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108 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A patient is being discharged home from the hospital. The patient was getting fluconazole 400 mg IV daily for the treatment of his fungal infection. The physician would like to continue with oral fluconazole therapy. What is the oral equivalent dose? Answer A800 mg B600 mg C400 mg D200 mg E100 mg |
C400 mg |
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A patient taking isoniazid is at risk for peripheral neuropathy. Which of the following medications can be given to reduce the risk of peripheral neuropathy? Answer AVitamin B1 BVitamin B2 CVitamin B6 DVitamin E EVitamin B12 |
CVitamin B6 |
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A patient is picking up VFEND at the pharmacy and asks to be counseled by the pharmacist. Which of the following counseling points regarding VFEND are correct? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AThis medication should be taken with meals, preferably breakfast and dinner. BThis medication can cause lymphomas with prolonged use. CThis medication can cause visual changes; care is advised when driving and driving at night should be avoided. DThis medication can damage your liver and liver function tests may need to be monitored. EThis medication is associated with many drug interactions. |
CThis medication can cause visual changes; care is advised when driving and driving at night should be avoided. DThis medication can damage your liver and liver function tests may need to be monitored. EThis medication is associated with many drug interactions. |
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A 30 year-old female patient is 12 weeks pregnant and presents to the physician with symptoms of urinary urgency, burning and frequency. She is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. Her only medications are a daily prenatal vitamin and a calcium supplement. She has no drug allergies. Which is the best medication to recommend for this patient? Answer ACiprofloxacin BDoxycycline CTobramycin DCephalexin EVancomycin
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DCephalexin |
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Julie comes to the emergency department with a large wound that is oozing pus on her lower right leg. She has diabetes and did not want to see a doctor earlier because she does not have medical insurance. It is presumed that the infection is due to community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA). Which of the following oral medications can be used to treat CA-MRSA? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AClindamycin BTrimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole CCiprofloxacin DLinezolid EQuinupristin-dalfopristin
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AClindamycin BTrimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole DLinezolid |
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Harry is a 71 year old male who has been in the intensive care unit for several weeks and is now being treated for aPseudomonas infection. His weight is 235 pounds and height is 6'4". His current serum creatinine is 2.4 mg/dL. Based on the culture sensitivities, the medical team decides to start tobramycin at 2.5 mg/kg. They ask the pharmacist to write the order and administer the first dose at 8:00 AM. Which of the following is the best tobramycin regimen for this patient? Answer ATobramycin 300 mg IV Q24H BTobramycin 1 gram IV Q24H CTobramycin 180 mg IV Q8H DTobramycin 200 mg IV Q24H ETobramycin 300 mg IV Q8H
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DTobramycin 200 mg IV Q24H |
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A patient gave the pharmacist a prescription for Levaquin. Which of the following is an appropriate generic substitution for Levaquin? Answer ALevofloxacin BCiprofloxacin CAzithromycin DErtapenem ETelavancin
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ALevofloxacin |
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A patient is receiving Bactrim SS therapy. Which of the following strengths and ingredients is correct for Bactrim SStablets? Answer A400 mg sulfamethoxazole and 80 mg trimethoprim B80 mg sulfamethoxazole and 400 mg trimethoprim C16 mg sulfamethoxazole and 80 mg trimethoprim D240 mg sulfamethoxazole and 40 mg trimethoprim E100 mg sulfamethoxazole and 50 mg trimethoprim
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A400 mg sulfamethoxazole and 80 mg trimethoprim |
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Sarah presents to the emergency department with fever, chills, nausea, cough, and fatigue. She reports feeling awful for the past week and appears confused. Her previous doctor started her on amoxicillin. Sarah's white blood cell count was found to be elevated today. Her past medical history is significant for COPD, hypertension, dyslipidemia, and atrial fibrillation. She is taking lisinopril, lovastatin, procainamide, amoxicillin and some inhalers. The doctor would like to start broad empiric coverage for her infectious process. Which of the following oral broad spectrum medication/s would be most appropriate to treat Sarah given her history? Answer ACefdinir + doxycycline BMoxifloxacin CTigecycline DTelithromycin EAztreonam |
ACefdinir + doxycycline |
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A 36 year-old female is nine weeks pregnant. She presents to the pharmacy with symptoms of a vaginal fungal infection. She has vaginal itching and a white, curd-like discharge. She had similar symptoms a few months ago and went to the free clinic for help. She was examined and given one dose of fluconazole 150 mg x 1. She was instructed to purchase an over the counter product the next time she has these types of symptoms. She is asking for your advice on an over-the-counter product. Choose the correct agent: Answer ATerbinafine x 7 days BClotrimazole x 7 days CButenafine x 3 days DMiconazole x 1 day ETioconazole x 3 days |
BClotrimazole x 7 days |
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Tanya comes to the pharmacy to pick up her prescription for Valtrex for treatment of herpes simplex. Which of the following statements would be best to include during patient counseling? Answer AThis medication is very effective and will cure your herpes infection. BYou should start therapy within one day of symptom onset to experience maximum benefit from the drug. CThis medication should be taken with food. DIt is safe to continue sexual contact with your partner when you have symptoms or a herpes outbreak. EThis product is effective only when you have developed genital lesions. |
BYou should start therapy within one day of symptom onset to experience maximum benefit from the drug. |
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A prescription for generic doxycycline is filled. Which of the following statements regarding doxycycline are correct? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AThis medication should not be used in children 8 years of age or younger. BTake on an empty stomach 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals. CThis medication may increase the risk of sunburn. DThis medication should be separated when given with antacids. EThis medication does not interact with other medications.
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AThis medication should not be used in children 8 years of age or younger. CThis medication may increase the risk of sunburn. DThis medication should be separated when given with antacids. |
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A patient with a urinary tract infection has asked for advice on a product for painful urination. Her doctor wrote the name phenazopyridine down on a sheet of paper. Which of the following patient counseling points are correct regarding phenazopyridine? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer ATake this medication with food and 8 oz of water to minimize stomach upset. BShe can purchase the over the counter product Azo. CShe should use the product as long as she has symptoms. DThis medication is effective in treating a bacterial urinary tract infection. EThis product will cause red-orange coloring of the urine and can stain clothing.
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ATake this medication with food and 8 oz of water to minimize stomach upset. BShe can purchase the over the counter product Azo. EThis product will cause red-orange coloring of the urine and can stain clothing. |
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Derek has developed candidemia after 3 weeks in the intensive care unit. He is currently being treated with micafungin. Which of the following statements is correct regarding micafungin? Answer AMicafungin is available orally and can cause pulmonary edema. BMicafungin is Pregnancy Category X. CMicafungin requires premedication prior to administration. DMicafungin can cause histamine-related symptoms. EMicafungin is an azole antifungal agent.
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DMicafungin can cause histamine-related symptoms. |
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Janis has a blood culture report showing gram-positive cocci resembling streptococci, enteric gram-negative bacilli and anaerobes. Which of the following medications may provide adequate coverage for these organisms? Answer AErtapenem BRifaximin CMetronidazole DFosfomycin ECiprofloxacin |
AErtapenem |
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Jenna is a 36 year-old female who is diagnosed with community acquired pneumonia as an outpatient. She has no co-morbidities and is not on any prescription medications. Jenna has no known drug allergies. Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to recommend for treatment? Answer AMoxifloxacin BTetracycline CAzithromycin DAmoxicillin EVancomycin |
CAzithromycin |
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding linezolid? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer ALinezolid is associated with bone marrow suppression. BLinezolid is part of the streptogramin class of antibiotics. CLinezolid should be dose adjusted in renal impairment. DLinezolid is a weak MAO inhibitor. ELinezolid oral suspension should not be refrigerated.
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ALinezolid is associated with bone marrow suppression. DLinezolid is a weak MAO inhibitor. ELinezolid oral suspension should not be refrigerated. |
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A patient gave the pharmacist a prescription for a Z-PAK. Which of the following is an appropriate dose and generic substitution for a Z-PAK? Answer AErythromycin 250 mg Q AM, for 5 days BAzithromycin 250 x 2 on day 1, then 250 mg x 1 on days 2-5 CAzithromycin 250 mg Q AM, for 5 days DClarithromycin 250 mg Q AM, for 5 days EAzithromycin 250 mg x 2, for 5 days
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BAzithromycin 250 x 2 on day 1, then 250 mg x 1 on days 2-5 |
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding the appropriate use of metronidazole? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AAlcohol can be consumed 12 hours after the last dose of metronidazole. BPatients may experience a metallic taste with the medication. CThe IV:PO dosing ratio is 1:1 DMetronidazole is an azole antifungal agent. EThe brand name is Tequin.
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BPatients may experience a metallic taste with the medication. CThe IV:PO dosing ratio is 1:1 |
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A patient is receiving vancomycin 2 grams IV Q12H for treatment of MRSA. The nurse asks how long to infuse the medication. Which is the best recommendation to give the nurse regarding the infusion of this vancomycin dose? Answer AThe vancomycin should be infused over a minimum of 2 hours BThe vancomycin should be infused over a maximum of 2 hours CThe vancomycin should be infused over a minimum of 1 hour DThe vancomycin should be infused over a maximum of 1 hour EThe vancomycin should be given via a bolus dose
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AThe vancomycin should be infused over a minimum of 2 hours |
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Which of the following statements are correct regarding patient counseling advice on Bactrim? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer ATake this medication with 8 oz of water. BThis medication must be taken with food. CThis medication can increase your risk of sunburn. DThis medication can cause a rash; if you develop a serious rash, seek medical help right away. EThis medication should not be used if the patient has a sulfa allergy.
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ATake this medication with 8 oz of water. CThis medication can increase your risk of sunburn. DThis medication can cause a rash; if you develop a serious rash, seek medical help right away. EThis medication should not be used if the patient has a sulfa allergy. |
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Jack has been in the intensive care unit for the past two weeks. He was initially admitted for an asthma exacerbation requiring mechanical ventilation. Over the course of the hospitalization, he developed ventilator-associated pneumonia and was treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics. His blood cultures are now positive for VRE faecium. Which of the following antibiotics should provide coverage for VRE faecium bacteremia? Answer AQuinupristin-dalfopristin BVancomycin CClindamycin DTelithromycin EDoripenem
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AQuinupristin-dalfopristin |
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Lucas is receiving ampicillin for the treatment of a Proteus mirabilis bacteremia. The doctor wants to know how ampicillin works. Which of the following best characterizes the pharmacodynamic properties of ampicillin? Answer AAmpicillin exhibits concentration dependent bacterial killing BAmpicillin exhibits concentration-above-MIC-dependent killing CAmpicillin exhibits colonic concentration bacterial killing DAmpicillin exhibits post antibiotic effect for bacterial killing EAmpicillin exhibits time-above-MIC-dependent bacterial killing
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EAmpicillin exhibits time-above-MIC-dependent bacterial killing |
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Molly is an 82 year-old female with a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection. The clinical pharmacist is rounding with the infectious disease team. The pharmacist is asked to explain the potential advantages of extended-interval, or once-daily, aminoglycoside dosing. Choose the correct statement: Answer AIf the random gentamicin serum level is elevated, the dosing interval should be decreased. BExtended-interval dosing is more cost effective, and helps to reduce nephrotoxicity risk. CThe peak and trough levels should be measured around the third dose for extended-interval dosing. DExtended-interval dosing for gentamicin is 15 mg/kg/day. EIf the random gentamicin serum level is elevated, the dose should be decreased.
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BExtended-interval dosing is more cost effective, and helps to reduce nephrotoxicity risk. |
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A 25 year-old female has been to see her primary care physician. She is planning to become pregnant and wanted a "clean bill of health". She was found to be infected with gonorrhea. Which of the following statements is the best recommendation for this patient? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AShe should be treated with ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x 1. BShe is likely co-infected with syphilis and should be treated with penicillin G 2.4 million units IM x 3. CShe is likely co-infected with chlamydia and should be treated with azithromycin 1 g PO x 1. DShe should be treated with moxifloxacin 400 mg PO x 1 to cover for all likely pathogens. ETherapy should be withheld until a pregnancy test can be obtained.
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AShe should be treated with ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x 1. CShe is likely co-infected with chlamydia and should be treated with azithromycin 1 g PO x 1. |
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Which of the following oral suspensions should be refrigerated? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AAugmentin BVantin CLevaquin DZmax ESuprax
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AAugmentin BVantin |
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Joshua is going to the operating room for repair of his hernia. He has no known drug allergies. Which of the following medications should be used for antibiotic prophylaxis? Answer ADoripenem BTicarcillin CMetronidazole DCefazolin ECiprofloxacin
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DCefazolin |
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Which of the following statements are correct regarding nafcillin? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer ANafcillin does not have activity against methicillin susceptible Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA). BNafcillin is a vesicant. CNafcillin should be dose adjusted in renal impairment. DNafcillin is compatible with NS only. ENafcillin is associated with acute interstitial nephritis.
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BNafcillin is a vesicant.
ENafcillin is associated with acute interstitial nephritis. |
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Manny comes to the urgent care center with a large cellulitis wound. The doctor wants to prescribe something orally that covers MRSA. Which of the following medications fit this description? Answer ATigecycline BLinezolid CDoripenem DQuinupristin-dalfopristin EVancomycin
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BLinezolid |
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A patient gave the pharmacist a prescription for Augmentin 875 mg Q12H #20. Which of the following is an appropriate generic substitution for Augmentin? Answer AAmpicillin/clavulanate BAmpicillin/tazobactam CAmoxicillin/clavulanate DAmoxicillin/tazobactam EImipenem/cilastatin
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CAmoxicillin/clavulanate |
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A patient comes to the clinic with fever, chills, muscle aches and a severe headache. She was recently on a week-long camping trip in South Carolina with her extended family. The patient appears to have a tick bite and is diagnosed with Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Which of the following medications is the best treatment option for this patient? Answer ARifampin 300 mg x 5 days BMetronidazole 1 gram x 7 days CTobramycin 5 mg/kg/d divided Q8H x 7 days DDoxycycline 100 mg BID x 7 days EAcyclovir 400 mg TID x 10 days
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DDoxycycline 100 mg BID x 7 days |
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Joseph is on tobramycin IV every 8 hours and his levels are reported as a peak of 8.3 mcg/mL and a trough of 2.1 mcg/mL. Which of the following recommendations should the pharmacist make to the medical team? Answer AIncrease the dose of tobramycin BReduce the dose of tobramycin CExtend the dosing interval of tobramycin DReduce the dose and extend the interval of tobramycin EShorten the dosing interval of tobramycin
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CExtend the dosing interval of tobramycin |
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Which of the following auxiliary labels should be placed on a prescription for cephalexin oral suspension? Answer ATake with at least 8 ounces of water BKeep the medication refrigerated CUse caution when operating heavy machinery or while driving a car DDo not shake prior to use EDo not use if you are pregnant
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BKeep the medication refrigerated |
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Which of the following statements are true regarding pyrazinamide? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AThis medication is used to reduce the risk of peripheral neuropathies in patients taking isoniazid. BThis medication is contraindicated in patients with acute gout. CThis medication can cause significant ototoxicity. DThis medication should not be used if the patient has a sulfa allergy. EThis medication can cause hepatotoxicity.
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BThis medication is contraindicated in patients with acute gout.
EThis medication can cause hepatotoxicity. |
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A patient with an active tuberculosis infection will receive ethambutol therapy as part of their combination drug therapy. The patient will require counseling regarding the possibility of the following adverse effect: Answer AVision problems BShortness of breath CThyroid dysfunction DAppetite suppression EHearing loss
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AVision problems |
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Jackson is found to have VRE faecalis on his recent blood cultures. Which of the following regimens is the best option for treatment of VRE faecalis? Answer ADaptomycin 6 mg/kg IV daily BVancomycin 1 gram IV daily CColistimethate 100 mg IV BID DQuinupristin-dalfopristin 7.5 mg/kg IV every 8 hours ECephalexin 500 mg PO QID
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ADaptomycin 6 mg/kg IV daily |
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A patient is prescribed isoniazid for treatment of tuberculosis. Which of the following statements regarding isoniazid are correct? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AIt is an hepatic enzyme inducer. BIt should be taken on an empty stomach. CStore the oral solution in the refrigerator. DIt can turn the urine a reddish color. EIt is associated with hepatitis and liver function test may need to be monitored.
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BIt should be taken on an empty stomach.
EIt is associated with hepatitis and liver function test may need to be monitored. |
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A patient with severe renal impairment (creatinine clearance less than 30 mL/min) is in the hospital for treatment of an infection. Blood cultures are positive for Candida krusei. Which of the following medications is best to treat the patient's infection? Answer ATigecycline 100 mg IV x 1; then 50 mg IV every 12 hours BAmphotericin B deoxycholate 3 mg/kg IV daily CCaspofungin 70 mg IV x 1, then 50 mg IV daily DFluconazole 200 mg IV daily EKetoconazole 400 mg PO daily
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CCaspofungin 70 mg IV x 1, then 50 mg IV daily |
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A patient comes in with a gram-positive and gram-negative foot infection. The doctor would like to use a cephalosporin for treatment of the patient's infection. Which of the following statements regarding cephalosporins is correct? Answer ACefazolin is an oral cephalosporin that is considered to be the most effective therapy for mild-moderate gram-negative foot infections. BCefixime is the only oral cephalosporin with gram-negative and enteric anaerobic coverage. CCephalexin is an oral, second-generation cephalosporin with sufficient gram-negative and gram-positive coverage for moderate severity foot infections. DCefuroxime is an oral, second-generation cephalosporin with adequate gram-negative and gram-positive coverage for mild-moderate foot infections. ECefpodoxime is an intravenous, third-generation cephalosporin with adequate gram-positive and gram-negative coverage for severe foot infections.
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DCefuroxime is an oral, second-generation cephalosporin with adequate gram-negative and gram-positive coverage for mild-moderate foot infections. |
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A pharmacist is working in the emergency department. A medical intern asks how to treat a patient who has tested positive for syphilis. The intern explains that the patient does not know how long he has had the disease and has stated that he has had multiple sexual partners over the last few years. Which regimen would be best to treat this patient's syphilis? Answer ACeftriaxone 250 mg IM x 1 BAzithromycin 1 gram PO x 1 CAqueous penicillin G 3-4 million units IV Q4H x 10 days DPenicillin G benzathine 2.4 million units IM x 1 EPenicillin G benzathine 2.4 million units IM weekly x 3 weeks
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EPenicillin G benzathine 2.4 million units IM weekly x 3 weeks |
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The mother of a 2 year-old daughter has been given a prescription for an acute otitis media infection. The child has no known drug allergies. This is the first time the child has received treatment for this condition. Choose the correct drug of choice for this condition. Answer AAzithromycin suspension 30 mg/kg/day given daily BAmoxicillin 90 mg/kg/day, divided Q 12 hours CClarithromycin suspension, divided Q 12 hours DAmoxicillin 40 mg/kg/day, divided Q 12 hours ECephalexin suspension, divided Q 12 hours
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BAmoxicillin 90 mg/kg/day, divided Q 12 hours |
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A physician is unfamiliar with rifaximin and asks for information on the drug. Which of the following points would be accurate to describe rifaximin? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer ARifaximin can be used to treat traveler's diarrhea caused by non-invasive E. coli BRifaximin requires renal dose adjustments CRifaximin is indicated for hepatic encephalopathy DRifaximin is a strong hepatic enzyme inducer similar to rifampin ERifaximin is an antiprotozoal agent
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ARifaximin can be used to treat traveler's diarrhea caused by non-invasive E. coli
CRifaximin is indicated for hepatic encephalopathy |
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A healthy, 25 year-old male is traveling to the Baja Peninsula in Mexico to visit a friend. He has never traveled to Mexico before and is concerned that he may acquire traveler's diarrhea. Recommend an appropriate prophylactic medication: Answer ALevofloxacin 500 mg daily x 1-3 days BAzithromycin 500 mg daily x 1-3 days CLoperamide 2 mg BID x 1-3 days DBismuth subsalicylate ECiprofloxacin XR 1,000 mg daily x 1-3 days
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DBismuth subsalicylate |
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Patty has contracted trichomoniasis. Which of the following options would be preferred treatments for trichomoniasis? Answer AMetronidazole 2 grams PO x 1 BCiprofloxacin 1 gram PO x 1 CAzithromycin 2 grams PO x 1 DPenicillin G benzathine 2.4 million units IM x 1 EPenicillin G benzathine 2.4 million units IM x 3 weekly doses
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AMetronidazole 2 grams PO x 1 |
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A patient is taking nitrofurantoin for treatment of a urinary tract infection. Which of the following statements regarding nitrofurantoin are correct? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AThis medication is only indicated for uncomplicated cystitis. BThis medication may cause your urine to turn blue in color. CThis medication may rarely cause very serious pulmonary problems. DThis medication should not be used if you have kidney disease. EThis medication is not absorbed when taken concurrently with food.
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AThis medication is only indicated for uncomplicated cystitis.
CThis medication may rarely cause very serious pulmonary problems. DThis medication should not be used if you have kidney disease. |
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A hospitalized patient with no known drug allergies has cellulitis and the physician ordered vancomycin 1,000 mg IV Q12H and imipenem-cilastatin 1,000 mg IV Q8H. Both medications were administered at the same time. The patient had a profound drop in blood pressure. Her upper body, mostly in the trunk area, was covered with an erythematous rash. The patient's breathing became labored. What is the likely cause of the patient's symptoms? Answer AShe likely had an anaphylactic reaction to cilastatin. BIt is likely the infusion rate of vancomycin was too rapid. CThe reaction was due to the combination of imipenem-cilastatin and vancomycin; the dosing should be separated by several hours. DThese are side effects of the cilastatin component, which has not been reduced for renal insufficiency. EIt is unlikely that this reaction is due to one of these medications.
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BIt is likely the infusion rate of vancomycin was too rapid. |
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A nurse calls the pharmacy to ask about crushing ciprofloxacin tablets and giving it via the nasogastric tube. The pharmacist should respond: Answer ACiprofloxacin is only available in an IV formulation. BHold tube feedings at least 1 hour before and 2 hours after the administration of ciprofloxacin. CGive ciprofloxacin and flush the nasogastric tube immediately with water; in this manner it is safe to give with tube feedings. DThere is no interaction between ciprofloxacin and tube feedings. EThere is no formulation of ciprofloxacin that can be used for nasogastric tube administration.
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BHold tube feedings at least 1 hour before and 2 hours after the administration of ciprofloxacin. |
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Danny is diagnosed with giardia. Which of the following medications would be best to recommend for treatment of giardiasis? Answer AMetronidazole BCefuroxime CDoxycycline DErythromycin EClindamycin |
AMetronidazole |
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Which of the following medications should be avoided in children 8 years of age and younger due to discoloration of teeth and bone growth retardation? Answer ATelavancin BTigecycline CTelithromycin DTinidazole ERifaximin
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BTigecycline |
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Susan is prescribed Avelox for a community-acquired pneumonia infection. What is the mechanism of action forAvelox? Answer ABinds to pencillin binding proteins to inhibit cell wall synthesis BBinds to the 30s ribosomal subunit, inhibiting protein synthesis CInhibits DNA topoisomerase IV, thereby blocking DNA gyrase DInhibits synthesis of Beta (1,3)-D-glucan EBinds to the 50s ribosomal subunit, inhibiting protein sythesis
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CInhibits DNA topoisomerase IV, thereby blocking DNA gyrase |
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A patient has a prosthetic mitral valve and needs to have some extensive dental work done. The patient is noted to have allergies to Keflex and Unasyn. Which of the following statements is the best recommendation to give this patient? Answer ATake amoxicillin 2 grams 1 hour prior to dental appointment. BTake cefadroxil 2 grams 30 minutes prior to dental appointment. CTake clindamycin 600 mg 1 hour prior to dental appointment. DTake azithromycin 500 mg 30 minutes after dental appointment. EThis patient does not need antibiotics for his dental work.
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CTake clindamycin 600 mg 1 hour prior to dental appointment. |
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A patient gave the pharmacist a prescription for Solodyn 1 tab daily #30. Which of the following is an appropriate generic substitution for Solodyn? Answer AMinocycline BDoxycycline CErythromycin DTelithromycin EItraconazole
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AMinocycline |
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A patient has been taking antibiotics for one week and develops severe diarrhea. Which of the following medications has a black box warning regarding the risk of causing severe and possibly fatal colitis? Answer ACefepime BClarithromycin CCiprofloxacin DClindamycin ECaspofungin
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DClindamycin |
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Choose the correct term for the lowest drug concentration that will inhibit the growth of an organism: Answer AMinimum bactericidal concentration BPost antibiotic effect CMinimum inhibitory concentration DResistance EIntermediate sensitivity
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CMinimum inhibitory concentration |
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Helen is a 68 year-old female who comes to the clinic for an urgent appointment. She has been feeling awful due to her "flu-like" symptoms and she cannot get any rest because of her coughing. Her past medical history is significant for heart failure, status-post breast cancer, peptic ulcer disease and gout. Helen is diagnosed with community acquired pneumonia. Which is the best treatment regimen for her community acquired pneumonia? Answer AClarithromycin 500 mg PO Q12H BCefpodoxime 500 mg PO Q12H CDoxycycline 100 mg PO Q12H DMoxifloxacin 400 mg PO daily EPatient should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous therapy
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DMoxifloxacin 400 mg PO daily |
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A 62 year-old female patient came into the pharmacy to get an influenza shot. It was her first time receiving the annual vaccine. Three days later, she came back complaining of a hacking cough, mild weakness, stuffy nose and a sore throat. She is afebrile and has no muscle aches or pains. She states the shot gave her the flu. What is the most likely reason for the patient's illness? Answer AShe has a cold. BShe has an influenza infection. CShe has mild illness due to the shot, but it's not likely an influenza infection. DShe was allergic to the influenza vaccine. ENone of the above. |
AShe has a cold. |
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A patient gave the pharmacist a prescription for Ceftin 500 mg BID #20. Which of the following is an appropriate generic substitution for Ceftin? Answer ACefprozil BCefpodoxime CDoripenem DCefuroxime ECefdinir
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DCefuroxime |
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A patient presents with symptoms of a common cold: runny nose, sore throat, sneezing, and coughing. What is the most likely cause of the patient's cold? Answer ARhinovirus BStaphylococcus aureus CGroup B Streptococci DAdenovirus EMultiple organisms are likely
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ARhinovirus |
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Select the agent/s used as thickeners: Answer AAcacia BLanolin, Aquaphor, Aquabase CAgar, carrageenan and gelatin DArlacel, Span, Myrj, Tween EPetrolatum |
CAgar, carrageenan and gelatin |
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The pharmacist receives a prescription for "Percocet 5/325 mg tab #24, Sig; i-ii tabs po q 4-6 hrs prn pain x 2 days. NTE 10/d." Choose the correct wording for the prescription label. Answer ATake 1-2 tablets by mouth every 4-6 hours as desired for pain. Do not exceed 10 tablets per day. BTake 1-2 tablets by mouth every 4-6 hours as-needed for pain for 2 days. Do not exceed 10 tablets per day. CTake up to 2 tablets by mouth every 4 hours as-needed for pain. Do not exceed 10 tablets per day. DTake 1-2 tablets by mouth every 4-6 hours as-needed for pain. Do not exceed 6 tablets per day. ETake 1-2 tablets by mouth up to 6 times daily as-needed for pain for 2 days. Do not exceed 12 tablets per day. |
BTake 1-2 tablets by mouth every 4-6 hours as-needed for pain for 2 days. Do not exceed 10 tablets per day. |
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Which of the following definitions describes an emulsion? Answer AA liquid preparation of soluble chemicals dissolved in solvents such as water, alcohol, or propylene glycol. BA semisolid dosage form used externally on the skin or mucous membranes. CA solid dosage form used to deliver medicine into the rectum, vagina or urethra. DA two-phase system of two immiscible liquids, one of which is dispersed through the other as small droplets. EA two phased-system of a finely divided solid in a liquid medium. |
DA two-phase system of two immiscible liquids, one of which is dispersed through the other as small droplets. |
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Measure out 60 g of a 40% ephedrine sulfate using the 60% and 20% in stock. How much of the 60% and the 20% (in grams) are needed? Answer A40 g of 60%, 20 g of 20% B35 g of 60%, 25 g of 20% C50 g of 60%, 10 g of 20% D20 g of 60%, 40 g of 20% E30 g of 60%, 30 g of 20% |
E30 g of 60%, 30 g of 20% |
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A patient has received a prescription for oxycodone-acetaminophen (Percocet). Choose the correct statements:: (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AThis is a C II medication. BCYP 450 3A4 inhibitors will increase the concentration of this medication. CCYP 450 3A4 inducers will increase the concentration of this medication. DHealthcare providers should be able to report abuse of this medication. EOne of the immediate release formulations of oxycodone (single agent product) is called Oxecta. |
AThis is a C II medication. BCYP 450 3A4 inhibitors will increase the concentration of this medication.
DHealthcare providers should be able to report abuse of this medication. EOne of the immediate release formulations of oxycodone (single agent product) is called Oxecta. |
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A 79 year-old cancer patient has been given a "faces" pain scale to assess their pain episodes. The patient will keep records of their pain in a notebook, including the time, severity and relation to pain medication dosing. Choose the correct statement: Answer AIt is generally preferable to have the spouse or caregiver assess the pain, rather than the patient, since the patient may exaggerate the pain intensity. BIt is not necessary to record the pain's relationship to the medication dosing schedule unless they are using a fentanyl patch or hydromorphone. CIf the patient has repeated episodes of breakthrough pain, the level of the baseline opioid may need to be increased. DIf the patient is using too much medication it is likely that she has become addicted and will need to be slowly weaned off the drug. EIf breakthrough doses are limited to less than 2/day they do not need to be recorded. |
CIf the patient has repeated episodes of breakthrough pain, the level of the baseline opioid may need to be increased. |
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Which of the following agents could result in fatal respiratory depression if taken with any amount of alcohol concurrently due to increased absorption? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AHydrocodone BCarisoprodol CThe Avinza morphine formulation DThe Opana ER oxymorphone formulation ENucynta ER |
CThe Avinza morphine formulation DThe Opana ER oxymorphone formulation ENucynta ER |
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Which of the following brand-generic matches are correct? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer ATizanadine-Norflex BOrphenadrine-Zanaflex CMetaxalone-Skelaxin DCyclobenzaprine-Flexmid EBaclofen-Robaxin |
CMetaxalone-Skelaxin DCyclobenzaprine-Flexmid |
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The pharmacist has a patient who was a chemistry major in high school. The patient's physician has told him to begin daily therapy with 81 mg enteric-coated aspirin. The patient is asking the pharmacist detailed questions regarding this medication. Choose the correct statement/s: (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AAspirin forms an irreversible (covalent) bond to cyclooxygenase I and II. BThe physician recommended an enteric-coated formulation to help decrease nausea from using the medicine. CThe physician recommended an enteric-coated formulation to help decrease the risk of GI bleeding. DAspirin forms a reversible bond to the cyclooxygenase enzymes; ibuprofen forms an irreversible bond to cyclooxygenase enzymes. EA covalent bond means there is a pair of shared valence electrons between the atoms. |
AAspirin forms an irreversible (covalent) bond to cyclooxygenase I and II. BThe physician recommended an enteric-coated formulation to help decrease nausea from using the medicine.
EA covalent bond means there is a pair of shared valence electrons between the atoms. |
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A patient has chronic back pain and requires analgesia that provides an anti-inflammatory response. Previously, the patient had a GI bleed from chronic use of ibuprofen that he was purchasing over-the-counter. The physician will begin celecoxib therapy. The patient has the following medication history: hypertension, elevated triglycerides, myocardial infarction (twice), heart failure and alcoholism. Choose the correct statement regarding celecoxib use in this patient: Answer ACelecoxib use is limited to short-term duration and not for longer than 10 days in this patient. BCelecoxib use is not appropriate therapy. CA more appropriate option is Avinza. DA more appropriate option is Opana. EA more appropriate option is the Lidoderm patch. |
BCelecoxib use is not appropriate therapy. |
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Which of the following signs and symptoms would be present in a patient who has received an overdose of Dilaudid? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer ASedation BShallow breathing, faint breath sounds CCold and clammy skin DTachypnea EPin-point pupils
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ASedation BShallow breathing, faint breath sounds CCold and clammy skin
EPin-point pupils |
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Cindy W. is well-known to your pharmacy. Whenever she picks up her medication she checks her blood pressure on the machine and yells out: "Gosh, it is always so high!" Cindy uses Zestril, Procardia, Tenormin, Celexa and Celebrex. She purchases over-the-counter ibuprofen, magnesium and vitamin D supplements. Which agent/s may be contributing to her elevated blood pressure? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AIbuprofen BCelecoxib CMagnesium DZestril EProcardia |
AIbuprofen BCelecoxib |
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Esther has been using oxycodone immediate release for pain management (as-needed) for the past several months. She cannot swallow most pills and crushes her medications. The physician wishes to provide better pain control and will use a long-acting medication. Which of the following medications represent possible options? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AAvinza BDuragesic CMorphine extended-release (MS Contin) DKadian EMethadose |
AAvinza BDuragesic
DKadian |
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A patient has a history of bipolar disorder with chronic episodes of major depression. In the past she was prescribed oxaprozin, an older NSAID, and developed a GI bleed. She is having her first episode of gout and the prescriber is recommending indomethacin. Allergies include amoxicillin (rash), sulfamethoxazole and carbamazepine. Which statements represent correct advice that could be provided to the prescriber? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AIndomethacin has a high risk for GI toxicity, including ulceration and bleeding. BIndomethacin has a high risk for psychiatric side effects. CIndomethacin cannot be used due to the patient's allergy profile. DThe brand name of indomethacin is Cleocin. EIndomethacin is highly selective for the COX-2 enzyme. |
AIndomethacin has a high risk for GI toxicity, including ulceration and bleeding. BIndomethacin has a high risk for psychiatric side effects. |
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NSAIDs have black box warnings for increased risk of the following serious adverse effects: (Select ALL that apply.) Answer ASerious GI adverse events including bleeding, ulceration, and perforation of the stomach or intestines. BSerious cardiovascular thrombotic events, myocardial infarction, and stroke. CSerious risk of severe rash, including risk of SJS and TEN. DNSAIDs are contraindicated for peri-operative pain management in patients receiving coronary artery bypass graft surgery. EChronic NSAID use can increase the risk of certain types of cancer, including skin cancer and lymphomas. |
ASerious GI adverse events including bleeding, ulceration, and perforation of the stomach or intestines. BSerious cardiovascular thrombotic events, myocardial infarction, and stroke.
DNSAIDs are contraindicated for peri-operative pain management in patients receiving coronary artery bypass graft surgery.
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A 69 year-old female patient asks her doctor for Demerol and states that nothing else works as well for her chronic pain. She has pain that is rated as 8 or 9 out of 10, on a daily basis. The patient has renal insufficiency, with a creatinine clearance estimated at 23 mL/min. Choose the correct statement: Answer AThe patient is not a candidate for opioid therapy. BThe patient can receive the medication, but is limited to 300 mg daily. CThe patient can receive the medication, but is limited to 200 mg daily. DThe patient can receive the medication, but is limited to 100 mg daily. EThe patient should not receive this medication for chronic pain control. |
EThe patient should not receive this medication for chronic pain control. |
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An elderly female with terminal cancer has been taking morphine extended-release 100 mg twice daily for several months. When she was initially increased to this dose, she reported acceptable pain relief. However, the past two weeks the breakthrough pain has increased and she is not sleeping well. The patient may need an increased morphine dose due to the following possibilities: (Select ALL that apply.) Answer A Increased gut absorption BTolerance to the medication CPseudo-addiction DAddiction EWorsened disease severity
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BTolerance to the medication
EWorsened disease severity |
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A patient has been prescribed Lodine. Choose the appropriate generic substitution: Answer AEtodolac BMeloxicam CCelecoxib DNabumetone ESulindac
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AEtodolac |
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Using the fentanyl dosing conversion chart (p. 530 of the 2014 RxPrep Text, or use the pdf of the product labeling) select a correct dose of fentanyl for a patient using Oxycontin 60 mg twice daily. Answer A 12 mcg/hour patch B50 mcg/hour patch C25 mcg/hour patch D100 mcg/hour patch E75 mcg/hour patch |
E75 mcg/hour patch |
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Which of the following medications and doses are roughly equivalent to 30 mg of oral morphine? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer A10 mg oral hydrocodone B10 mg IV oxycodone C10 mg IV morphine D7.5 mg oral hydromorphone E1.5 mg IV hydromorphone
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C10 mg IV morphine D7.5 mg oral hydromorphone E1.5 mg IV hydromorphone |
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A patient has been prescribed Tylenol #3. She comes to the pharmacy window and is heard with a hacking cough and congestion. Choose the correct statement: Answer AThe drug has a high risk of nausea and can worsen or cause constipation. BIt may increase her coughing. CPatients who are poor metabolizers of CYP 450 2D6 may have increased analgesia. DThe combination contains hydrocodone and acetaminophen. ETylenol #3 cannot be used in patients with acute viral illness. |
AThe drug has a high risk of nausea and can worsen or cause constipation. |
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A twelve year-old child presents to the pharmacy with his mother. The child has a sore throat and fever. The mother states that the child used naproxen in the past but it did not help. She gave the child aspirin 325 mg once or twice a day and found it helpful. Choose the correct statement: Answer AThe occasional use of aspirin for mild illness in children is acceptable. BThe aspirin dose should not exceed 4000 mg daily. CShe should be counseled to watch for ringing in the ears due to aspirin toxicity. DShe should be instructed to stop all aspirin use in the child immediately. EIn children it is best to use only enteric-coated aspirin formulations in anyone less than 16 years of age. |
DShe should be instructed to stop all aspirin use in the child immediately. |
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A pharmacist is asked questions regarding the fentanyl patch by the medical team. Which of the following statements are correct? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer ARemove the patch after 3 days. BWash your hands with lots of water after applying the patch. CPlace on skin that is not hairy, but do not shave the skin beforehand. DIt is acceptable to place the patch on skin that has received radiation; many patch users are receiving the patch for cancer pain. EThe fentanyl patch does not require a MedGuide but the injection does. |
ARemove the patch after 3 days. BWash your hands with lots of water after applying the patch. CPlace on skin that is not hairy, but do not shave the skin beforehand. |
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What is the lowest available dose for the fentanyl patch? Answer AA patch that delivers 12.5 mcg/hour BA patch that delivers 25 mcg/hour CA patch that delivers 50 mcg/hour DA patch that delivers 75 mcg/hour EA patch that delivers 100 mcg/hour |
AA patch that delivers 12.5 mcg/hour |
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Which of the following agents has the highest degree of selectivity for cyclooxygenase II? Answer ACerebyx BMobic CCelebrex DIndomethacin ERelafen |
CCelebrex |
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Which of the following analgesic agents are considered serotonergic and should be used carefully in combination with other serotonergic drugs? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AMeperidine BTramadol CCodeine DMethadone EHydromorphone |
AMeperidine BTramadol
DMethadone |
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A prescriber wishes to use hydromorphone in his 55 year old male patient, who is beginning opioid therapy. The patient had been misdiagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis, but was found to have pain due to cancer with metastases to the bone. Select a reasonable oral hydromorphone starting dose for an opioid-naive patient with a pain level of 6-7 during most of the early part of the day, and 9-10 during the later part of the day and during sleep. He is currently taking no other medications. Choose the correct initial dose: Answer A0.5 mg PO Q 4-6 hours B2 mg PO Q 4-6 hours C6 mg PO Q 4-6 hours D8 mg PO Q 4-6 hours E8 mg PO Q 12 hours |
B2 mg PO Q 4-6 hours |
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A patient with nasal polyps and asthma has told the pharmacist that if she uses aspirin she can't breathe. Choose the agents that will be unlikely to trigger a similar reaction in this patient. (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AAcetaminophen BNaproxen CIbuprofen DNabumetone EUltracet |
AAcetaminophen
EUltracet |
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A patient is using Dilaudid 4 mg tablets every 4 hours for severe pain. Which of the following is an appropriate generic substitution for Dilaudid? Answer AOxymorphone BHydromorphone CHydrocodone DMethadone EMorphine
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BHydromorphone |
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A patient is receiving the non-selective non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) ibuprofen. The pharmacist should provide the following counseling: Answer ATake on an empty stomach. BThis medicine is safe to use after coronary heart surgery. CThis medicine can lower your blood pressure. DIf you are using long-term, you may benefit from acid-suppression therapy. EThis medicine is safe to use if pregnant.
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DIf you are using long-term, you may benefit from acid-suppression therapy. |
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Choose the correct statements concerning ketorolac: (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AThe maximum combined duration of treatment (for parenteral and oral) is 5 days. BBegin with oral or nasal therapy and switch to IV as soon as possible. CDo not use for longer than 10 days. DFor pre-operative use only. EDo not use in a patient with bleeding risk. |
AThe maximum combined duration of treatment (for parenteral and oral) is 5 days.
EDo not use in a patient with bleeding risk. |
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A pharmacist is asked questions regarding the fentanyl patch by the medical team. Which of the following statements are correct? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AIf a patient has good pain control for the first two days, but has significant pain on the 3rd day, the dose should be increased to the next level of the patch. BIf the patch is covered, only use the indicated coverings, such as Tegaderm, that do not cause the patch to overheat. CIf you have applied skin moisturizer, wait at least two hours before applying the patch. DAlways rotate the patch application site, and place on flat skin on the upper arm, chest or back. EPlace your hand over the patch and apply pressure when applying to skin for at least 30 seconds |
BIf the patch is covered, only use the indicated coverings, such as Tegaderm, that do not cause the patch to overheat. CIf you have applied skin moisturizer, wait at least two hours before applying the patch. DAlways rotate the patch application site, and place on flat skin on the upper arm, chest or back. EPlace your hand over the patch and apply pressure when applying to skin for at least 30 seconds |
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A patient receiving a non-selective non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) long-term should receive the following counseling: (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AThe medication is safe to use in heart failure if you do not exceed recommended doses. BIf you have hypertension you should limit your salt intake to less than 5 grams of sodium/day. CDo not use if you have experienced breathing problems or other allergic-type reactions from aspirin. DThe medicine should be taken with food in your stomach to help reduce nausea. EMonitor your stool color; if it turns dark and "tarry" looking, you may have stomach bleeding. |
CDo not use if you have experienced breathing problems or other allergic-type reactions from aspirin. DThe medicine should be taken with food in your stomach to help reduce nausea. EMonitor your stool color; if it turns dark and "tarry" looking, you may have stomach bleeding. |
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A patient developed trouble breathing with laryngospasm after receiving an injection of morphine in the hospital. Which of the following agents would not present a cross-reaction for this type of allergy? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AFentanyl BMethadone CMeperidine DTapentadol EOxymorphone
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AFentanyl BMethadone CMeperidine DTapentadol |
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A patient has been prescribed Lyrica. Choose the appropriate generic substitution: Answer AGabapentin BPregabalin CDuloxetine DTizanidine EBaclofen |
BPregabalin |
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A patient has been prescribed Soma. Choose the appropriate generic substitution: Answer ACyclobenzaprine BCarisoprodol CMetaxalone DTizanidine EBaclofen |
BCarisoprodol |
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A patient has burning, stabbing pain that has lasted for years. The physician has told the patient that the pain is due to years of uncontrolled (high) blood sugar. Describe the type of pain experienced by the patient: (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AChronic pain BNeuropathic pain CFibromyalgia DAcute pain EHerpetic neuralgia |
AChronic pain BNeuropathic pain |
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Choose the correct statements concerning Arthrotec: (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AThis drug contains an NSAID and the prostaglandin analog misoprostol. BThe Pregnancy Category is X. CArthrotec is the preferred NSAID in renal disease. DArthrotec is the preferred NSAID in a patient with irritable bowel syndrome. ESignificant side effects are diarrhea and cramping.
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AThis drug contains an NSAID and the prostaglandin analog misoprostol. BThe Pregnancy Category is X.
ESignificant side effects are diarrhea and cramping. |
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Choose the correct over-the-counter dosing for ibuprofen: Answer A200 mg tablets, Q 12 hours, take 1-2 as needed B400 mg tablets, Q 4-6 hours, take 1-2 as needed C100 mg tablets, Q 4-6 hours, take 1-2 as needed D100 mg tablets, Q 6-8 hours, take 1-2 as needed E200 mg tablets, Q 4-6 hours, take 1-2 as needed |
E200 mg tablets, Q 4-6 hours, take 1-2 as needed |
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Auxiliary labels for most opioids should include all of the following except: Answer ADo not use with alcohol. BDo not share with others; keep away from children and animals. CTake with food or milk. DIf long-acting, cut only on the score line and do not crush or chew. EDo not operate a car or dangerous machinery until you see if how you are affected by this medicine.
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DIf long-acting, cut only on the score line and do not crush or chew. |
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Select the usual over-the-counter dosing for naproxen: Answer AOne 100 mg tablets, Q 4-6 hours, take 1-2 as needed BOne 100 mg tablets, Q 6-8 hours, take 1-2 as needed COne 220 mg tablet taken Q 4-6 hours, as needed DOne 220 mg tablet taken twice daily, as needed E400 mg tablets, Q 4-6 hours, take 1-2 as needed
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DOne 220 mg tablet taken twice daily, as needed |
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Choose the correct statement concerning the fentanyl patch: Answer AChange the patch every 7 days, for most patients. BSome patients require a new patch Q 24 hours. CThe patch can be used PRN. DApply to either thigh. EApply above the waist on the front or back, or on the upper arm or chest.
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EApply above the waist on the front or back, or on the upper arm or chest. |
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A patient with rheumatoid arthritis uses daily ibuprofen therapy and requires occasional therapy with prednisone for acute flares. She is reporting abdominal pain, with burning. Upon examination, she is found to have GI ulceration which the physician feels is due to her use of these medications. She is not a candidate for celecoxib. Which medication would provide the strongest protection from NSAID-induced GI ulceration and bleeding? Answer AFamotidine BCalcium acetate CRabeprazole DOfirmev EDiclofenac |
CRabeprazole |
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Jay was in an auto accident six months ago. He suffered a traumatic brain injury with resultant seizures. He has been receiving phenytoin therapy. His other medications include metoprolol extended-release (for hypertension) and citalopram (for depression). Jay was taking ibuprofen for pain, but the pain control has been poor and his stomach upset has become unbearable. Choose the most appropriate treatment option for pain control for this patient at this time: Answer ATramadol BMeperidine CFentanyl patch DPiroxicam EHydrocodone-Acetaminophen
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EHydrocodone-Acetaminophen |
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Practitioners prescribing methadone must be familiar with the safe use of this narcotic. Methadone requires special safety considerations due to the following factors: (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AHigh potential for abuse; never dispense to a patient with an addiction problem. BSerotonergic; caution with other serotonergic agents. CDifficult equianalgesic dose conversion. DVariable duration of action (half-life). EPro-arrhythmic potential, especially at higher doses.
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BSerotonergic; caution with other serotonergic agents. CDifficult equianalgesic dose conversion. DVariable duration of action (half-life). EPro-arrhythmic potential, especially at higher doses. |
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An elderly gentleman has been taking tramadol 50 mg 5-8 times daily for 12 months for back and joint pain. The patient also used lorazepam 1 mg 4-5 times daily over the same time period. If the patient attempts to stop either of these medications, he will experience shakiness, agitation and tachycardia due to the following: Answer APseudo-addiction BDecreased gut absorption CPhysiological dependence, also called physical dependence or physiological adaptation DAddiction, which is a common problem among opioid and benzodiazepine users ETolerance |
CPhysiological dependence, also called physical dependence or physiological adaptation |
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A patient has been using aspirin for pain relief. He takes aspirin multiple times daily. He also suffers from upset stomach and has been using bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol). Drug toxicity from these agents may present as: Answer ASkin rash BDecreased night vision CRinging or other sound in the ears in the absence of noise DArthralgias EAny of the above are possible
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CRinging or other sound in the ears in the absence of noise |
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Hydrocodone comes in many combinations with acetaminophen. Which of the following are hydrocodone-acetaminophen combination products? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer ALortab BLorcet CVicoprofen DVicodin ENorco |
ALortab BLorcet
DVicodin ENorco |
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Which of the following statements concerning fentanyl are correct? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer AFentanyl comes in a patch, SL formulations and an injection. BDrugs that are related chemically to fentanyl and could cross-react with a fentanyl allergy include morphine and hydromorphone. CIf converting to the fentanyl patch from another opioid, use either the dosing conversion table that is in the package insert, or calculate the mg equivalent daily dose, then multiply by 1000 to convert to micrograms, then divide by 24 as the fentanyl patch is dosed in mcg/hour. DFentanyl overdose could result in fatality, due to respiratory depression. EFentanyl is well-absorbed orally through the gut mucosa.
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AFentanyl comes in a patch, SL formulations and an injection.
CIf converting to the fentanyl patch from another opioid, use either the dosing conversion table that is in the package insert, or calculate the mg equivalent daily dose, then multiply by 1000 to convert to micrograms, then divide by 24 as the fentanyl patch is dosed in mcg/hour. DFentanyl overdose could result in fatality, due to respiratory depression. |
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Which of the following agents have a high degree of selectivity for cyclooxygenase II? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer ARelafen BCerebyx CMobic DCelebrex EIndomethacin |
ARelafen
CMobic DCelebrex |
