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154 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Define: Indication
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the reason for using drugs
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Define: contraindication
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reason for not using drugs
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Define: Pharmacokinetics
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what happens to drugs once they enter the body
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Define: Pharmacodynamics
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how drugs exert their effects
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Define: Toxicity
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adverse drug reactions
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True or False. Every drug has the potential to cause harmful effects if given to the wrong patient or according to the wrong regimen
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True.
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Veterinary drugs must be labeled with which statement?
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“Caution: Federal law restricts the use of this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”
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Compare and contrast prescription drugs vs. over-the-counter medications. When reading the label of the original packaging for a drug, how can you determine which drug is a prescription medication and which is the over-the-counter medication?
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The statement on the drug (legend) means it is a prescription drug and needs oversight of a veterinarian while OTC meds do not need oversight and do not have enough potential to be toxic.
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Once a technician has received orders to administer or dispense a drug, what are their responsibilities in carrying out these orders?
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Correct drug, correct route at correct time, careful observation of animal’s response, questioning unclear orders, accurately creating and affixing labels to medication containers; explaining administration instructions to clients, recording appropriate info in the medical record.
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What are the primary factors that can influence blood concentration levels of a drug and the response of a patient to that drug?
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Rate of drug absorption, amount of drug absorbed, distribution of the drug throughout the body, drug metabolism or biotransformation, rate and route of excretion.
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List the factors that will influence the way a drug is administered to a patient?
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Available pharmaceutic form of the drug, physical or chemical properties (irritation) of the drug, how quickly onset of action should occur, use of restraint or behavioral characteristics os the patient, nature of the condition being treated.
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What are the primary factors that can influence drug absorption?
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Mechanism of absorption, pH and ionization status of the drug, absorptive surface area, blood supply to the area, solubility of the drug, dosage form, status of the GI tract, interaction with other medications.
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When administering oral drugs to the GI tract, will the condition of the GI tract affect the route of drug absorption? Why or why not?
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Yes. Most absorption occurs in the GI tract. Motility, permeability and thickness of the mucosal epthelium all affect drug absorption.
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What is biotransformation? Why is this process important?
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The body’s ability to change a drug chemically from the form in which it was administered into a form that can be eliminated from the body.
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Define anatomy and physiology
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Anatomy – deals with the form and structure of the body and its parts, what things look like and where they are located. Physiology – deals with the functions of the body and its parts – how things work and what they do.
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List and briefly describe the levels of organization that influence body structure. Give an example of each
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Cells – smallest subdivision of the body capable of life. (intestinal lining cells). Tissues – specialized cells that have grouped together (connective tissue). Organs – made up of groups of tissue that work together for a common purpose (heart). Systems – groups of organs involved in a common set of activities (digestive system).
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What are the 4 basic tissues that make up an animal’s body?
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Epthelial, connective, muscle, nervous.
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Define “homeostasis”.
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Homeostasis – the maintenance of a dynamic equilibrium in the body.
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How do homeostatic mechanisms influence the health of the animal?
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They maintain balance in the various structures, functions, and properties of the body.
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What are residues?
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Quantities of drug that remain in animal products.
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Define: Affinity
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The tendency of a drug to bind with a receptor.
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Define: Agonists
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A drug with a high level of affinity and efficacy that causes a specific action.
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Define: Antagonists
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A drug that blocks another drug from binding with a receptor.
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Define: Potency
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The amount of drug needed to produce a desired response.
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Define: Efficacy
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The degree to which the drug produces its desired response in a patient.
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What is therapeutic index?
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The relationship between the drug’s ability to achieve the desired effect and its tendency to produce toxic effects. Therapeutic index = LD50/ED50.
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What are the 3 agencies of the US government that regulate animal health products?
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FDA, USDA, EPA
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What is FARAD?
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The Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank. It is a repository of residue avoidance information and educational materials.
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What is the Greenbook?
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A list of all animal drug products that have been approved by the FDA for safety and effectiveness.
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List the drugs that are prohibited by FDA for extralabel use in food producing animals.
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Chloramphenicol, Clenbuterol, Diethylstilbestrol,Dimetridazole, Ipronidazole, other nitroimidazoles, Furazolidone, Sulfonamide drugs (in lactating dairy cattle), Sulfadimethoxine, sulfabromomethazine and sulfaethoxpyridazine; Fluroquinolones, Glycopeptides, Phenylbutazone in dairy cattle 20 months and older.
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Define Withdrawal Time
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Amount of time that must elapse between the end of drug therapy and the elimination of that drug from the animal's tissues or products.
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List 4 sources of drugs used in veterinary medicine.
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Animal products, plant materials, minerals, and synthetic products.
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What are 4 componets of a drug regimen?
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The dose, the route of administration, the frequency of administration, and the duration of administration.
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Discuss the responsibilities of a vet tech in the administration of drug orders.
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Responsible for carrying out the orders correctly, reading label 3 times to ensure proper drug, administer correct dose by correct route, be aware of expected effects, monitor for adverse effect, know withdrawl times and potential residue problems in large animals.
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Describe the sequence of events the drug goes through from administration to excretion.
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Drug is abosrbed or directly placed in bloodstream and circulates down to the capillary levels where it leaves the blood stream. Drug enters cells or binds with surface receptors. Drug exits cell or its surface, reenters circulation, metabolized by the liver and excreted by the kidneys.
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Most biotranformation of drugs occurs where?
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Liver.
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Most drug excretion occurs via what organ?
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Kidneys
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Drugs usually produce their effects by combining with what?
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receptors
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The drug name that is chose by the manufacturer and that is the exclusive property of that company is called what?
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Proprietary/trade
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What are 6 items that must be included on a drug label?
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Drug names (gemeric and trad), drug concentration and quantity; name and address of the manufacturer, controlled substance status, manufacturer's control or lot number, the drug's expiration date.
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Why do many veterinary clinics dispense rather than prescribe most of the drugs that they use?
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Because of the profits earned by selling the products.
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Describe the marketing of animal health products.
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Purchased directly from the manufacturer, from distributors, generic mail order companies, under 1 label to vets and another as OTC
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All FDA-approved veterinary drugs are listed in the publication entitled what?
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The Green Book.
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What is the purpose of FARAD?
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To provide resources concerning the avoidance of drug residues in animals.
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Extralabel veterinary drug use was made legal (under prescribed circumstances) by what act of Congress?
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AMDUCA - Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act.
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Define compounding
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The diluting or combining of existing drugs.
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What are the potential dangers of residues in animal products?
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May cause allergic reactions or neoplasia inpeople, and may cause the development of antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
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List 3 classes of drug interactions.
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Pharmacodynamic, pharmacokinetic, and phamaceutic.
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Drug interaction can be anticipated when 2 drugs are given that are both metabolized by the ______
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Liver.
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Define "ethical products".
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One sold only through a vet as a policy of the manufacturer rather than FDA requirements.
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Once a drug has been biotransformed, it is called a ________
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Metabolite.
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An(a) _______ is a reason to use a drug
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indication
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The diagnostic method of choosing a drug is based on all of the following except:
a) practical experience b) assessment of the patient c) obtaining a history d) performing laboratory tests |
practical experience.
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Extralabel use means ______
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using a drug in a way not specified on the label.
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____ is the complex sequence of events that occurs after a drug is administered to a patient.
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pharmakokinetics
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Parenteral drugs are administered ______
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by injection
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_____ is the body's ability to change a drug chemically from the from in which is was administered to a form that can be eliminated from the body.
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metabolism (biotransformation)
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The ____ of a drug represents the degree to which a drug produces its desired response in a patient.
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efficacy
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True or false. An adverse reaction is always life-threatening.
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False.
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Define: capsule
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Container that house medication, usually made of gelatin and glycerin,
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Define: Suspension
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A preparation of solid particles dispersed in a liquid but not dissolved in it
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Define: elixir
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A hydroalcoholic liquid that contains sweeteners, flavoring, and a medicinal agent.
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Define: emulsion
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A medicinal agent that consists of oily substances dispersed in a aqueous medium with an additive to stabilize the dispersion.
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Define: Liniment
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A medicine in a oily, soapy or alcoholic vehicle to be rubbed on the skin to relive pain or act as a counterirritant.
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Define: Counterirritant
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An agent that produces superficial irritation that is intended to relieve some other irritation.
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Define Ointment
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A semisolid preparation that contains medicinal agents for application to the skin or eyes.
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Why should drugs not be stored in syringes for a long period of time prior to administration to the patient?
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Some drugs may be absorbed into the plastic make-up of the syringe, resulting in an inadequate dose.
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What are the 5 Rights that should always be followed when administering a medication?
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Right patient. Right drug. Right dose. Right route. Right time and frequency.
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How should Controlled Substances be stored and kept in a veterinary hospital?
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In a “securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet.”
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What information must be documented each time a controlled drug is administered or dispensed to a patient?
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Prescription must be signed and dated on the day of issue, must include the patient’s (owner’s) full name and address, practitioner’s full name and address, practitioner’s DEA number, written in ink or indelible pencil, manually signed on the date issued.
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List, and briefly describe, the five schedules of controlled substances. Give examples of drugs that are listed in each schedule
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I – have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse; i.e. LSD, heroin. II – accepted medical uses but high potential for abuse; i.e morphine, codeine. III – have less potential for abuse than II; i.e Hycodan, thiopental, anabolic steroids. IV – lower abuse potential than III; i.e. Phenobarbital, diazepam. V – lowest on the scale of abuse potential; i.e. antidiarrheal and anticough medications,
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AD
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right ear
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AL
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left ear
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MIC
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Minimum inhibatory concentration
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OD
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right eye
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OS
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left eye
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OU
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both eyes
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Name 4 common drug preparations.
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for oral administration, for parenteral adminstation, drugs for inhalation, for topical administration.
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Boluses are used inthe treatment of _____ animals and are used with a ______.
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large; balling gun.
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Name 2 types of parenteral injection forms.
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injections, implants.
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Vials may be either _____ dose or ______dose.
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Single, multi
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All needles should be discarded in a ______.
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Sharps container.
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Oral drugs should not be administered to animals that are _____.
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vomiting
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IV administration of drugs allows the most ____ and effective drug administation.
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rapid
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An indwelling catheter should be replaced with a new one every ____hours.
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72
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A simplex (i.e.gravity set) IV system is used to administer fluids to ______ animals
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large
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Name 6 items that should eb recorded in the controlled substance log.
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Date, owner's name, patient's name, drug name, amount dispensed,or administered,name(s) of the personnel administering the drug to the patient.
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List 4 types of syring tips that are available for use.
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Luer-lok, slip-tip, eccentric, catheter-tip.
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A tuberculin syringe holds up to _____ml of medication.
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1
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What type of syringe is divided into units rather than milliliters?
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insulin syringe
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A(n) _______ is an agent that produces superficial irritation that is intended to relieve someother irritation.
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counterirritant
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A(n) ____ will usually separate after long period of shelf life and must be shaken well before use to provide a uniform dose.
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suspension
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This type of syringe is constructed in such a way that the needle screw onthe the tip of the syringe,
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Luer-lok tip
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An indwelling catheter must be replaced every
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72
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If an IV catheter is not used continuously, it shoudl be flushed with heparinized saline every ___ to ___ hours.
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8;12
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Any patient on IV fluid therapy should be monitored every ___ to ___ minutes.
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15; 30
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IV tubing should be changed after a ___ to ___ hour period.
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24; 48
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Name and describe the structure and function of the three major types of blood vessels.
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Arteries – take oxygenated blood away from the heart. Capillaries – exchange oxygen at the cellular level. Veins – carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
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List the four areas of cardiac muscle cells that make up the Conduction System of the heart and the purpose/function of each of these groups of cells.
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SA node – located in the right atria of the heart and is the pacemaker where electrical impulses start. Causes both atria to contract. AV node – contraction of the ventricles. Bundle of His – travel down the introventricular septum to the bottom end of the left/right ventricles. Purkinje fibers – carry impulse from the bundle of His up into the ventricular myocardium.
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Name the waves represented by an electrocardiogram and discuss the event that occurs with each wave.
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P wave – the depolarization of the atria. QRS complex – ventricular depolarization. T wave – repolarization of the ventricles.
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What formula is used for determining cardiac output?
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Cardiac output = SV (stroke Volume) x HR (heart rate)
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Why is the heart considered to be 2 pumps functionally?
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The rt atrium and ventricle serve as one pump for ejecting blood to the lungs. THe left atria and ventricle eject blood into the aorta for systemic circulation.
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Cardiac cells are connected by intercalated disks and a fusion of cell membrane to form a ________
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Syncytium (interconnected mass).
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Depolarization of cardiac cells is characterized by a rapid influx of ____ ion and a slower influx of _____ ions, and the overflow of _____ ions.
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Sodium, calcium, potassium
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A relatively long ______ is important to cardiac cells to prevent a constant state of contraction from recycling impulses.
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Refractory period.
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Define chronotropics and inotropic effects in relation to the heart.
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Chronotropic refers to the rate of contraction whereas inotropic refers to the force or strength of the contraction.
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Define preload and afterload in relation to the pumping mechanism of the heart.
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Preload is the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole (the amount of blood that must be pumped out). Afterload is the resistance in the arteries that the ventricles must overcome to pump blood.
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List the four basic compensatiry mechanisms of the cardiovascular system.
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Increasing the heart rate, increasing the stroke volume, increasing the efficiency of the heart muscle, and heart enlargement.
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Metabolism is the:
A) exchange of gases in the blood. B) formation of new cells in the body to permit growth. C) sum total of all physical and chemical reactions occurring in the body. D) production and delivery of specialized substances for diverse body functions |
C
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Which of the following gauge of needle would have the smallest diameter?
A) 14 B) 25 C) 20 D) 18 |
B
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Homeostasis is:
A) a process that produces an action that is opposite from the stimulus produced. B) the removal of waste products from a body system. C) the ability of the body to maintain a normal internal environment. D) all of the above. |
C
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Which of the following is not a component of a feedback control loop?
A) sensory mechanism B) integrating, or control center C) effector mechanism D) stressor stimulator |
D
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Production of ATP occurs within which organelle?
A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) mitochondria D) lysosomes |
C
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Cellular respiration is the exchange of oxygen across the cell membrane.
A) True B) False |
B false
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The plasma membrane can be described as a triple layer of phospholipid molecules.
A) True B) False |
B false
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Mitosis is the type of cell division that occurs in the sex cells as they mature.
A) True B) False |
B false
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Which of the following lists the steps of a feedback control loop in the appropriate order from beginning to end?
A) Body responds to the effector, Interpretation of information by the control center, Sensor mechanism received information, the effector mechanism iniates an action response. B) Interpretation of information by the control center, Body responds to the effector, Effector mechanism initiates an action response, Sensor mechanism receives information. C) Sensor mechanism receives information, Interpretation of information by the control center, Effector mechanism initiates an action response, Response of the body to the effector. D) None of the above are the appropriate order. |
C
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The 3 basic components of a feedback system are: (Please mark ALL that apply)
A) receptor or sensor mechanism B) major tubercle C) control center D) effector E) synapse |
A,C,D
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Homeostasis is:
A) a process that produces an action that is opposite from the stimulus produced. B) the removal of waste products from a body system. C) the ability of the body to maintain a normal internal environment. D) all of the above. |
C
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Physiology refers to the:
A) nature of human function. B) structure of the human form. C) evolution of human thought. D) accuracy of measuring the human physique. |
A
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In a negative feedback system, the response of the effector:
A) enhances the original stimulus. B) reverses the original stimulus. C) eliminates the original stimulus. D) prolongs the original stimulus |
B
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A hypertonic solution is one that contains:
A) a greater concentration of solute than the cell. B) the same concentration of solute as the cell C) a lesser concentration of solute as the cell D) none of the above |
A
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An example of a cell that uses phagocytosis is the:
A) RBC B) muscle fiber C) bone tissue D) WBC |
D
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The force of fluid pushing against a surface could be described as:
A) facilitated diffusion B) hydrostatic pressure C) hypostatic pressure D) none of the above |
B
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An ionic bond is the strong electrostatic force that bonds (+) and (-) charged ions together.
A) True B) False |
A
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Which of the following lists the steps of a feedback control loop in the appropriate order from beginning to end?
A) Body responds to the effector, Interpretation of information by the control center, Sensor mechanism received information, the effector mechanism iniates an action response. B) Interpretation of information by the control center, Body responds to the effector, Effector mechanism initiates an action response, Sensor mechanism receives information. C) Sensor mechanism receives information, Interpretation of information by the control center, Effector mechanism initiates an action response, Response of the body to the effector. D) None of the above are the appropriate order. |
C
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Beginning with the smallest lever, the levels or organization of the body are:
A) cellular, chemical, tissue, organelle, organ, system, organism. B) cellular, chemical, organelle, organ, tissue, organism, system. C) chemical, cellular, organelle, organ, system, organism. D) chemical, organelle, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism. |
D
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The chemical bond formed by the sharing of electrons between the outer energy levels of 2 atoms is:
A) synthesis B) ionic bond C) covalent bond D) hydrogen bond |
C
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Movement of substances from a region of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is:
A) active transport B) passive transport C) cellular energy D) concentration gradient |
D
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The corrector order of mitosis is:
A) anaphase, telophase, metaphase, prophase B) prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase C) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase D) anaphase, telophase, interphase, prophase |
C
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Pinocytosis
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movement of fluid or dissolved particles into a cell by trapping it into a section of the plasma membrane.
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Exocytosis
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movement of proteins or other cell products out of the cell.
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Phagocytosis
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movement of particles or cells into another cell by trapping it into a section of the plasma membrane
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Simple diffusion
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movement of particles through the phospholipid bilayer or through channels from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
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Osmosis
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diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane.
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A slow, weak beating heart will have a decreased cardiac output.
A) True B) False |
A true
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The outside covering that surrounds and protects the heart is called the:
A) ectocardium B) tunica adventitia (externa) C) myocardium D) pericardium |
D
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The major artery that carries blood out of the L ventricle is the:
A) Vena cava B) Aorta C) Pumonary artery D) Carotid artery |
B
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Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding pericarditis?
A) it may be caused by infection or trauma. B) it often causes severe chest pain. C) it may result in impairment of the pumping action of the heart. D) all of the above statements are true. |
D
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Which of the following is a semilunar valve?
A) aortic B) pulmonary C) mitral D) a and b |
D
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Which of the following is the appropriate equation for determining Stroke Volume?
A) HR ÷ SR = CO B) CO x HR = SR C) SV x HR = CO D) W x D ÷ C = CO |
C
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Semilunar valves prevent backflow of the blood into the:
A) lungs B) ventricles C) atria D) vena cava |
B
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The cavity of the heart that normally has the thickest wall is the:
A) right atrium B) left atrium C) right ventricle D) left ventricle |
D
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A valve that permits blood to flow from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery is called the:
A) tricuspid B) mitral C) aortic semilunar D) pulmonary semilunar |
D
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The superior vena cava carries blood to the:
A) left ventricle B) coronary arteries C) right atrium D) pulmonary veins |
C
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Blood flow from the heart to all part of the body and back again is known as:
A) pulmonary respiration B) pulmonary circulation C) systemic circulation D) anastomosis |
C
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When the atria relax, which of the following DOES NOT occur?
A) blood enters the atria from the vena cava. B) the ventricles contract C) blood enters the atria from the pulmonary artery and aorta D) blood enters the atria from the pulmonary vein. |
C
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Which of the following is a semilunar valve?
A) aortic B) pulmonary C) mitral D) a and b |
D
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The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle is referred to as systole.
A) True B) False |
A true
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The atrioventricular valves are also called:
A) cuspid valves. B) semilunar valves C) aortic valves D) pulmonary valves |
A
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Repolarization of the atria is:
A) clearly shown by the QRS complex B) masked by the massive ventricular depolarization of the QRS complex C) masked by ventricular repolarization D) none of the above |
B
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Blood returns from the lungs during pulmonary circulation via the:
A) pulmonary artery B) pulmonary veins C) aorta D) inferior vena cava |
B
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Contraction of the ventricles produces:
A) the first heart sound (lub) B) the second heart sound (dupp) C) both A and B D) none of the above |
A
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An ECG P wave represents:
A) depolarization of the atria. B) repolarization of the atria C) depolarization of the ventricles D) repolarization of the ventricles |
A
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