Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
211 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
T or F. The shoulder twitch or shoulder roll is considered to be a severe form of restraint.
|
false
|
|
|
What is the most likely response of a horse to a fearful situation?
|
run
|
|
|
Milk letdown requires which hormone?
|
oxytocin
|
|
|
Goats milk for how many days after kidding?
|
300
|
|
|
How would a dry cow best be described?
|
one that is not giving milk
|
|
|
T or F: US utility is a grade of meat used for pork chops.
|
false
|
|
|
T or F: Rambouillet sheep will breed out of season
|
true.
|
|
|
When placing a halter on a horse the first step is to place the lead rope where?
|
around the neck
|
|
|
What is the first step in restraining a foal?
|
Catch and restrain the mare.
|
|
|
Restraint of which part of the horse is the most important for control of the horse?
|
head
|
|
|
T or F: most pigs raised today are raised on open-range conditions or dry lots to promote muscle development and good fat ratios.
|
false
|
|
|
T or F; when stunning an animal in preparation for slaughter, the heart is stopped.
|
false
|
|
|
When restraining the legs of a foal in lateral recumbency, the restrainers should hold the foals legs:
|
just proximal to the carpus/tarsus
|
|
|
For milk to be classified as "Grade A" what cannot be detected in the milk?
|
antibiotics
|
|
|
Horses are primarily handled from which side?
|
left side.
|
|
|
T or F; when applying a twitch to the horse's nose, it is permissible to obstruct 1 or both nostrils if needed.
|
false
|
|
|
T or F; "Grade B" milk is used for drinking.
|
false
|
|
|
T or F: short day breeders breed during the spring.
|
false
|
|
|
what does blindfolding a pig result in?
|
the pig walking backwards
|
|
|
Is monoestrus a stage in the estrous cycle?
|
no
|
|
|
T or F: grasping a goat by the horns is never an acceptable form of head restraint.
|
false
|
|
|
T or F: hog snares may be used on animals as early as 1 week of age.
|
false
|
|
|
T or F: scrotal circumference is of importance when performing a reproductive examination in livestock.
|
true
|
|
|
Nose tongs may be used in the restraint of what ruminant species?
|
cattle
|
|
|
What species needs a fleet enema after birth?
|
foal
|
|
|
T or F: nose tongs with blunt tips should be used because they prevent tearing of the animal's nasal septum.
|
false
|
|
|
T or F: nose rings should not be used to tie an animal's head for restraint.
|
true.
|
|
|
When a ruminant must be placed in lateral recumbency for a procedure, what is the preferred position to minimize the risk of developing bloat?
|
right lateral recumbency
|
|
|
T or F; the tail may be safely used to move, lift, and support a recumbent bovine.
|
false
|
|
|
How is aggression the in goat usually expressed?
|
head butting
|
|
|
T or F: catching sheep by grabbing their wool can cause bruising and lacerations of the skin.
|
true.
|
|
|
Why is artificial insemination a good practice?
|
It decreases disease.
|
|
|
When sheep are frightened their most common response is to:
|
run away
|
|
|
When using an EPD, what number is considered the average?
|
1
|
|
|
The proper place to apply a hog snare or snubbing rope is:
|
around the upper jaw
|
|
|
Experienced large animal clinicians can detect the presence of a pregnancy in a mare by rectal palpation as early as:
|
18-21 days
|
|
|
Where is the most convenient location to assess skin turgor with the "pinch test"?
|
lateral aspect of the neck
|
|
|
T or F: ruminants, like horses, are not capable of breathing through the mouth.
|
false
|
|
|
The normal heart rate of an adult ovine at rest would be ____ beats per minute.
|
70-90
|
|
|
The normal range of heart rate for an adult horse at rest is:
|
28-44 BPM
|
|
|
When monitoring a patient's feed intake, it is more important to record:
|
Both the type and amount of food that is eaten as well as the type and amount that is not eaten.
|
|
|
T or F: it is not possible to improvise an effective "on the farm" isolation protocol for contagious cases that cannot be hospitalized; isolation protocols are only effective in a hospital/clinic setting.
|
true
|
|
|
T or F: After conclusion of any case, whether contagious or not, water and feed containers should be thoroughly disinfected before they are reused.
|
true
|
|
|
T or F: eructation is normal in ruminants.
|
true
|
|
|
What is the normal rectal temperature of an adult pig at rest?
|
101 - 103.5 F
|
|
|
A purplish discoloration of the gum line adjacent to the teeth "toxic line" is unique in horse and caused by what?
|
Endotoxemia/endotoxic shock
|
|
|
During a neurological examination, pinching or pricking the skin lightly with a blunt instrument to simulate twitching of the cutaneous muscles or the neck is referred to as what?
|
Panniculus response
|
|
|
A skin pinch test is performed on a horse and takes 8 seconds to retract to its original position. The patient is probably:
|
severely dehydrated..
|
|
|
The normal heart rate of an adult caprine at rest would be _____
|
70-90 bpm
|
|
|
When assessing the weight of a horse with a height/weight measuring tape, the tape should be placed _____
|
around the thorax, just caudal to the withers
|
|
|
Normal ruminants should have how many rumen contractions per minute?
|
1 to 2
|
|
|
T or F: the rectal examination allows the veterinarian to feel the entire abdomen and all of its contents.
|
false
|
|
|
The normal range or respiratory rate in an adult horse at rest in cool weather is ______
|
6 to 12
|
|
|
T or F: breathing air through the mouth is considered abnormal in horses; horses normally only breath through the nostrils.
|
true
|
|
|
The leading cause of death in neonatal foals is:
|
neonatal bacterial septicemia
|
|
|
T or F: waxing of the teast indcates an abnormal pregnancy: the fetus will likely be aborted with 24-48 hours.
|
false
|
|
|
What item is most useful when performing a thoracocentesis to prevent an iatrogenic pneumothorax?
|
three-way stopcock.
|
|
|
Foal heat diarrhea commonly occurs between ____ and ___ days of age.
|
5 and 10
|
|
|
What is a physical sign of a premature foal?
|
Floppy ear.
|
|
|
Lameness's are graded using the Lameness Severeity Grading Scale using which scoring system?
|
0-5
|
|
|
Typical signs of most uterine infections in the mare include:
|
No external signs, but failure to conceive or experiences early loss of embryo.
|
|
|
Are sterile preparations of the perineum and vulva required for a diagnostice ultrasound per rectum?
|
No.
|
|
|
The most common cause of colic in neonatal foals is:
|
Meconium impaction
|
|
|
The first priority immediately after deliver of a foal is?
|
Ensure a clear airway by clearing membranes and fluid from the nostrils.
|
|
|
A patnet urachus is normally expected to close within ___ hours after birth.
|
48
|
|
|
Name 4 signs of prematurity in the equine.
|
Floppy ears, small size/birth weight, silk-like hair coat, flexural limb deformity in all four limbs.
|
|
|
T or F: when performing or assisting nasogastric intubation, the safest position for personnel is to the side of the head and forequarters of the horse, to avoid being struck by the front legs.
|
true.
|
|
|
The aver length of gestation in the mare is ____ days.
|
330-345 days
|
|
|
Stage 2 of parturition (labor) should normally last:
|
20-30 minutes
|
|
|
T or F: foals with high levels of circulating antibodies will remain healthy, whereas foals with low levels of circulating antibodies will develop bacterial septicemia.
|
false
|
|
|
A horse that is used primarily for breed is properly called?
|
a broodmare
|
|
|
Endometrial biopsy is used for what procedure?
|
collect a tissue specimen for histopathology.
|
|
|
In a normal delivery, the soles of the forelimb hooves should be facing?
|
the ground
|
|
|
What method can be used to treat failure of transfer in a 2-day old foal?
|
Intravenous plasma transfusion.
|
|
|
When preparing an artifical vagina for use by a stallion, the optimal temperature inside the vagina (for the comfort of the stallion) should be approximately:
|
113 F
|
|
|
What method can detect pregnancy in the mare earlier than other methods?
|
diagnostic ultrasound per rectum
|
|
|
A normal foal usually nurses every:
|
1-2 hours
|
|
|
The equine placenta should normally be passed:
|
within 4-6 hours after delivery of the foal
|
|
|
What is performed on a horse during an exam to determine a postural reaction?
|
sway reaction
|
|
|
A foal will have ____deciduous teeth.
|
24
|
|
|
The most common procedure to treat dystocia in mares is:
|
mutation and traction
|
|
|
The most common cause of infertility in mares is:
|
uterine infection.
|
|
|
To most efftively neutralize the cranial-caudal motions of the joints of the lower leg, the supporting stuts in a splint should be place:
|
cranial and/or caudal aspects of the limb
|
|
|
The maxiumum volume of fluids that can be safely given though nasogastric intubation to most patients via a single dosing is approximately:
|
1 gallon
|
|
|
Injections in the coccygeal vein:
|
can be safely done with small volums of non-irritating subsances under the right circumstances.
|
|
|
The capacity of an average (1000lb) horse's stomach is:
|
4-5 gallons
|
|
|
Peritonela fluid is normally produced by:
|
perotineum tissue
|
|
|
According to the AVMA panel on Euthanasia, the preferred methhod of euthanasia for horses is:
|
IV injections barbituric acid derivatives
|
|
|
The safest way to administer enema fluids by:
|
gravity flow
|
|
|
The atlantooccipital space is easier to enter if the head and neck are in what position?
|
flexed ventrally
|
|
|
T or F: patients with limb casts should be hand-walked for a maximum of 5 minutes a day to encourage circulation inthe legs.
|
false
|
|
|
The best way to avoid accidential carotid artery injection when giving an IV jugular injection is to:
|
insert the needle alone (without the syringe) first; attach the syringe after confirming the needles proper location the jugular vein.
|
|
|
The "standard" position for an equine necropsy would be
|
left lateral recumbency
|
|
|
The standard location of lip tattoos in the horse is:
|
mucosal side of the upper lip
|
|
|
The standrad location for implantation of microchips in the horse is:
|
in the nuchal ligament (ligamentum nuchae)
|
|
|
After removal of a tracheostomy tube, the incision:
|
is left to heal by granualtion (second intention healing)
|
|
|
The softest, least reactive catheter material currently available for use in large animals would be:
|
silicone
|
|
|
T or F: neuromuscular blocking agents may be used in emergency situations for restraining an animals for euthanasia, but are absolutely condemmed for use as the actual euthanasia agent except under the most dire of curcumstances.
|
true
|
|
|
When sheet cotton is used for the padding layer in a distal limb bandage, what is the minimum number of sheets that should be used?
|
3
|
|
|
Several classes of drug can be used for caudal epidural anesthesia in horses. Which class of drug has the greatest risk of producing hindlimb ataxia and possible hindlimb collapse?
|
local anesthetics
|
|
|
The phase of general anesthesia that presents the greatest risk to a horse would be:
|
recovery
|
|
|
T or F; compartment syndrome occurs in recumbent horse under general anesthesia, but not in recumbent horses with neurological disease.
|
false
|
|
|
T or F: in In horses, IV fluid support during general anesthesia is recommended for any procedure lasting more than 1 hours.
|
true
|
|
|
T or F: Nasal turbinate edema in horses is potentially life-threatening and should be immediately treated.
|
true
|
|
|
All horses experience reduced respiratory function during general anesthesia. Which patient position produces the greatest compromise of respiratory function?
|
dorsal recumbency
|
|
|
Hypotension in a horse under general anesthesia is generally defined as a MAP below:
|
70mm Hg
|
|
|
T or F: Caslick surgery is performed on mares to prevent unwanted breeding by stallions
|
false
|
|
|
The purpose of "preloading" a large animal gas anesthetic circuit is:
|
To allow time for the rubber in the circuit to absorb anesthetic gas.
|
|
|
T or F: it is usually easier to define, drape, and maintain a sterile surgical field during standing surgery on a horse than during a surgery performed under general anesthesia.
|
false
|
|
|
The preferred location for administering caudal epidural anesthesia in the equine is:
|
first intercoccygeal space.
|
|
|
T or F: horses are commonly premedicated with atropine sulfate or glycopyrrolate prior to general anesthesia to reduce saliva production.
|
false
|
|
|
T or F: retained testicles are not usually removed because they usually atrophy and disappear completely within 1 year.
|
false
|
|
|
T or F: as a general rule of thumb, equine surgical procedures lasting longer than 1 hour should use inhalation anesthesia for the maintenance of general anesthesia rather than injectable drugs.
|
true.
|
|
|
After recovery from general anesthesia, what should be returned first to the patient?
|
Water
|
|
|
An adult equine undergoes a surgical procedure under general anesthesia. After an uneventful induction and first hour of maintenance inhalation anesthesia, the hear rate and respiratory rate begin to rise. The MAP also rises and the anesthetist observes nystagmus. This patient is most likely experiencing:
|
lightening of anesthetic depth.
|
|
|
T or F: ventilation of horses under general anesthesia may be improved by reducing the weight of the intestinal tract through preoperative fasting.
|
true
|
|
|
T or F: following routine equine castration surgery in which incisions are left open healing of the incisions is usually complete within 3-4 weeks after surgery.
|
true
|
|
|
T or F: passage of the stomach tube in ruminants may stimulate regurgitation.
|
true
|
|
|
Intramammary infusion is usually performed with the animal in what position?
|
standing
|
|
|
Blood samples drawn from the tail vein of cattle should be obtained:
|
Through the ventral aspect of the tail, in the proximal third of the tail.
|
|
|
Calves are normally delivered in which position?
|
Anterior presentation (head diving)
|
|
|
T or F: It is acceptable practice to give a drug via the SQ route to reduce the incidence of injection site blemishes even if the drug in not approved for SQ administration by the FDA.
|
false
|
|
|
T or F: signs of toxicity from local anesthetic drugs include increased urine production.
|
false
|
|
|
To desensitize both horns for dehorning surgery, how many total nerve blocks must be performed?
|
2
|
|
|
The primary risk associated with regurgitation in ruminants is:
|
aspiration of regurgitated material into the trachea and lungs
|
|
|
Which colostrum typically has the higher in IgG content?
|
Colostrum from beef=breed females.
|
|
|
T or F: The California Mastitis Test can ID the bacterial species responsible for causing mastitis.
|
false
|
|
|
Local anesthesia that does not provide analgesia for surgery through the flank:
|
Cornual nerve block
|
|
|
An animal that has had its horns removed is properly referred to as:
|
Dehorned
|
|
|
Prior to a standing sx procedure, a vet performs a proximal paravertebral block on the right side of the animal. Several minutes later, the animal is observed to have a lateral spine/body curvature (scoliosis) toward its right side. (body bowed with right side convex, left side concave) What is the appropriate course of action?
|
This is a normal and expected response to a proximal paravertebral block; no action is necessary.
|
|
|
Gestation in the cow is:
|
283 days
|
|
|
A client calls with a concern about a cow giving birth. The cow entered stage 2 of labor and has been straining for 90 minutes without delivering the fetus. What is the proper course of action?
|
Straining to deliver for 90 minutes without delivering the fetus is cause for concern. The delivery should be treated as a dystocia, and a vet should immediately be consulted.
|
|
|
What is a desirable respiration rate for a ruminant under general anesthesia?
|
20-40 breaths per minute.
|
|
|
Bacteria are most likely to gain entrance to the udder:
|
through the streak canal just after milking.
|
|
|
T or F: one advantage of intramammary antibiotic infusions is that there is no withdrawal time for clearance of drug residues from the animal's milk.
|
false.
|
|
|
Abdominocentesis is performed though which area?
|
Right ventral abdominal wall.
|
|
|
T of F: Ruminants may spontaneously regurgitate when they are heavily sedated.
|
true
|
|
|
T or F: Electroejaculation is the most commonly used method for semen collection in sheep.
|
true.
|
|
|
Aggression in goats is usually expressed by:
|
head butting
|
|
|
What is facing?
|
Sharing the wool from the eyes in breed with facial wool.
|
|
|
Which IM injection sites is usually avoided in show goats?
|
Longissimus muscles
|
|
|
In sheep and goats, treatment for retained placenta is usually not necessary until how many hours after parturition.
|
12
|
|
|
When performing respiratory resuscitation on lambs or kids, what should the rate be?
|
20bpm
|
|
|
A castrated male sheep is called a:
|
Wether
|
|
|
The average estrous cycle frequency in goats is:
|
22 days.
|
|
|
Diarrhea within the first few days of a lamb's life is usually caused by:
|
Escherichia coli.
|
|
|
A male goat is called a:
|
buck
|
|
|
T or F: grasping a goat by the horns is never an acceptable form of head restraint.
|
false
|
|
|
The most common location of venous sampling in caprine and ovine is:
|
jugular vein
|
|
|
A castrated male goat is called:
|
Wether
|
|
|
On average, how long are goats in estrus?
|
2-3 days
|
|
|
The normal temperature of sheep and goats is:
|
101 - 104 F
|
|
|
How many upper incisors does an adult sheep have?
|
0
|
|
|
The normal pulse rate of sheep and goats is:
|
70-90
|
|
|
T or F: crias with failure of passive transfer blood work will often reveal leukopenia or leukocytosis, with a left shift neutrophilia.
|
true
|
|
|
The most common position for a camelid to give birth is:
|
standing.q
|
|
|
Do camelids have third premolars?
|
no
|
|
|
T or F: The use of insect repellant during insect season is essential to prevent fly strike.
|
true
|
|
|
What is the term for a castrated camelid?
|
gelding
|
|
|
The normal rectal temperature of a camelids is:
|
99 - 101.5 F
|
|
|
Crias should not be grain fed before ____months of age.
|
3
|
|
|
How many nerves must be completely blocked to dehorn a sheep?
|
2
|
|
|
T or F: castration of male goats may not completely eliminate self-urination behavior in goats.
|
true
|
|
|
T or F: llamas will break through ice to drink.
|
false
|
|
|
What is the most common endotracheal tube size used in goats and sheep?
|
10-12
|
|
|
T or F: dehorning in goats is rare.
|
false
|
|
|
T or F: sheep and goats are especially sensitive to Lidocaine.
|
true.
|
|
|
what is the normal pulse rate for camelids?
|
60-90
|
|
|
When a sheep or goat is under anesthesia its heart rate should be maintained above _______ beats per minute.
|
80
|
|
|
T or F: water should be withheld from all sheep and goats prior to surgery.
|
false
|
|
|
When performing a C-section, a sheep or goat is most commonly restrained in which position?
|
right lateral recumbency.
|
|
|
T or F: premature crias have been described as crias born before 335 days of gestation.
|
true.
|
|
|
T or F: caudal epidurals are infrequently used in small ruminants.
|
false
|
|
|
T or F: the body temperature of a newborn cria should be between 100 - 104F
|
false
|
|
|
T or F: orogastric intubation of camelids is similar to that of cattle.
|
true
|
|
|
The average birthweight of a piglet is approximately:
|
3-4 lbs
|
|
|
T or F: retained placentas are rare in swine.
|
true
|
|
|
What would be a common occurrence during a SQ injections in camelids?
|
kicking
|
|
|
T or F: in camelids IV injections should be given in the same location as the high jugular venipuncture?
|
false
|
|
|
During the delivery of a piglet, only the piglet's snout is observed to extend from the sow's vulva; no feet or legs are visible. What is the proper course of action?
|
This is a normal delivery posture and should not be considered a dystocia unless the piglet is not delivered within 30 minutes.
|
|
|
What is the best position for recovery of camelids?
|
sternal recumbency
|
|
|
T or F: leading a camelid to the dung pile can stimulate urination and defecation.
|
true
|
|
|
"Boar taint" is an objectionable odor during the cooking of meat from:
|
intact males
|
|
|
A male of the porcine species that is castrated before maturity is called:
|
barrow
|
|
|
Camelids less than ____kg can be placed on a small animal anesthetic machine.
|
200
|
|
|
What is the most common complication during the anesthesia of camelids?
|
nasal edema
|
|
|
T or F: Camelids should be extubated after an anesthetic procedure when they begin chewing.
|
True.
|
|
|
T or F: Hobble should be placed on camelids patients during surgery
|
true
|
|
|
T or F: the location to be prepped for a camelid liver biopsy is at the level of the 5th intercostal space
|
false - the 9th
|
|
|
T or F: standing heat in female swine can be confirmed by pressing down on the female's back to initiate a lordosis response.
|
true
|
|
|
In swine, contraception rates with Artificial insemination are NOT improved by:
|
warming the sperm to room temperature and waiting 12 hours to administer it to the female.
|
|
|
T or F: the lining of the camelid uterus is very thick.
|
false
|
|
|
Tusks in swine can be managed by:
|
regular trimming of the tusks and/or complete surgical removal of the tusks.
|
|
|
T or F: fluid therapy cannot be safely given to mature pigs via the intra peritoneal route.
|
false
|
|
|
The most accessible and commonly used vein for IV catheterization in swine would be:
|
lateral auricular vein
|
|
|
The phrenic nerves provide innervation to which anatomical structure?
|
the diaphragm
|
|
|
Necropsy procedures in swine closely resembles the necropsy procedure for:
|
dogs and cats
|
|
|
T or F: obesity has no impact on susceptibility to development of hyperthermia in swine under anesthesia.
|
false
|
|
|
The preferred age of castration of swine is:
|
before 2 weeks of age
|
|
|
Which anesthetic gas has been associated with the development of malignant hyperthermia ins swine?
|
Halothane
|
|
|
The only chemical that does not leave tissue residues is:
|
carbon dioxide
|
|
|
T or F: fluid therapy in piglets may be given through the intraperitoneal route.
|
true
|
|
|
The preferred location for IM injections in meat-producing swine is:
|
dorsal neck muscles, just caudal to the ears.
|
|
|
The preferred patient position for obtaining blood samples from small or young swine from the cranial vena cava would be:
|
dorsal recumbency
|
|
|
Most surgical procedures on adult swine are performed with the patient in which position?
|
recumbent
|
|
|
T or F: when giving oral medications a pig's mouth should be opened by lifting the upper lip and carefully applying pressure on the hard palate.
|
false
|
|
|
The cranial vena cava is accessed from which direction?
|
right side of the animal
|
|
|
The preferred location for administering epidural anesthesia in swine is:
|
lumbosacral space
|
|
|
T or F: IV injection of barbiturates is not an acceptable euthanasia method for swine.
|
false
|
|
|
The lateral auricular vein of swine is accessed from the:
|
dorsal (haired) aspect of the ear pinna
|
|
|
T or F: facemask induction is not possible in swine/.
|
false
|
