2010 Released Qs And Ans22

Front 1

Aging pulps show a relative increase in
1. fibrous elements.
2. cell numbers.
3. calcification.
4. vascularity.

Back 1

1. fibrous elements
3. calcification.

Front 2

Radiographs of a periodontally-related
osseous defect can be used to confirm the
A. number of bony walls.
B. measurement of the defect.
C. location of the epithelial attachment.
D. presence of a furcation involvement.

Back 2

D. presence of a furcation involvement.

Front 3

Healthy attached gingiva
A. has no basal cell layer.
B. is closely bound to underlying
periosteum.
C. contains elastic fibers.
D. has no rete pegs.

Back 3

B. is closely bound to underlying
periosteum

Front 4

The redness of inflamed gingiva is due to
A. the degree of keratinization.
B. subgingival deposits.
C. increased collagen fiber density.
D. increased vasodilation.

Back 4

D. increased vasodilation.

Front 5

Shortly after the administration of an
inferior alveolar nerve block, a healthy
adult patient rapidly develops a facial rash.
Which of the following signs and
symptoms should be watched for before
initiating the planned dental treatment?
1. Pallor and perspiration.
2. Shortness of breath.
3. Hyperventilation.
4. Edema of the lips.

Back 5

2. Shortness of breath.
4. Edema of the lips

Front 6

An unerupted supernumerary tooth
between the permanent maxillary central
incisors is commonly associated with
which of the following clinical
observations?
A. Dental diastema.
B. Hypertrophied labial frenum.
C. Delayed exfoliation of primary
maxillary lateral incisors.
D. Absence of permanent maxillary
lateral incisors.

Back 6

A. Dental diastema.

Front 7

Which of the following has analgesic,
antipyretic and anti-inflammatory effects?
A. Acetaminophen.
B. Acetylsalicylic acid.
C. Bradykinin.
D. Diazepam.

Back 7

B. Acetylsalicylic acid.

Front 8

After many caries free years a 78 year old
patient develops multiple root surface
caries. This is most likely the result of
A. changes in cementum composition.
B. exposure of the cementoenamel
junctions.
C. decreased salivary flow.
D. changes in dietary pattern.

Back 8

C. decreased salivary flow.

Front 9

The angle SNA can be used to evaluate the
A. maxillary protrusion.
B. overbite.
C. upper incisor inclination.
D. facial height.
E. mandibular angle.

Back 9

A. maxillary protrusion.

Front 10

A fracture in an all ceramic crown may be
caused by
1. inadequate ceramic thickness.
2. sharp line angles in the tooth
preparation.
3. excessive occlusal load.
4. use of an inappropriate luting
material.

Back 10

E. All of the above.

Front 11

Cephalosporin antibiotics
1. may be cross-allergenic with
penicillin.
2. have a narrower spectrum than
penicillin.
3. have a mechanism of action similar
to that of penicillin.
4. may cause cholestatic hepatitis

Back 11

1. may be cross-allergenic with
penicillin.
3. have a mechanism of action similar
to that of penicillin.

Front 12

A survey of the master cast shows that the
3.5 and 3.7 abutments for a fixed partial
denture have different paths of insertion
with respect to 3.7. A semi-precision
attachment is chosen rather than preparing
the teeth again. Where should the male
part of the attachment ideally be located?
A. Distal of the 3.5 retainer.
B. Distal of the 3.6 pontic.
C. Mesial of the 3.7 retainer.
D. Mesial of the 3.6 pontic.

Back 12

D. Mesial of the 3.6 pontic.

Front 13

What is the earliest age that the diagnosis
of a congenitally missing mandibular
second bicuspid can be confirmed?
A. 2 years.
B. 4 years.
C. 6 years.
D. 8 years.

Back 13

B. 4 years.

Front 14

A Bolton relationship has determined a
 maxillary “12” excess of 3.5mm
 maxillary “6” excess of 3.0mm
What effect(s) could this Bolton
relationship have on a Class I
malocclusion?
1. Deeper overbite.
2. Maxillary crowding.
3. Reduced overjet.
4. Increased overjet.

Back 14

2. Maxillary crowding.
4. Increased overjet.

Front 15

Which of the following conditions is the
most likely cause of a maxillary midline
diastema?
A. Mesiodens.
B. Space shortage.
C. Gemination.
D. Dens invaginatus.

Back 15

A. Mesiodens

Front 16

The normal growing mandible exhibits
which of the following characteristics?
A. Resorbs along the posterior rami.
B. Grows more vertically than
horizontally.
C. Has completed 100% of its growth
by age 13 in females.
D. Has latent post pubertal growth
potential.

Back 16

D. Has latent post pubertal growth
potential.

Front 17

Which patient would NOT be predisposed
to liver toxicity following a dose of
1,000mg of acetaminophen?
A. An adult with liver cirrhosis.
B. A chronic alcoholic.
C. A diabetic.
D. A 15kg, 4 year old child.

Back 17

C. A diabetic.

Front 18

The vibrating line of the palate is
1. always on the hard palate.
2. an area which marks the movement of
the soft palate.
3. easily located on a cast.
4. a useful landmark in complete denture
fabrication.

Back 18

2. an area which marks the movement of
the soft palate.
4. a useful landmark in complete denture
fabrication.

Front 19

A preparation for a porcelain fused to
metal crown with a porcelain butt joint
margin should have a
1. 90o cavosurface margin.
2. subgingival finish line.
3. 1.2mm shoulder.
4. 90o axiogingival angle.

Back 19

1. 90o cavosurface margin.
3. 1.2mm shoulder.

Front 20

Which of the following can be considered
to compensate for the lack of parallelism
between abutments when a severely tilted
second molar is to be included in a fixed
bridge?
1. Orthodontic uprighting of the second
molar.
2. Using a coping and telescopic crown
as the retainer on the second molar.
3. Including a non-ridge connector in the
fixed partial denture design.
4. Hemisecting the second molar.

Back 20

1. Orthodontic uprighting of the second
molar.
2. Using a coping and telescopic crown
as the retainer on the second molar.
3. Including a non-ridge connector in the
fixed partial denture design.

Front 21

Which of the following is/are essential
when using a spherical rather than an
admix alloy for a routine amalgam
restoration?
1. A larger diameter condenser tip.
2. An anatomical wedge.
3. A thinner matrix band.
4. A serrated condenser tip.

Back 21

1. A larger diameter condenser tip.
2. An anatomical wedge.
3. A thinner matrix band.

Front 22

Corticosteroids may be used for the
management of
1. allergy.
2. arthritis.
3. asthma.
4. Addison's disease.

Back 22

E. All of the above.

Front 23

Trauma from occlusion may
A. initiate marginal gingivitis.
B. affect the blood supply to gingiva.
C. initiate periodontitis.
D. affect the progression of
periodontitis.

Back 23

D. affect the progression of
periodontitis.

Front 24

If left untreated, a pyogenic granuloma
will most likely
A. shrink over time.
B. remain unchanged.
C. continue to enlarge.
D. burst and then heal.
E. burst, heal, but then recur.

Back 24

E. burst, heal, but then recur.

Front 25

All of the following are well documented
initiating factors of hairy tongue EXCEPT
A. candidiasis.
B. mouth rinses.
C. antibiotics.
D. systemic corticosteroids
(Prednisone).
E. radiotherapy to the head and neck.

Back 25

A. candidiasis.

Front 26

A patient with pain, fever and unilateral
parotid swelling following a general
anesthetic most likely has
A. Mumps.
B. sialolithiasis.
C. acute bacterial sialadenitis.
D. Sjögren’s syndrome.
E. sarcoidosis.

Back 26

C. acute bacterial sialadenitis.

Front 27

Which of the following diseases may
cause an enlargement of the jaws,
development of diastemas and/or a poorly
fitting denture?
A. Phantom bone disease.
B. Rickets.
C. Paget’s disease.
D. Osteoporosis.
E. Hypophosphatasia.

Back 27

C. Paget’s disease.

Front 28

Multiple well-defined multilocular
radiolucencies of the maxilla and mandible
in a 5 year old is most likely
A. ameloblastic fibromas.
B. ameloblastomas.
C. cherubism.
D. hyperthyroidism.
E. hypophosphatasia.

Back 28

C. cherubism.

Front 29

Multiple osteomas and supernumerary
teeth may be associated with
A. Gorlin’s syndrome.
B. Rubenstein – Taybi syndrome.
C. Gardner’s syndrome.
D. Cleidocranial dysplasia.
E. Ectodermal dysplasia.

Back 29

C. Gardner’s syndrome.

Front 30

The direct immunoflourescence pattern
seen in pemphigus vulgaris has been
described as
A. target-like.
B. chicken wire.
C. soap-bubble.
D. corrugated.
E. cotton wool.

Back 30

B. chicken wire.

Front 31

Overhangs on restorations predispose
1. enhanced plaque retention.
2. restricted plaque removal.
3. enhanced food retraction.
4. increased caries susceptibility.

Back 31

E. All of the above.

Front 32

Which of the following is NOT a risk
factor for periodontitis?
A. Smoking.
B. Poorly controlled diabetes.
C. Coronary heart disease.
D. Poor oral hygiene.

Back 32

C. Coronary heart disease.

Front 33

Periodontitis
1. develops from gingivitis.
2. goes through stages of activity and
remission.
3. is associated with bone loss.
4. is caused by occlusal trauma.

Back 33

1. develops from gingivitis.
2. goes through stages of activity and
remission.
3. is associated with bone loss.

Front 34

Clinical diagnosis of periodontitis requires
the presence of
1. bleeding upon probing.
2. loss of periodontal attachment.
3. a periodontal pocket.
4. tooth mobility.

Back 34

2. loss of periodontal attachment.
4. tooth mobility.

Front 35

The preparation of an anterior tooth for a
porcelain fused to metal crown should
provide
1. adequate length for retentionresistance.
2. space for a thickness of metal that will
resist deformation.
3. space for a thickness of porcelain that
will be esthetic.
4. a single path of insertion.

Back 35

E. All of the above.

Front 36

Epinephrine is used in the management of
an acute anaphylactic reaction (Type I
allergic reaction) because it
1. decreases heart rate.
2. relaxes bronchial muscles.
3. decreases systolic blood pressure.
4. produces vasoconstriction in many
vascular beds.

Back 36

2. relaxes bronchial muscles.
4. produces vasoconstriction in many
vascular beds.

Front 37

Amphetamines
1. increase mental alertness and
decrease fatigue.
2. are analeptics.
3. have no effect on psychomotor
activity.
4. are useful in controlling arrhythmias.

Back 37

1. increase mental alertness and
decrease fatigue.
2. are analeptics.
3. have no effect on psychomotor
activity.

Front 38

Properties of glutaraldehyde include
1. rapid formation of cross linkages
which limit penetration of pulp tissue.
2. minimal effect on pulp tissues.
3. excellent disinfection against oral
bacteria.
4. minimal effectiveness against viruses
and spores.

Back 38

1. rapid formation of cross linkages
which limit penetration of pulp tissue.
2. minimal effect on pulp tissues.
3. excellent disinfection against oral
bacteria.

Front 39

Which conditions are associated with
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
(AIDS)?
1. Acute marginal periodontitis.
2. Hairy leukoplakia.
3. Candidiasis.
4. Geographic tongue.

Back 39

1. Acute marginal periodontitis.
2. Hairy leukoplakia.
3. Candidiasis.

Front 40

After pulpotomy of a permanent central
incisor in an 8 year old child, the most
important clinical criterion/criteria of
success is/are
1. completion of root formation.
2. internal resorption.
3. dentin bridge formation.
4. formation of pulp stones.

Back 40

1. completion of root formation.
3. dentin bridge formation.

Front 41

Proper collimation of the useful beam for
the film size and target-film distance will
reduce
1. image definition.
2. secondary radiation.
3. radiographic contrast.
4. radiation received by patient.

Back 41

2. secondary radiation.
4. radiation received by patient.

Front 42

In x-ray equipment, kilovoltage controls
1. contrast.
2. speed of electrons.
3. penetrating power of radiation.
4. amount of radiation produced.

Back 42

1. contrast.
2. speed of electrons.
3. penetrating power of radiation.

Front 43

The amount of radiation to a patient can be
reduced by
1. using a high speed film.
2. using an aluminum filter.
3. increasing target-film distance.
4. using low kVp.

Back 43

1. using a high speed film.
2. using an aluminum filter.
3. increasing target-film distance.

Front 44

Which of the following may affect
probing depth measurements of a
periodontal pocket?
1. Probing force.
2. Diameter of the probe tip.
3. Angulation of the probe.
4. Subgingival calculus.

Back 44

E. All of the above.

Front 45

A Class II dental malocclusion in the
mixed dentition will likely
A. develop into a Class I malocclusion
with normal exfoliation of the
primary molars.
B. worsen with forward growth of the
maxilla.
C. develop into a Class I malocclusion
with late mandibular growth.
D. develop into a skeletal malocclusion
with growth of the maxilla and
mandible.
E. not change as the maxilla and
mandible grow.

Back 45

A. develop into a Class I malocclusion
with normal exfoliation of the
primary molars.

Front 46

The primary stimulus for growth of the
mandible is
1. genetic.
2. epigenetic.
3. functional.
4. environmental.

Back 46

1. genetic.
3. functional.

Front 47

Amalgam is condensed to
1. further break down the alloy
particles.
2. force the alloy particles together.
3. complete the trituration process.
4. express excess mercury content.

Back 47

2. force the alloy particles together.
4. express excess mercury content.

Front 48

For an acid-etched Class III composite
resin, the cavosurface margin of the cavity
can be bevelled to
A. eliminate the need for internal
retention.
B. improve convenience form.
C. aid in finishing.
D. increase the surface area for etching.

Back 48

D. increase the surface area for etching.

Front 49

In chronic gingivitis, the sulcular
epithelium
1. is a barrier to bacterial invasion.
2. is permeable to bacterial enzymes
and toxins.
3. may be ulcerated.
4. undergoes both degenerative and
proliferative changes.

Back 49

E. All of the above.

Front 50

The primary purpose(s) of relining a distal
extension base of a removable cast
framework partial denture is/are to
improve
1. fit of the framework.
2. occlusion.
3. function.
4. tissue adaptation.

Back 50

4. tissue adaptation