Upper Extremities Final Cumulative Exam

Front 1

What is the correct order for evaluating an injury?

Back 1

History, Inspection, Palpation, Special Tests

Front 2

Which of the following is the correct order for performing special tests

Back 2

AROM, PROM, Strength, Stress Tests

Front 3

Pain with active range of motion (AROM) but not with passive range of motion (PROM) indicates __

Back 3

a contractile structure is involved

Front 4

all of the following are articulations of the shoulder except:

acromioclavicular joint, coracoclavicular joint, sternoclavicular joint, coracohumeral jiont

Back 4

coracohumeral joint

Front 5

which of teh following muscles does not elevate the scapula?

Rhomboid major, pectoralis major, trapezius, serratus anterior

Back 5

pectoralis major

Front 6

the structure that is a complex web of nerves and descends from teh neck anteriorly and lateral is called the __

Back 6

brachial plexus

Front 7

which of the following muscles adducts the humerus?

biceps brachii, anterior deltoid, pectoralis major, middle deltoid

Back 7

pectoralis major

Front 8

the structure that deepens the glenoid fossa to add stability to the joint is called the __

Back 8

labrum

Front 9

all of teh following muscles are capable of shoulder extension except:

rhomboids, posterior deltoid, latissimus dosri, teres major

Back 9

rhomboids

Front 10

the accepted range of motion for shoulder flexion is __

Back 10

0-180

Front 11

which of teh following statements regarding teh beceps brachii is true?

the long head attaches at teh coracoid process, the short head attaches at the upper rim of teh glenoid fossa, the beceps performs teh actions of shoulder flexion and shoulder abduction, the short head runs through teh biciptal groove

Back 11

the biceps performs the actions of shoulder flexion and shoulder abduction

Front 12

which ligament prevents the humeral head from riding too high?

Back 12

coracoacrmoial ligament

Front 13

which of teh following does not make up the rotator cuf?

infraspinatus, teres major, subscapularis, supraspinatus

Back 13

teres major

Front 14

the bursa that cushions the rotator cuff muscles, especially teh supraspinatus is teh __

Back 14

subacromial bursa

Front 15

all of the follwing are special tests performed by an AT to evaluate a rotator cuff injury except:

drop arm test, empty can test, apley scratch test, apprehension test

Back 15

apprehension test

Front 16

the accepted range of motion for shoulder external rotation is __

Back 16

0-90

Front 17

which of teh following is not a projection on the scapula?

coronoid process, spine of teh scapula, coracoid process, acromion process

Back 17

coronoid process

Front 18

one of teh more commonly injured bones of teh shoulder girdle is __

Back 18

clavicle

Front 19

all of these muscles insert at teh greater tubercle of the humerus except:

supraspinatus, infrasinatus, teres minor, subscapularis

Back 19

subscapularis

Front 20

the MOI for an anteriorly dislocated shoulder is __

Back 20

shoulder abduction with ER

Front 21

the O'Brien test is used to determine the following injury

Back 21

SLAP lesion

Front 22

a "stinger" is a __

Back 22

sudden stretch of the brachial plexus

Front 23

teh MOI for an AC joint seperation is __

Back 23

falling on an out-streched hand, a direct blow to teh acromion process

Front 24

in order to remove shoulder pads on a player who has suffered a shoulder injury, teh AT should __

Back 24

have teh athlete remove the uninjured arm first

Front 25

all of the following are test for glenohumeral joint instability except:

compression/squeeze test, sulcus sign, aprehension test, relocation test

Back 25

compression/squeeze test

Front 26

name the special test used to determine if a biceps tendon subluxation has occurred

Back 26

yergasons test

Front 27

which condition is a medical emergency

sprain of the AC joint, torn rotator cuff muscle, fracture of teh scapula, posterior dislocation of the sternoclavicular joint

Back 27

posterior dislocation of the sternoclavicular joint

Front 28

a "shoulder dislocation" refers to an injury to which joint?

Back 28

glenohumeral

Front 29

the "apprehension test" is used to evaluate a/an:

Back 29

glenohumeral dislocation

Front 30

the upper extremity's only attachement to the axial skeleton occurs at the:

Back 30

sternoclavicular joint

Front 31

injury or trauma to what nerve may be indicated by atrophy of teh deltoid muscle group?

Back 31

axillary nerve

Front 32

a positive Gerbers Lift off test indicates an injury to the __

Back 32

subscapularis

Front 33

a weakness of which muscle in teh shoulder complex can result in scapular winging?

Back 33

serratus anterior

Front 34

teh medical term for "tennis elbow" is __

Back 34

lateral epicondylagia

Front 35

the radioulnar joint is a __

Back 35

syndesmotic joint

Front 36

the most common type of forearm fracture is teh __

Back 36

colles fracture

Front 37

teh name of the sturcture that holds the radius and ulna together proximally near teh elbow

Back 37

annular ligament

Front 38

all of the following muscles pronate the forearm except

biceps brachii, triceps brachii, pronator teres, pronator quadratus

Back 38

biceps brachii

Front 39

which pronator muscle is located at the distal radioulnar joint?

Back 39

pronator quadratus

Front 40

a strap placed tightly at teh elbow near the proximal ulna and radius is a treatment for __

Back 40

lateral epicondylagia

Front 41

T/F: a dislocated elbow where teh radial pulse is compromised is a medical emergency?

Back 41

true

Front 42

the accepted range of motion for elbow flexion is __

Back 42

0-150

Front 43

the nerve which includes teh distal ulnar aspect of teh hand and fifth fingers is (sensory) __

Back 43

ulnar

Front 44

teh nerve which includes teh index finger and the lateral half of teh ring finger (sensory):

Back 44

median

Front 45

a rupture of teh ulanr collateral ligament at teh MP joint is referred to as a __

Back 45

game keepers thumb

Front 46

teh most commonly fractured carpal bone is teh __

Back 46

scaphoid

Front 47

the most commonly dislocated carpal bone is teh __

Back 47

lunate

Front 48

all of teh following statements are true except:

the trapezoid aligns with the first metacarpal, the capitate aligns with the third metacarpal, the pisiform is in the proximal row of carpal bones, teh lunate is teh third bone in the proximal row (counting from the ulnar side)

Back 48

the trapezoid aligns with teh first metacarpal

Front 49

a fracture-dislocation of teh proximal end of the first metacarpal at the carpometacarpal joint:

Back 49

bennetts fracture

Front 50

a fracture of teh fifth metacarpal, often from the fist directly impacting something is a __

Back 50

boxers fracture

Front 51

which of teh following muscles flexes the four proximal internphalangeal (PIP) joints

Back 51

flexor digitorum superficialis

Front 52

all of the following muscles extend teh wrist except:

extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digiti minimi, extensor carpi radialis brevis

Back 52

extensor digiti minimi

Front 53

which of these muscles is an extrinsic muscle of the wrist?

flexor digiti minimi, flexor pollicis brevis
abductor policis brevis
extensor pollicis longus

Back 53

abductor pollicis brevis

Front 54

range of motion for wrist flexion is __

Back 54

0-80

Front 55

range of motion for wrist ulnar deviation is __

Back 55

0-30

Front 56

range of motion for metacarpophalangeal extension is __

Back 56

0-45

Front 57

which nerve travels through the Carpal Tunnel in teh wrist?

Back 57

median nerve

Front 58

the most common fracture in teh wrist (especailly in children) is the __

Back 58

colles fracture

Front 59

teh combined motion of flexion, abduction, and rotation of teh thumb is __

Back 59

opposition

Front 60

teh name for teh condition characterized by a tenosynovitis of teh extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons is referred to as __

Back 60

de quervains syndrome

Front 61

teh tinel's sign performed at teh wrist is testing for __

Back 61

carpal tunnel syndrome

Front 62

an injury to teh brain that occurs away from the actual injury site due to axial rotation and acceleration

Back 62

contrecoup injury

Front 63

what is teh outermost meningeal covering of teh barin called?

Back 63

dura mater

Front 64

a delayed discoloration around teh eyes from an anterior cranial fossa and sinus fracture

Back 64

raccoon eyes

Front 65

axial loading of the cervical spine combined with what other motion is most likely to produce a catastrophic injruy?

Back 65

flexion

Front 66

teh "breathing center" is located here

Back 66

C1-C2

Front 67

T/F: signs and symptoms of a head injury such as a subdural hematoma often appear slowly

Back 67

true

Front 68

by administering what assessment can an athletes analytical skills be quickly assessed or determined?

Back 68

100-7 test

Front 69

a version of which test has the athlete stand with both feet together, arms at teh side, and eyes closed?

Back 69

rhomberg test

Front 70

the inability to recall events before the onset of a head injury

Back 70

retrograde amnesia

Front 71

which special test is used to determine cerebellar functioning in a patient who has sustained a head injury

Back 71

heel-to-toe-walking

Front 72

there are __ cervical vertebrae

Back 72

7

Front 73

how many pairs of cervical nerves are there?

Back 73

8

Front 74

teh "jelly-like" portion of the inervertebral disk is teh __

Back 74

nucleus pulposus

Front 75

a loss of cerebellar spinal fluid around teh spinal cord results in a narrowing of teh spinal column. this is called:

Back 75

stenosis

Front 76

how should an examiner check cranial nerve VIII?

Back 76

rub fingers together by the ear and check the balance

Front 77

how should an examiner check cranial nerve VII?

Back 77

have the person smile

Front 78

how should an examiner check cranial nerve XII?

Back 78

have teh athlete stick out the tongue and move it around

Front 79

the cheek bone primarily consists of the __

Back 79

zygomatic bone

Front 80

ecchymosis about the eye, a sunken-in appearance of teh eye on the affected side, and double vision are signs of a/an:

Back 80

orbital fracture

Front 81

blood in teh anterior chamber of teh eye that resolves within a few days

Back 81

hyphema

Front 82

people affected by this condition describe the situation as "a curtain falling over the eye". They also report seeing flashes of light going on and off

Back 82

detached retina

Front 83

abnormal/uncontrollable eye movement is referred to as __

Back 83

nystagmus

Front 84

a person who states he is seeing double is suffering from __

Back 84

diplopia

Front 85

a fracture of teh medial wall or floor of teh orbit is a __

Back 85

blow-out fracture

Front 86

an athlete presents with yellow or green discharge from the eye. what type of infection is this?

Back 86

bacterial

Front 87

which of teh following describes an athlete who is sensitive to light?

Back 87

photophobia

Front 88

T/Ft: he MOI for most facial injuries is direct contact with an object of other person

Back 88

true

Front 89

an inflammation or bacterial infection in teh eye that is highly contagious is called:

Back 89

conjunctivitis

Front 90

how far from teh snellen eye chart should teh athlete stand (for the first test)

Back 90

20 ft

Front 91

while evaluating an athletes nose that was injured when struck with a softball, you occlude one of teh nostrils and have teh athlete close his/her mouth and then ask teh athlete to breathe. when no air comes out the nose, it is determined __

Back 91

the athlete has suffered a deviated septum

Front 92

which of the following indicates temporomandibular joint (TMJ) pathology

Back 92

malocclusion of teh teeth

Front 93

all of the following are true regarding a tooth fracture except:

a tooth with a horizontal fracture can be splinted, a tooth with a vertical fracture can be splinted, fracture involving teh pulp are not painful or sensitive, a root fracture involves the tooth being loose and mobile

Back 93

fracture involving the pulp are not painful or sensitive

Front 94

how many teeth does the adult have?

Back 94

32

Front 95

all of teh following are true regarding tooth injuries except:

a partial or complete displaced tooth can be placed back into its normal position, a tooth can be fractured through the enamel, dentin, pulp, or root of the tooth, enamel fractures cause severe symptoms such as pain and sensitivity to cold and heat, a fracture extending into the dentin causes pain and increased sensitivity to cold and heat

Back 95

enamel fractures cause severe symptoms such as pain and sensitivity to cold and heat

Front 96

when the teeth do not line up due to a trauma

Back 96

malocclusion

Front 97

teh __ connects the underside of teh tongue to the floor of teh mouth

Back 97

lingual frenulum

Front 98

the outermost covering of a tooth

Back 98

enamel

Front 99

the structure that regulates the pressure in the middle ear

Back 99

Eustachian Tube

Front 100

a bilateral separation of teh pars interarticularis

Back 100

spondylolisthesis

Front 101

T/F: the nucleus pulposus moves in a posterior direction during flexion

Back 101

true

Front 102

the bundle of nerves that extend form teh end of the spinal cord (approximately L1) is known as teh __

Back 102

cauda equina

Front 103

all of teh following are true regarding flexion and extension of tehs pine except:

in a neutral position, teh facet jionts are in full apposition to each other, in a neutral spine, the nucleus pulposus is the fulcrum of the movement, flexion is determined by the posterior longitudinal ligament, extension is limited by teh posterior longitudinal ligament and the tension of the nucleus pulposus

Back 103

extension is limited by teh posterior longitudinal ligament and the tension of the nucleus pulposus

Front 104

there are how many pair of spinal nerves that emanate fromt eh spinal cord?

Back 104

31

Front 105

which of teh following statements about a spondylolisthesis is true?

radiating pain is felt bilaterally, there is unilateral back pain accompanied with pain taht radiates into the buttock and/or down teh leg unilaterally, muscle spasms are not common with this type of injury, similar to a low back strain, there is not any type of radiating pain with this condition

Back 105

there is unilateral back pain accompanied with pain that radiates into the buttock and/or down teh leg unilaterally

Front 106

what is the correct order for the quadrant test of the spine (the athlete is seated on the table)

Back 106

the athlete is placed in trunk extension, the spine is compressed by pushing down on the shoulders, the athlete extends and laterally flexes the trunk while the shoulders are compressed, and the athlete extends, laterally flexes and rotates towards the same direction while the shoulders are compressed

Front 107

the "jelly-like" portion of the intervertebral disk is __

Back 107

nucleus pulposus

Front 108

a loss of cerebral spinal fluid around the spinal cord results in a narrowing of the spinal column. this is called:

Back 108

stenosis

Front 109

the two major organs of the thorax

Back 109

heart, lungs

Front 110

recieves deoxygenated blood via the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, delivers blood to the right ventricle through the right atrioventricular (tricuspid valve)

Back 110

right atrium

Front 111

recieves deoxygenated blood form teh right atrium, delievers blood though the semiluar valve to the liungs via teh L and R pulmonary areries

Back 111

right ventricle

Front 112

reiveds oxygenated blood from the lungs via teh right and left pulmonary veins, delivers blood to teh left ventricale through the left atrioventricular (mitral) valve

Back 112

left atrium

Front 113

delivers oxygenated blood through teh semilunar valve (aortic valve) to the ascending aorta

Back 113

left venticle

Front 114

the spleen is located between the __ ribs

Back 114

9-11

Front 115

a solid, fragile organ, produces and destors blood cells during infection, truama may result in removal

Back 115

spleen

Front 116

when teh spleen becomes engorged with blood

Back 116

mononucleosis

Front 117

the kidneys are at the level of __

Back 117

T12-L3

Front 118

regulate body's electrolyte levels, filtrate urine

Back 118

kidneys

Front 119

located approximately one third of the way betewen the ASIS and the umbilicus

Back 119

McBurney's point

Front 120

a tender McBurney's point represents __

Back 120

appendicitis

Front 121

when there is pain when pressure is released

Back 121

rebound pain

Front 122

used in teh abdominla region to indicate internal compications

Back 122

percussion test

Front 123

refers to a sharp pain or spasm in teh chest wll, usually in teh lower right side during exertion

Back 123

stitch in the side

Front 124

commonly seen in long distance runners when teh shirt rubs

Back 124

nipple irritation

Front 125

these occur in power lifting (bench press), football, wrestling, or in sudden deceleration maneuvers

Back 125

strain of the pec major

Front 126

S/S: an audible pop/snap/or tearing sensation, immediate pain and weakness, it will retract toward teh axillary fold if it ruptures, swelling, eccymosis, decreased shoulder ROM

Back 126

strain of the pec major

Front 127

these (sprains) occur during a colision or due to severe twisting of teh thorax and often separates from its attachment at the rib or sternum

Back 127

costochondral injury

Front 128

the __ is rarely fractured in athletics, only occures as a result of high impact

Back 128

sternum

Front 129

which ribs are most commonly fractured?

Back 129

4th-9th ribs

Front 130

the __ include teh spleen, liver, pancreas, kidneys, and adrenal glands

Back 130

solid

Front 131

the __ organs include the stmach, gall bladder, and ureters

Back 131

hollow

Front 132

too much carbon dioxide being exhaled

Back 132

hyperventlation

Front 133

results from blunt trauma to the chest such as landing on a football or being slammed to the ground

Back 133

pulmonary contusion

Front 134

when air is trapped in teh pleural space causing a portion of a lung to collapse

Back 134

pnemothorax

Front 135

blood in the pleural cavity

Back 135

hemothroax

Front 136

occurs when air progressivly accumulates in teh pleral space during inpiration and cannot escape on expiration

Back 136

tension pneumothorax

Front 137

tnesion pneumothorax is generally a __

Back 137

medical emergency

Front 138

the hear can become compressed by the sternum and spine causing a __

Back 138

myocardial contusion

Front 139

caused by blunt trauma, it ruptures the myocardium or lacerates a coronary artery that increases the volume of fluid in the paricardium

Back 139

pericardial tamponade

Front 140

an anoymous sing of underlying cardiac abnormality , a symptom of heat illness, or an unrelated occurance

Back 140

syncope

Front 141

an event that is nontraumatic, unexpected, and occurs instantaneously

Back 141

sudden death in atheltes

Front 142

irregular heart rythems

Back 142

arrhythmias

Front 143

heart rate below 60 BPM ,common in highly trained athletes

Back 143

bradycardia

Front 144

increased heart rate, normal response to a sterssfull situation

Back 144

tachycardia

Front 145

the __ is the most commonly injured abdominal muscle

Back 145

rectus femoris

Front 146

MOI: blow to the stomach with muscles relaxed, wind knocked out

Back 146

solar plexus contusion

Front 147

a protrusiton into a portion of teh abdominal wall

Back 147

hernia

Front 148

a dull pain in teh left shoulder (caused by an irritation of the phrenic nerves, nausea, cold clammy, and signs of shock

Back 148

Kehrs sighn

Front 149

used to listen very carefully for the presnece of absence of sounds in teh body

Back 149

ausculation

Front 150

gurgling, popping, snoring, high pitched whistle

Back 150

abnormal sounds