Bolc Final

Front 1

The Army Health System is responsible for operational management of _____ and _____.

Back 1

Health Service Support; Force Health Management

Front 2

__________ is defined as all the services and support performed, provided and arranged by the AMEDD to promote, improve, conserve, or restore ________? 

Back 2

Health service support; the mental and physcial well being of personnel in the ARMY.

Front 3

What are the three components of the HSS?

Back 3

Causualty Care- inpatient care, hospitalization, dental treatment, psychiatric treatment, CLINICAL laboratory services etc.

 

Medical evacuation- including medical regulating and en route care.

 

MEDLOG (logistics)- including subcomponents and services.

Front 4

Force Health Protection promotes the mental and physical well being of personnel by promoting ________ as opposed to ________, which is a function of HSS.

Back 4

preventation aspects; restoration

Front 5

What are the components of Force Health Protection?

Back 5

preventative medicine, veterinary services, laboratory services and support, preventative aspects of dental services, combat and operational stress control.

Front 6

There are ________ Roles of medical care across the ARMY system.

Back 6

4:

 

Role 1- battalion aid station, immediate life saving measures.

 

Role 2- advanced trauma management, xray and dental support, preventative medicine, patient hold, MEDLOG, medical evaluations

 

Role 3- combat support hospital, initial wound surgery and post-op treatment, damage control surgery, hospitalization, medical regulation, pharmacy.

 

role 4- full spectrum, OCONUS or CONUS.

Front 7

The ________ is a staff officer that plans and monitors the execution of the AHS mission; this person is the technical supervisor of medical operations but __________.

Back 7

command surgeon, is NOT a commander (can recommend procedures and policy, but cannot give orders to subordinate units except through unit plans and orders).

Front 8

T/F A command surgeon is designated at all levels of command.

Back 8

Truth.

Front 9

Name the pre-deployment healthcare requirements.

Back 9

DNA specimen, immunizations, 2 pairs eyeglasses, hearing aid/batteries, medical warning tags, preventitive medical threat brief, medical records review, pregnancy test, prescriptions (90 day supply), behavioral health assessment, HIV screening and blood to repository, DD 2766 (preventative and chronic care flowsheet).

 

no permanent profile 3 or 4 can deploy without review by medical review board and retention by Physical evaluation board.

Front 10

Pre-deployment health assessment is DD form _____.

Back 10

2795.

Front 11

DD 2795 must be completed within ______ days of deployment and must be validated as current within ____ days of deployment.

Back 11

120; 60.

 

 

Part 1 is filled out online and part 2 with provider- part 2 must be filled out within 30 days of part 1.

Front 12

How is the DD 2795 accessed on AKO?

Back 12

self service>my medical>select health assesments> deployment health assessments> select DD 2795 and complete it 

Front 13

DD form 2796 is the _____, and is accessed how?

Back 13

post-deployment healthcare assessment, accessed the same way as DD 2795, but 2796 is selected on AKO.

 

Part 1 is generally filled out while still deployed, but within 30 days of part 2.

Front 14

What does the PDHA focuse on?

Back 14

general health questions, environmental/ exposure questions, behavioral questions.

Front 15

3 potential sources of environmental exposure include?

Back 15

ambient environment, occupational exposure, wartime agent usage.

Front 16

When is the post-deployment health reassessment filled out? 

Back 16

within 90-180 days of re-deployment.

 

part 1 filled out online within 30 days of part 2.

 

Part 2 must be filled out with a provider.

 

accessed same way as  DD 2795/2796 but 2900 is selected on AKO.

Front 17

______ is to clear an area and obtain control of it. This necessitates physical occupation.

Back 17

Seize.

Front 18

Define the operational term "secure."

Back 18

To gain possession of a postion or terrain without force.

 

Deployed in a manner that prevents physical destruction or loss to the enemy.

 

Physical occupation is NOT necessary.

 

Front 19

To render the opposing force combat ineffective unless reconstituted.

Back 19

destroy.

 

this is PHYSICAL destruction over PSYCHOLOGICAL destruction.

Front 20

To disrupt/nullify the enemy's plan and or subdue his will to fight so he is either unwilling or unable to pursue his mission.

Back 20

Defeat.

 

May or may not entail the destruction of any part of the enemy force.

 

PSYCHOLOGICAL over PHYSICAL destruction.

Front 21

What are the three types of BCTs?

Back 21

armored, stryker, infantry.

 

armored has tanks and mechanized infantry/ bradley fighting vehicles.

 

stryker rapidly deployable, more firepower than infantry, but less rapid than infantry.

 

Infantry most versatile on terrain and rapidly deployable.

Front 22

Armored BCTs are capable of (3)?

Back 22

sustained combat operations, rapid movement, security operations for larger forces.

Front 23

A staff helps the commander to?

Back 23

understand, visualize, describe, and direct the battle.

 

establishes and maintains coordination and cooperation both internally and with staff of higher, lower and adajcent units.

 

Exists at battalion level and higher.

Front 24

The three units that include organic medical platoons are?

Back 24

maneuver battalion, RSTA squadron (recon, surveillance, target aquisition), field artillery battalion.

Front 25

The BN aid station is located where on the battlefield?

Back 25

 within the unit's Area of responsibility (AOR), located within the combat trains command post.

Front 26

Name the medical platoon HQ's responsibilities (6).

Back 26

mission command, manages the battalion's evacuation assests (to include coordinating MEDEVAC), manages the battalion's medical logistics, manages the platoon's maintenance program, develops the battalion HSS/ FHP plan, normally co located with a treatment squad to form the Battalion Aid station.

Front 27

The ______ is in charge of command and control at the Company Casualty Collection Point.

Back 27

company 1SG.

Front 28

The mission of both types of medical companies is to provide ______ medical care to those battalions with ________. They provide _______ on an area support basis to units without organic Army Health System assets.

Back 28

Role 2, organic medical platoons. Role 1+2.

Front 29

The Brigade support medical company (BSMC) functions to?

Back 29

 

support a brigade combat team; assigned to a brigade support battalion.

 

"Charlie Company"

 

three types of BCTs:

 

Armor, Stryker, Infantry

Front 30

The Area support medical company (ASMC) functions to? 

Back 30

support units without organic AHS assets.

 

these are tasked under multifunctional medical battalions.

Front 31

What are the capabilities of Role 2?

Back 31

MEDEVAC, patient holding (up to 40 patients for 72 hours), Dental services, lab and x-ray services, blood storage, behavioral health, preventative medicine, physical therapy, medical logistics.

Front 32

The BMSC evacuation platoon primarily functions to perform _______ from lower roles to higher roles of care, pre-position _______ at lower roles, ______ ambulances from supported units, and maybe requires to establish _______ or a ______ system.

Back 32

ground evac, ambulances, reconstitute/reinforce, ambulance exchange points, shuttle.

Front 33

Behavioral Health is responsible for assisting commanders in ________.

Back 33

preventing and controlling operational stress throughout BCT and for units within their assigned AOR.

Front 34

Mission of a treatment squad?

Back 34

to reconstitute and reinforce treatment squads of a battalion aid station, and to provide limited sick call services to soliders within their assigned area.

Front 35

Name EAB medical units.

Back 35

Medical logistics- MEDLOG company, blood support detachment

 

ground ambulance company, combat operational stress control detachment, area medical laboratory, preventative medicine detachment, dental company, veterinary detachment, CSH, minimal care detachment

 

medical treatment- area support medical companies (ASMC) and forward surgical team

 

command units- MEDCOM, MMB, MEDBDE

 

 

Front 36

define FST.

Back 36

FST functions as a rapidly deployable immediate surgical capability forward in the division AOR, enabling patients to withstand further evacuation.

 

20 person team with two ORs, can handle up to 30 patients within 72 hour period.

Front 37

a _____ is a 248 bed role 3 unit that is designed to support surgical and hospitalization requirements.

Back 37

Combat surgical hospital (CSH).

Front 38

MEDLOG company provides ______, ______, ______, and ______ to EAB units operating within its AOR.

Back 38

medical maintenance, medical material, single and multi- vision optical lens fabrication and repair, and patient movement items.

Front 39

Two primary missions of USAF Health Service support include ______ and ______.

Back 39

aeronautical evacuation, expeditionary medicine

Front 40

EMEDs deployable force modules include?

Back 40

EMEDs HRT, EMEDs +10 (36 hours), EMEDs +25 (60 hours).

 

Capabilities increase as timeline increases.

Front 41

Full accounting requires what two things (in preservation of remains)?

Back 41

proper ID and explanation as to the cause and manner of death.

Front 42

What are the steps in theater mortuary affairs?

Back 42

initial search and recovery- unit level

tentative ID

coordinated evac

CBRNE decontamination (if needed)

personal effects

Front 43

Flow of remains in combat or combat like conditions?

Back 43

BN TF to BSA MACP (mortuary affairs collection point), TSC MACP (could also be straight from BN TF to TSC MACP), TMEP, DOVER AFB (air force base), deceased's family.

 

BSA- brigade support area

TSC- theater support center

TMEP- theater mortuary affairs evacuation point

Front 44

The three types of orders are?

Back 44

operation order- directive from a commander to coordinate the execution of an operation

 

warning order- preliminary notice of an order

 

fragmentary order- timely changes of existing orders

 

Front 45

The paragraphs of OPORD include?

Back 45

situation, mission, execution, sustainment, command and signal.

Front 46

What does the situation paragraph of OPORD include?

Back 46

areas of interest- area of concern to the commander

 

areas of operations- defined by the joint force commander, large enough to accomplish mission. This includes terrain, weather, 

 

enemy- info from S2

 

friendly forces- mission and intent

 

interagency and nongovt organizations, civil considerations, attachments and detachments, assumptions

 

 

Front 47

What does the execution paragraph of OPORD include?

Back 47

"how to information needed for mission accomplishment"

 

commander's intent- key tasks, purpose, and end state of the operation.

 

concept of operations- directs the manner in which subordinate units cooperate and accomplish the mission

 

scheme of movement and maneuver, intelligence, fire, protection, stability operations, assessment, tasks to subordinate units, coordinating instructions, 

Front 48

Ten AMEDD functional areas?

Back 48

medical treatment, evac and medical regulating, preventative medicine, medical logistics and blood management, medical mission command, hospitalization, combat operation stress control, dental, vet, lab services

Front 49

Medical battlefield rules?

Back 49

maintain a presence with the solider, prevent injuries, save lives, provide state of the art care, return soldiers to battlefield ASAP

Front 50

_______ ensures medical influence over the execution of medical evacuation operations, and that med evac is arrayed on the battlefield properly

Back 50

conformity

Front 51

 

_______ is to provide medical support at the right time and place and as close to the battlefield as possible

Back 51

proximity

Front 52

The principle of _______ is defined by coordination of air and ground assets, and the ability to task organize and relocate medical evac to meet changing battlefield requirements

Back 52

flexibility

Front 53

The ability to maneuver and maintain contact with supported combat forces, vehicle hardening?

Back 53

mobility

Front 54

The principle of ______ dictates that no patient should be evacuated further than physical condition or military situation requires.

Back 54

continuity. optimum care in uninterrupted manner.

Front 55

The principle of ______ ensures quality and scope of medical care, as well as efficiently employed resources.

Back 55

control.

Front 56

A composite of the conditions, circumstances, and influences that affect the employment of military forces and bear on the decisions of the unit commander.

Back 56

the operational environment. "all the conditions that affect where soldiers live, work, and fight"

Front 57

A _______ is defined as a deliberate planned combat operation to move personnel and/or cargo via ground transportation in a secure manner under a single commander. 

Back 57

tactical convoy

Front 58

T/F there are passengers in a tactical convoy.

Back 58

FALSE.

Front 59

What are the organizational roles in a convoy?

Back 59

convoy commander, asst convoy commander, security element commander, navigator, vehicle (truck) commander, driver, gunner, designated marksman, medics/combat lifesavers, aid and litter team.

 

additionally, landing zone, enemy prisoner of war, and recovery teams.

Front 60

What are the TLPs for a convoy operation?

Back 60

recieve the mission- determine risks via CRM, determine resources

 

issue the WARNO- destination, timeline, manifest

 

make a tentative plan- using METT-TC

 

start necessary movement- identify vehicles and personnel, load vehicles, rehearse

 

conduct recon- enemy tactics movement, terrain

 

complete the plan, issue the convoy brief, supervise

Front 61

Fundamentals of IED defeat?

Back 61

predict- analyze and plan route

 

detect- intel, surveillance, recon assets

 

prevent- obtain current route status, avoid predicatbility, employ CREW

 

neutralize- C-IED enablers, ordinance disposal

 

mitigate- "mitigate effects on soldiers and equipment" using hardened vehicles, maximize standoff, incorporate unmanned vehicles etc. 

Front 62

_______ are integrated into the planning, preparation, and execution of all missions involving operations in which potential for IEDs exist. Must be integrated into training and mission execution.

Back 62

nine principles of C-IED.

Front 63

What are CREW systems?

Back 63

these are counter radio controlled IED electronic warfare devices that disrupt receivers from "hearing" transmitters by jamming.