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93 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which tapeworm is obtained by ingestion of fleas?
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Diplidium canium
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Which tapeworm is obtained by ingestion of infected rodents,rabbits and wild game?
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Taenia pisiformis, Mulitceps multiceps.
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When might the fecal exam be negative in an animal that is indeed infected with a parasite?
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When the parasite is not shedding oocytes, eggs or is in a certain life cycle.
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List the proper collection and submission of a fecal sample for small and large animals
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. Feces should be as fresh as possible. If delayed then refrigerated or mix with a small amount of formalin. Small aninmals about ¼ teaspoon minimum placed in bag or container. May be obtained via glove, but loop is only enough for direct exam. Large animal: rectally or from several pooled samples.
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Why should fecal samples be fresh?
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Eggs, oocytes andother life stages may be altered by development making diagnosis difficult.
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List the rules when dealing with fecal samples
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Approriate clothing is worn (lab coats, gloves, area cleaned after fecal s are complete, accurate records maintained.
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Why should you take such great care in the lab with regards to human exposure?
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Feces may contain zoonotic parasite, bacteria or viruses.
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List the characteristics of a fecal sample that should be recorded
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Color, consistency, blood, mucus, parasites.
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What are the advantages and disadvantages of a direct smear?
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Advantages: short prep time and minimal equipment needed detects motile protozoa, disadvantages: small sample may not detect light burden and fecal debris may be misidentified.
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1What fluid is best used to mix with the feces when preparing a direct smear?
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Saline or water
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What are the 2 types of concentration methods used for fecal exams?
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Flotation and sedimentation.
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What is the most commonly used flotation solution?
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Zinc sulfate solution.
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What is the “Cellophane Tape Preparation” procedure used for?
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Detect equine pinworm
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Great care should be taken when removing a Cuterebra larva. It the larva is crushed or ruptured, anaphylaxis might occu
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true
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Deep Skin Scrapings are necessary when trying to recover:
A) Cheyletiella B) Demodex C) Otodectes D) Rabbit fur mites |
B
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Demodectic mange is also known as:
A) Red mange B) Follicular mange C) Puppy mange D) A and B E) All of the above |
E
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Which of the following parasites are ear mites?
A) Cheyletiella B) Demodex C) Sarcoptes D) Otodectes |
D
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The sucking lice belong to the order:
A) Anoplura B) Cimex C) Reduviid D) Mallophaga |
A
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Acetate Tape Impression is indicated when trying to recover:
A) Cheyletiella B) Demodex C) Otodectes D) Sarcoptes |
A
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The typical sucking louse has a head that is narrower than the widest part of the thorax.
A) True B) False |
A
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SEVERE pruritis is often seen with _________ infestation.
A) Cheyletiella B) Demodex C) Sarcoptes D) Otodectes |
C
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Lice are very host specific and spend their entire life cycle on the pet.
A) True B) False |
A
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Cuterebra lesions are most common in the:
A) Winter and early spring B) Spring C) Summer and fall D) Fall and winter |
C
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Ear swabs are usually sufficient to recover :
A) Cheyletiella B) Demodex C) Otodectes D) Sarcoptes |
C
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Sucking lice do NOT parasitize:
A) Dogs B) Cats C) Horses D) Catttle E) All of the above |
B
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Which of the following are correct statements regarding Cuterebra?
A) Adult flies are large and bee-like and do not feed or bite B) Adult flies deposit eggs around the openings of animal nests or burrows C) There is NO migration of the larval stage D) After ~30 days, the larvae exit the skin and fall to the soil. E) A, B, and D F) All of the above |
E
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Infestation with this parasite can cause bouts of sneezing, nose bleeds, and may develop a chronic nasal discharge:
A) Cheyletiella B) Demodex C) Sarcoptes D) Pneumonyssoides E) Otodectes |
D
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The parasite which causes Feline Scabies is:
A) Cheyletiella B) Demodex C) Sarcoptes D) Notoedres E) Otodectes |
D
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The treatment for lice is very complicated and time consuming.
A) True B) False |
B
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The chewing or biting lice belong to the order:
A) Anoplura B) Cimex C) Reduviid D) Mallophaga |
D
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Which of the following statements regarding Demodex are correct?
A) The mites are transferred from the mother to offspring in the first few days of life. B) Hair loss usually does not start to occur until after four months of age C) Animals with adult-onset of Demodectic mange may have a heritable condition and should not be bred. D) All of the above |
D
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Chewing or biting lice parasitize:
A) Birds B) Dogs C) Cats D) Horses E) Cattle F) All of the above |
F
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Typical presentation of an animal with ear mites is head shaking or scratching at the ears and exudate is present which is dark brown/black and looks like coffee grounds.
A) True B) False |
A
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Most tapeworm infections are diagnosed by:
A) Direct smear B) Fecal flotation C) Fecal Sedimentation D) Finding tapeworm segments on the feces or adhered to the fur |
D
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List in correct order from smallest to largest egg/cyst:
A) Uncinaria, Giardia cyst, Toxocara canis, Isospora B) Toxocara canis, Uncinaria, Giardia cyst, Isospora C) Giardia cyst, Isospora, Uncinaria, Toxocara canis D) Isospora, Toxocara canis, Giardia, Uncinaria |
C
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The centrifugal flotation procedure more efficiently recovers parasite eggs and cysts than the simple flotation procedure.
A) True B) False |
A
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The fecal exam method which concentrates feces and eggs at the bottom of a liquid medium and is used primarily to detect eggs or cysts that have too high a specific gravity to float is the:
A) Fecal flotation B) Fecal sedimentation C) Direct smear D) All of the above |
B
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The direct fecal smear procedure requires that a thick layer of solution be placed on a slide.
A) True B) False |
B
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The diagnostic technique where feces containing strongyle eggs are allowed to incubate at room temperature for several days then the larvae that hatch are identified is the ____________ technique:
A) Fecal flotation B) Fecal sedimentation C) Direct smear D) Fecal culture |
D
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Tapeworm infections may occur when the animal
A) Eats wild game including mice B) Are bitten by ticks C) Are bitten by lice D) Are infested with fleas E) a and d |
E
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Coccidian oocysts are extremely resistant to environmental stresses.
A) True B) False |
A
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What belong to the Protozoan group of parasites?
A) Toxoplasma B) Coccidia C) Giardia D) Cryptosporidia E) All of the above |
E
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What parasite is most commonly obtained via exposure to infected water?
A) Tapeworm B) Roundworm C) Hookworm D) Giardia E) Whipworm |
D
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Trichuris ovis commonly infect the ____________ of ruminants.
A) Esophagus B) Stomach C) Small intestines D) Cecum and colon |
D
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The organism which can cause diarrhea in calves as early as 5-15 days of age is:
A) Strongyloides B) Eimeria C) Cryptosporidia D) Isospora |
C
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Another name for Paramphistomes is:
A) Liver flukes B) Rumen flukes C) Colon flukes D) Splenic flukes |
B
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The parasite that that is the most important trematode in domestic ruminants, because it causes a “liver rot” or liver condemnation at slaughter is :
A) Strongyloides B) Coccidian C) Toxocara D) Fasciola hepatica |
D
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On identification of the characteristic egg, the technician only needs to identify the egg as “trichostrongyle-type egg”.
A) True B) False |
A
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Because of its mature immune system, once an adult ruminant is de-wormed, it will not become re-infected with the GI parasite.
A) True B) False |
B
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Tips for controlling internal parasites include all of the following except:
A) Do feed on the ground B) Periodic de-worming C) Control flies D) All of the above |
A
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Identification to genus and species of ruminant trichostrongyles is usually performed by fecal culture and larval identification vs by egg characteristics.
A) True B) False |
A
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The first intermediate host for most digenetic flukes is a:
A) Flea B) Tick C) Grain mite D) Snail |
D
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One of the largest nematodes to infect horses and may grow to a length of 50 cm - are commonly found in the small intestine of young foals is:
A) Oxyuris equi B) Habronema C) Strongyles D) Cestoda E) Parascaris equorum |
E
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Control measures for F. hepatica include:
A) Use of drugs to treat infected animals B) Reduction of the snail population C) Prevention of livestock access to snail-infested pasture D) B and C E) All of the above |
E
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___________ are nematodes that parasitize the large intestine of horses.
A) Habronema B) Draschia C) Strongyles D) Cestoda E) Parascaris |
C
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The “equine roundworm” or “equine ascarid” is typically found in the small intestines of young foals.
A) Habronema B) Draschia C) Cestoda D) Parascaris |
D
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Diagnosis of ______________ is made by finding the characteristic eggs on microscopic exam of cellophane tape impressions or by scraping the surface of the anus.
A) Oxyuris equi B) Habronema C) Strongyles D) Cestoda E) Parascaris |
A
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Trichuris ovis commonly infect the ____________ of ruminants.
A) Esophagus B) Stomach C) Small intestines D) Cecum and colon |
D
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Which of the following genera that infect ruminants produce trichostrongyle type eggs?
A) Cooperia B) Oesophagostomum C) Ostertagia D) Giardia E) Coccidia F) A, B, and C G) All of the above |
F
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The most common methods used to diagnose coccidiosis include:
A) Fecal sedimentation B) Baermann technique C) Fecal floatation D) Fecal smear E) C and D F) All of the above |
E
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The following nematodes are found in the stomach of horses:
A) Giardia B) Habronema and Draschia C) Dirofilaria and Dipetalonema D) Trichostrongyles |
B
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Eggs of small and large strongyles are virtually identical.
A) True B) False |
A
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___________ is the only soft tick that commonly parasitizes dogs in North America.
A) Ixodes B) Dermacenor C) Otobius D) Amblyomma |
C
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Tick saliva contains which of the following compounds?
A) Anticoagulant B) Anti-histamine C) Vasodilatory D) Antiplatelet E) All of the above |
E
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Any infestation of domestic animals by either mites or ticks is referred to as:
A) Acariasis B) Pediculosis C) Myiasis D) FAD |
A
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Adult fleas spend most of their time in/on:
A) Animals B) Bedding C) Yard D) Carpet |
A
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Adult fleas defecate large quantities of partially digested blood, commonly called:
A) Melena B) Hemofeces C) Dipylidium D) Flea dirt |
D
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Flea prevention should include treatment of:
A) Animal B) House C) Yard D) Bedding E) All of the above |
E
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The Argasidae ticks, such as Otobius or Spinous Ear Tick, are hard ticks.
A) True B) False |
B
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The tick's forelegs contain a sensory apparatus called:
A) Acinar B) Haller's Organ C) Capitulum D) Amitraz |
B
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Some ticks can live for up to 2 years without taking a blood meal.
A) True B) False |
A
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The flea product which prevents the life stages from developing to maturity is:
A) Adulticide B) Insect growth regulator C) Acaricide D) Fogger |
B
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The typical sucking louse has a head that is narrower than the widest part of the thorax.
A) True B) False |
A
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Which of the following parasites is also known as “Walking Dandruff”?
A) Cheyletiella B) Demodex C) Sarcoptes D) Otodectes |
A
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Chewing or biting lice parasitize:
A) Birds B) Dogs C) Cats D) Horses E) Cattle F) All of the above |
F
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Acetate Tape Impression is indicated when trying to recover:
A) Cheyletiella B) Demodex C) Otodectes D) Sarcoptes |
A
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Demodectic mange is also known as:
A) Red mange B) Follicular mange C) Puppy mange D) A and B E) All of the above |
E
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Cuterebra lesions are most common in the:
A) Winter and early spring B) Spring C) Summer and fall D) Fall and winter |
C
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Typical presentation of an animal with ear mites is head shaking or scratching at the ears and exudate is present which is dark brown/black and looks like coffee grounds.
A) True B) False |
A
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Which of the following are correct statements regarding Cuterebra?
A) Adult flies are large and bee-like and do not feed or bite B) Adult flies deposit eggs around the openings of animal nests or burrows C) There is NO migration of the larval stage D) After ~30 days, the larvae exit the skin and fall to the soil. E) A, B, and D F) All of the above |
E
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Which of the following parasites are ear mites?
A) Cheyletiella B) Demodex C) Sarcoptes D) Otodectes |
D
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Which of the following statements regarding Demodex are correct?
A) The mites are transferred from the mother to offspring in the first few days of life. B) Hair loss usually does not start to occur until after four months of age C) Animals with adult-onset of Demodectic mange may have a heritable condition and should not be bred. D) All of the above |
D
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The parasite which causes Feline Scabies is:
A) Cheyletiella B) Demodex C) Sarcoptes D) Notoedres E) Otodectes |
D
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Lice are very host specific and spend their entire life cycle on the pet.
A) True B) False |
A
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The treatment for lice is very complicated and time consuming.
A) True B) False |
B
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Great care should be taken when removing a Cuterebra larva. It the larva is crushed or ruptured, anaphylaxis might occur.
A) True B) False |
A
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Which of the following parasites causes demodicosis?
A) Cheyletiella B) Demodex C) Sarcoptes D) Otodectes |
B
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The chewing or biting lice belong to the order:
A) Anoplura B) Cimex C) Reduviid D) Mallophaga |
D
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Ear swabs are usually sufficient to recover :
A) Cheyletiella B) Demodex C) Otodectes D) Sarcoptes |
C
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SEVERE pruritis is often seen with _________ infestation.
A) Cheyletiella B) Demodex C) Sarcoptes D) Otodectes |
C
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Sucking lice do NOT parasitize:
A) Dogs B) Cats C) Horses D) Catttle E) All of the above |
B
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Infestation with this parasite can cause bouts of sneezing, nose bleeds, and may develop a chronic nasal discharge:
A) Cheyletiella B) Demodex C) Sarcoptes D) Pneumonyssoides E) Otodectes |
D
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Deep Skin Scrapings are necessary when trying to recover:
A) Cheyletiella B) Demodex C) Otodectes D) Rabbit fur mites |
B
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