Many assumptions are made when it comes to Christianity. Is Jesus Christ human, divine, or both? How do we know the answer? Different people believe different things but there is proof in not only the Bible, but also many other sources that Jesus Christ is both fully human and fully divine. “In the beginning was the Word, the Word was with God, and the Word was God; He was with God in the beginning. Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made”, John 1:1-3 (2, pg. 965).
In the beginning, even before Heaven and Earth, the Word existed. He was not yet named Jesus or Christ, but was the only begotten Son of the Father. No matter how far back you push “the beginning” the Word is eternal. 600 hundred years before …show more content…
In Wilken’s book, he talks about Nestorius’ chaplain preaching in 428. The chaplain used the term theotokos which means God bearer in a sermon and then Nestorius used the term Christokos which means mother of God. In the third centur, mother of God was mentioned in the prayer: “To your protection, we flee, holy Mother of God. Do not despise our prayers and our needs, but deliver us from all dangers, glorious and blessed Virgin.” (5, pg.195). Not only is the mother of God mentioned in Wilkens book, but also many times in the Bible. Galatians 4:4 states that “But when the set time had fully come, God sent his Son, born of a women and born under the law” (2, pg. 1062). This means God had the perfect time set for His son who Mary had given birth to under the Jewish law to go and redeem those who believe in Christ (1, pg. 1976). John 1:14 says “The word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth” (2, pg. 965). Flesh is used to describe Christ as human but he performed miracles which showed his glory because only Jesus can die and be …show more content…
If Jesus has two natures, then how is he just one person? There is not a single place where Jesus uses ‘we’ when talking about himself, instead he uses I. His human nature would get hungry but his divine nature did not. How is that possible one may ask? It was just the humanity. Just like when Christ died, God did not die because he cannot die but the human nature can (Perman). The human nature of Christ did not know the day he would return but his divine nature does know. Jesus has experienced the pain of humanity therefore he can relate to us and be our sympathetic savior in our time of weakness. He has all of the same qualities as you and I that makes us human. He has the will, mind, emotions, body and soul just like any human in this world. In the Bible, Matthew 26:39 described Jesus as falling to his knees and praying to God because he was suffering (2, pg. 1642). In Luke 2:52, Jesus had to mature and grow in wisdom like any other boy (2, pg. 1706). To show Jesus has emotion, in John 11:33-35, Jesus sees Mary crying and then he starts to cry (1, pg.1789). Jesus was tempted to commit sin just like every other human being. When Jesus went to heaven, instead of ditching his human body, he kept it. It would make no sense for him to ditch his glorified body and so when our bodies transform to be like his, they will never die either. All Christians will
In the beginning, even before Heaven and Earth, the Word existed. He was not yet named Jesus or Christ, but was the only begotten Son of the Father. No matter how far back you push “the beginning” the Word is eternal. 600 hundred years before …show more content…
In Wilken’s book, he talks about Nestorius’ chaplain preaching in 428. The chaplain used the term theotokos which means God bearer in a sermon and then Nestorius used the term Christokos which means mother of God. In the third centur, mother of God was mentioned in the prayer: “To your protection, we flee, holy Mother of God. Do not despise our prayers and our needs, but deliver us from all dangers, glorious and blessed Virgin.” (5, pg.195). Not only is the mother of God mentioned in Wilkens book, but also many times in the Bible. Galatians 4:4 states that “But when the set time had fully come, God sent his Son, born of a women and born under the law” (2, pg. 1062). This means God had the perfect time set for His son who Mary had given birth to under the Jewish law to go and redeem those who believe in Christ (1, pg. 1976). John 1:14 says “The word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth” (2, pg. 965). Flesh is used to describe Christ as human but he performed miracles which showed his glory because only Jesus can die and be …show more content…
If Jesus has two natures, then how is he just one person? There is not a single place where Jesus uses ‘we’ when talking about himself, instead he uses I. His human nature would get hungry but his divine nature did not. How is that possible one may ask? It was just the humanity. Just like when Christ died, God did not die because he cannot die but the human nature can (Perman). The human nature of Christ did not know the day he would return but his divine nature does know. Jesus has experienced the pain of humanity therefore he can relate to us and be our sympathetic savior in our time of weakness. He has all of the same qualities as you and I that makes us human. He has the will, mind, emotions, body and soul just like any human in this world. In the Bible, Matthew 26:39 described Jesus as falling to his knees and praying to God because he was suffering (2, pg. 1642). In Luke 2:52, Jesus had to mature and grow in wisdom like any other boy (2, pg. 1706). To show Jesus has emotion, in John 11:33-35, Jesus sees Mary crying and then he starts to cry (1, pg.1789). Jesus was tempted to commit sin just like every other human being. When Jesus went to heaven, instead of ditching his human body, he kept it. It would make no sense for him to ditch his glorified body and so when our bodies transform to be like his, they will never die either. All Christians will