyclic neutropenia.
2. Diabetes mellitus.
3. Acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome.
4. Hereditary hypohydrotic ectodermal
dysplasia.

Back 3

4. Hereditary hypohydrotic ectodermal
dysplasia.

Front 4

A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a
patient with a 3mm anterior functional
shift should be taken with the patient in
A. maximum intercuspation.
B. initial contact.
C. normal rest position.
D. maximum opening.
E. protrusive position.

Back 4

B. initial contact.

Front 5

The features of aggressive (rapidly
progressive) periodontitis are
1. rapid attachment loss.
2. suspected periodontal microbial
pathogens.
3. onset before the age of 35.
4. ulcerations of the gingiva.

Back 5

1. rapid attachment loss.
2. suspected periodontal microbial
pathogens.
3. onset before the age of 35

Front 6

Physiologic (racial) pigmentation differs
from melanoma because melanoma
A. is macular.
B. contains melanin.
C. affects the gingiva.
D. undergoes clinical changes.

Back 6

D. undergoes clinical changes

Front 7

Aphthous ulcers are characterized by
1. pain.
2. pseudomembranes.
3. inflammation.
4. vesicle formation.

Back 7

1. pain.
2. pseudomembranes.
3. inflammation.

Front 8

A patient wants all his remaining teeth
extracted and dentures fabricated. He has
carious lesions involving the dentin on all
remaining teeth. The periodontium is
sound. The most appropriate management
is to
1. respect the patient's decision.
2. advise the patient to consult a
specialist.
3. discuss all of the appropriate
treatment options.
4. refuse to refer or to treat this patient
since it is unethical.

Back 8

1. respect the patient's decision.
2. advise the patient to consult a
specialist.
3. discuss all of the appropriate
treatment options.

Front 9

Which is the most appropriate
prophylactic antibiotic for a patient with
mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation
undergoing a surgical dental procedure?
A. Intravenous ampicillin.
B. Clindamycin per os.
C. Intravenous vancomycin.
D. Erythromycin per os.
E. Amoxicillin per os.

Back 9

E. Amoxicillin per os.

Front 10

Which articular disease most often
accompanies Sjögren’s syndrome?
A. Suppurative arthritis.
B. Rheumatoid arthritis.
C. Degenerative arthrosis.
D. Psoriatic arthritis.
E. Lupus arthritis.

Back 10

B. Rheumatoid arthritis.

Front 11

Which of the following is characteristic of
periapical cemental dysplasia?
A. Pain.
B. Expansion.
C. Biopsy is NOT usually necessary.
D. Requires endodontics or extraction.

Back 11

C. Biopsy is NOT usually necessary.

Front 12

The tooth preparation for a porcelain
veneer must have a
1. rough surface.
2. space for the veneer material.
3. margin at least 1mm supragingivally.
4. definite finish line.

Back 12

E. All of the above.

Front 13

The use of an etchant and bonding system
before insertion of a composite resin
restoration results in
1. improved retention of the restoration.
2. decreased marginal leakage.
3. reduced polymerization shrinkage
effect.
4. greater strength of the restoration.

Back 13

1. improved retention of the restoration.
2. decreased marginal leakage.
3. reduced polymerization shrinkage
effect.

Front 14

The outline form for a Class V composite
resin preparation is:
A. Extended 1mm subgingivally.
B. Determined by the extent of the
carious lesion.
C. Determined by the facial height of
contour.
D. Extended proximally to the line
angles of the tooth.

Back 14

B. Determined by the extent of the
carious lesion.

Front 15

Sensitivity related to a noncarious cervical
lesion is best explained by the
A. thermal conductivity of dentin.
B. hydrodynamic theory.
C. dentinogenesis process.
D. neurogate mechanism.
E. inorganic component of dentin.

Back 15

B. hydrodynamic theory.

Front 16

The following factors effect
polymerization of visible light cured
composite resins:
1. Shade.
2. Material thickness.
3. Proximity of light source.
4. Temperature of the material.

Back 16

1. Shade.
2. Material thickness.
3. Proximity of light source.

Front 17

Which statement is FALSE?
A. The early mercury toxic threshold
may be expressed in relation to the
quantity of mercury excreted in
urine.
B. The early signs of mercury
intoxication suggest that the most
sensitive organs are the central
nervous system and the kidney.
C. The early sign of mercury
intoxication may appear as urinary
mercury concentration reaches 50
microgrammes/gramme of creatinin.
D. The best way to appraise the risk to
the health of a person who has
amalgam restorations is to measure
the mercury vapors in his mouth.
E. The total contirbution of the
environment and amalgam
restorations to the urinary excretion
of mercury remains below 4
microgrammes/gramme of creatinin.

Back 17

D. The best way to appraise the risk to
the health of a person who has
amalgam restorations is to measure
the mercury vapors in his mouth.

Front 18

It is ethical to replace amalgam
restorations
1. on request from an informed patient.
2. to relieve symptoms of multiple
sclerosis.
3. in highly esthetic areas of the mouth.
4. to eliminate toxins from the patient

Back 18

1. on request from an informed patient.
3. in highly esthetic areas of the mouth.

Front 19

The predominant micro-organisms
associated with periodontitis are
A. gram-positive aerobes.
B. gram-negative aerobes.
C. gram-positive anaerobes.
D. gram-negative anaerobes.

Back 19

D. gram-negative anaerobes.

Front 20

Contamination with saliva during
placement of a zinc-containing amalgam
restoration results in:
A. No change in compressive strength.
B. Increased surface pitting.
C. Reduced flow.
D. Increased setting expansion.

Back 20

B. Increased surface pitting.

Front 21

The following conditions can be the result
of ill-fitting complete dentures.
1. Soft tissue hyperplasia.
2. Alveolar ridge resorption.
3. Angular cheilitis.
4. Carcinoma.

Back 21

E. All of the above.

Front 22

A healthy 78 year old patient presents with
three new carious lesions on root surfaces.
This is most likely the result of
A. age related changes in cementum
composition.
B. the architecture at the CEJ.
C. age related decrease in salivary flow.
D. changes in dietary pattern.
E. chronic periodontal disease.

Back 22

C. age related decrease in salivary flow.

Front 23

A patient with a tumor in the right
infratemporal fossa shows a significant
shift of the mandible to the right when
opening. Which nerve is involved?
A. Facial nerve VII.
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve IX.
C. Trigeminal nerve V.
D. Hypoglossal nerve XII.

Back 23

C. Trigeminal nerve V.

Front 24

Which two muscles are involved in
sucking?
A. Caninus and depressor angularis.
B. Risorius and buccinator.
C. Buccinator and orbicularis oris.
D. Levator labii superioris and
zygomaticus major.

Back 24

C. Buccinator and orbicularis oris.

Front 25

Following root planing, a patient
experiences thermal sensitivity. This pain
is associated with which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings.
C. Odontoblastic processes.
D. Cementoblasts.

Back 25

B. Free nerve endings.

Front 26

A 45 year old, overweight man reports that
his wife complains that he snores. The
initial management of the patient’s snoring
problem is to
A. fabricate an appliance to reduce
snoring.
B. fabricate restorations to increase the
patient’s vertical dimension of
occlusion.
C. refer for an orthognathic surgery
consultation.
D. refer for a sleep assessment.

Back 26

D. refer for a sleep assessment.

Front 27

The most appropriate treatment of
necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis (NUP)
in a patient with no fever and no
lymphadenopathy is
1. periodontal debridement.
2. antibiotic therapy.
3. oral hygiene instruction.
4. topical steroid therapy.

Back 27

1. periodontal debridement.
3. oral hygiene instruction.

Front 28

In periodontal therapy, “guided tissue
regeneration” is most successful in
treating
1. horizontal bone loss.
2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
3. a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation
involvement.

Back 28

2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation
involvement.

Front 29

The most likely cause of tooth loss
following a tunneling procedure to provide
complete access for a mandibular Class III
furcation involvement is
A. root caries.
B. root sensitivity.
C. pulpal involvement.
D. recurrent pocketing.

Back 29

A. root caries.

Front 30

The most common clinical characteristic/s
of a buccolingual functional crossbite
is/are
1. mandibular shift from initial contact
to maximum intercuspation.
2. asymmetrical arches.
3. midline deviation.
4. several missing teeth.

Back 30

1. mandibular shift from initial contact
to maximum intercuspation.
2. asymmetrical arches.
3. midline deviation.

Front 31

The difference between gingivitis and
periodontitis is
A. radiographic changes are present
only in gingivitis.
B. radiographic changes are present
only in periodontitis.
C. changes in gingival colour are
present only in gingivitis.
D. changes in gingival colour are
present only in periodontitis.

Back 31

B. radiographic changes are present
only in periodontitis.

Front 32

Which of the following cells are involved
in an immune response to plaque in the
periodontal pocket?
1. Macrophages.
2. Plasma cells.
3. Lymphocytes.
4. Neutrophils.

Back 32

E. All of the above.

Front 33

Gingival connective tissue fibres are
primarily composed of
A. collagen.
B. reticulin.
C. elastin.
D. oxytalin.

Back 33

A. collagen

Front 34

The predominant organism(s) associated
with chronic (adult) periodontitis is/are
The predominant organism(s) associated
with chronic (adult) periodontitis is/are
1. Prevotella intermedia.
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
3. Porphyromonas gingivalis.
4. Heliobacter pilori.

Back 34

1. Prevotella intermedia.
3. Porphyromonas gingivalis.

Front 35

For an otherwise healthy patient, with an
acute localized periodontal abscess, initial
treatment must include
A. scaling and root planing.
B. occlusal adjustment.
C. prescription of an antibiotic.
D. prescription of an analgesic.

Back 35

A. scaling and root planing.

Front 36

On bite-wing radiographs of adults under
the age of 30, the normal alveolar crest is
A. at the cementoenamel junction.
B. 1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel
junction.
C. 3-4mm apical to the cementoenamel
junction.
D. not clearly distinguishable.

Back 36

B. 1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel
junction.

Front 37

Continued smoking will impair wound
healing following a surgical procedure
because of
A. stain development.
B. increased rate of plaque formation.
C. increased rate of calculus formation.
D. contraction of peripheral blood
vessels.
E. superficial irritation to tissues by
smoke.

Back 37

D. contraction of peripheral blood
vessels.

Front 38

Which of the following structures may be
associated with the role of the central
nervous system in sleep (nocturnal)
bruxism?
A. Basal ganglia (nigrostriatal).
B. A delta and C nerves.
C. Sphenopalatine ganglion.
D. Petrous nerves.

Back 38

A. Basal ganglia (nigrostriatal).

Front 39

Which chemical mediator of inflammation
is blocked or reversed by a nonsteroidal
anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)?
A. Bradykinin.
B. Histamine.
C. Substance P.
D. Prostaglandin.

Back 39

D. Prostaglandin.

Front 40

Chewing “automatism” is dependent on
which mechanism?
A. Reflexes between jaw closing and
opening muscles.
B. Swallowing and respiration neuronal
activity.
C. Periodontal receptor stimulation.
D. Reticular formation neuronal
activity.

Back 40

D. Reticular formation neuronal
activity.

Front 41

Gingival hyperplasia may occur in patients
taking
1. cyclosporine.
2. nifedipine.
3. phenytoin.
4. carbamazepine.

Back 41

E. All of the above.

Front 42

Gingival recession at the buccal surface of
a tooth is most likely caused by
A. improper tooth brushing technique.
B. chronic bruxism.
C. improper flossing technique.
D. cigarette smoking.

Back 42

A. improper tooth brushing technique

Front 43

A 23 year old female complains of
bilateral stiffness and soreness in the
preauricular region. Her symptoms have
been present for the past week and are
most pronounced in the morning. The
most likely cause is
A. fibrous ankylosis of the
temporomandibular joints.
B. nocturnal bruxism.
C. early osteoarthritis.
D. mandibular subluxation.

Back 43

B. nocturnal bruxism.

Front 44

The most appropriate treatment of acute
necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis in a
patient with lymphadenopathy is
1. periodontal debridement.
2. occlusal adjustment.
3. oral hygiene instruction.
4. antibiotic therapy.

Back 44

E. All of the above.

Front 45

Which of the following statements applies
to the submandibular lymph nodes?
1. They discharge into the internal
jugular nodes.
2. When draining an area of acute
infection, they are enlarged,
nontender, soft, well defined and
movable.
3. They are found medially to the
mandible.
4. They drain the anterior palatine
pillar, soft palate, posterior third of
the tongue.

Back 45

1. They discharge into the internal
jugular nodes.
3. They are found medially to the
mandible.

Front 46

In children and adolescents, the long term
effects of rapid palatal expansion
(0.5mm/day) compared to slow palatal
expansion (0.5mm/week) are
A. more skeletal expansion and less
dental expansion.
B. greater stability.
C. no different.
D. less stable.
E. less skeletal expansion and more
dental expansion.

Back 46

C. no different

Front 47

In its classic form, serial extraction is best
applied to patients with Class I occlusions
with crowding of
A. less than 10mm in each of the upper
and lower arches and 35% overbite.
B. 10mm or more in each of the upper
and lower arches and 35% overbite.
C. less than 10mm in each of the upper
and lower arches and 70% overbite.
D. 10mm or more in each of the upper
and lower arches and 70% overbite.

Back 47

B. 10mm or more in each of the upper
and lower arches and 35% overbite.

Front 48

The best time to begin interceptive
orthodontic treatment for a patient with a
skeletal Class II malocclusion is
A. as soon as the malocclusion is
diagnosed.
B. immediately following complete
eruption of the deciduous dentition.
C. immediately following complete
eruption of the first permanent
molars.
D. several months prior to the prepubertal
growth spurt.
E. after skeletal maturity.

Back 48

D. several months prior to the prepubertal
growth spurt.

Front 49

A reciprocal clasp arm on a removable
partial denture will provide
1. resistance to horizontal force.
2. indirect retention.
3. stabilization.
4. direct retention.

Back 49

1. resistance to horizontal force.
3. stabilization.

Front 50

The maxillary cast partial denture major
connector design with the greatest
potential to cause speech problems is
A. a thick narrow major connector.
B. an anterior and a posterior bar.
C. a thin broad palatal strap.
D. narrow horseshoe shaped.

Back 50

A. a thick narrow major connector.