Anatomy & Physiology Ch 11-20

Front 1

Which of the following is secreted by neurosecretory cells in the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

Back 1

Antidiuretic hormone

Front 2

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is caused by

Back 2

a disorder of the immune system

Front 3

Growth hormone release is stimulated by

Back 3

growth hormone releasing hormone.

Front 4

The secretion of hormones from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is largely controlled by

Back 4

releasing hormones from the hypothalamus.

Front 5

Treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus usually includes

Back 5

controlling the diet, exercising regularly, maintaining desirable body weight, reducing sugar intake

Front 6

Cancer patients often develop endocrine disorders because

Back 6

cancer cells sometimes secrete hormones inappropriately

Front 7

Aldosterone promotes the homeostasis of ions by causing the kidneys to

Back 7

conserve sodium and excrete potassium.

Front 8

Parathyroid hormone stimulates

Back 8

osteoclast activity

Front 9

An example of a hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla is

Back 9

epinephrine

Front 10

Cretinism is caused by

Back 10

hypothyroidism

Front 11

The pancreas functions as both an endocrine gland and as an exocrine gland.

Back 11

TRUE

Front 12

A person who is experiencing the effects of chronic stress usually has

Back 12

increased blood pressure

Front 13

A group of lipids called prostaglandins act as "local hormones" on a variety of tissues.

Back 13

TRUE

Front 14

Growth hormone

Back 14

promotes the movement of amino acids into cells only, increases the rate of cell division only, increases the rate of fat metabolism only, promotes bone growth only

Front 15

The secretion of pituitary hormones is largely controlled by the hypothalamus.

Back 15

TRUE

Front 16

The sex hormones from the adrenal cortex are primarily androgens.

Back 16

TRUE

Front 17

The neurons that stimulate secretions from cells of the adrenal medulla are best described as

Back 17

sympathetic neurons

Front 18

Insulin causes

Back 18

a decrease in the concentration of blood glucose.

Front 19

Thyroxine

Back 19

increases the rate at which proteins are synthesized

Front 20

The hormone that decreases the plasma calcium concentration is

Back 20

calcitonin

Front 21

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Increases water absorption at the kidney

Back 21

ADH

Front 22

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Uterine contraction

Back 22

Oxytocin

Front 23

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Stimulates the thyroid gland to make thyroid hormone

Back 23

TSH

Front 24

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Stimulates the adrenal cortex to release its hormones

Back 24

ACTH

Front 25

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Stimulates sperm and egg production

Back 25

FSH

Front 26

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Triggers ovulation and hleps to produce testosterone

Back 26

LH

Front 27

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Stimulates milk production

Back 27

PRL

Front 28

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Repair, maintenance and increase cellular size

Back 28

GH

Front 29

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Regulates the metabolism of glucose

Back 29

T3 and T4

Front 30

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Stimulates osteoblasts to lower blood calcium levels

Back 30

Calcitonin

Front 31

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Stimulates octeoclasts to increase blood calcium levels

Back 31

PTH

Front 32

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Increases sodium retention in the kidneys

Back 32

Aldosterone

Front 33

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Resist long term stressors

Back 33

Cortisol

Front 34

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Activates the "fight or flight" mechanism

Back 34

Epinphrine and norepinephrine

Front 35

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Production of sperm

Back 35

Testosterone

Front 36

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

A variety of female reproductive functions

Back 36

Estrogen

Front 37

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Hypoglycemia

Back 37

Insulin

Front 38

Match the following descriptions with the hormone associted with that function.

Stimulates the conversion of glycogen to glucose in the liver

Back 38

Glucagon

Front 39

Oxytocin acts on the myoepithelial cells of the breasts and causes them to eject breast milk.

Back 39

TRUE

Front 40

Match the following endocrine glands with their proper location.

Hypothalamus

Back 40

Diencephalon

Front 41

Match the following endocrine glands with their proper location.

Pituitary

Back 41

Inferior to the optic chiasm

Front 42

Match the following endocrine glands with their proper location.

Thyroid

Back 42

Anterior, inferior cervical region

Front 43

Match the following endocrine glands with their proper location.

Parathyroid

Back 43

On the posterior part of the thyroid gland

Front 44

Match the following endocrine glands with their proper location.

Adrenal

Back 44

Superior border of the kidneys

Front 45

Match the following endocrine glands with their proper location.

Pancreas

Back 45

Directly posterior and inferior to the stomach

Front 46

Match the following endocrine glands with their proper location.

Testes

Back 46

Scrotum

Front 47

Match the following endocrine glands with their proper location.

Ovaries

Back 47

Pelvic region

Front 48

Match the following endocrine glands with their proper location.

Thymus

Back 48

Superior, anterior border of the heart

Front 49

Match the following endocrine glands with their proper location.

Pineal

Back 49

Epithalamus

Front 50

A person with an abnormally high metabolic rate, who is underweight and who has protruding eyes is exhibiting symptoms of

Back 50

hyperthyroidism

Front 51

Which of the following hormones exerts its effect primarily on the reproductive organs?

Back 51

Follicle-stimulating hormone

Front 52

Hormone concentrations are regulated by

Back 52

levels of substances in the blood only

Front 53

Diabetes insipidus is caused by

Back 53

. a lack of ADH.

Front 54

Steroid hormones produce their effects by

Back 54

activating genes

Front 55

Diabetes mellitus is characterized by

Back 55

glucose in the urine, excess urine production, dehydration, increased thirst

Front 56

Cortisol

Back 56

stimulates the production of glucose from noncarbohydrates

Front 57

Melanocyte-stimulating hormone, which regulates the formation of melanin, is produced by the

Back 57

pineal gland

Front 58

The secretion of parathyroid hormone is controlled primarily by the

Back 58

plasma calcium concentration

Front 59

Prothrombin time is a blood test used to evaluate

Back 59

blood clotting

Front 60

Vitamin B12 is important for the production of red blood cells because it is utilized in the synthesis of intrinsic factor.

Back 60

FALSE

Front 61

Plasma contains fibrinogen, serum does not.

Back 61

TRUE

Front 62

Which of the following is an agranulocyte?

Back 62

Monocyte

Front 63

Which of the following usually accounts for the smallest percentage of leukocytes in a blood sample?

Back 63

Basophils

Front 64

The most active phagocytic cells among the leukocytes are

Back 64

. neutrophils and monocytes.

Front 65

Of the plasma electrolytes, the most abundant are

Back 65

sodium and chloride ions.

Front 66

Two substances that are useful for dissolving blood clots are

Back 66

urokinase and streptokinase.

Front 67

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

This cell is anucleated and has virtually no organelles

Back 67

Red blood cell

Front 68

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

It carries oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from tissue

Back 68

Red blood cell

Front 69

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

It is always the most abundant cell in any blood sample

Back 69

Red blood cell

Front 70

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

It is the blood cell typically associated with anemia

Back 70

Red blood cell

Front 71

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

this cell lives 90-120 days and is removed from circulation by the spleen and liver

Back 71

Red blood cell

Front 72

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

It is the most abundant leukocyte in a normal blood sample

Back 72

Neutrophil

Front 73

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

A high percentage of this cell is seen in a person with an acute bacterial infection

Back 73

Neutrophil

Front 74

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

It is a granulocyte that functions through the process of phagocytosis

Back 74

Neutrophil

Front 75

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

It is the second most common type of leukocyte seen in a normal blood sample

Back 75

Lymphocyte

Front 76

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

It is the precursor for both B-cells and T-cells

Back 76

Lymphocyte

Front 77

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

This cell will eventually differentiate to make antibodies or cytotoxic cells that assist in the immune response

Back 77

Lymphocyte

Front 78

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

It is the largest of all leukocytes

Back 78

Monocytes

Front 79

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

This leukocyte is seen in abundance during a chronic infection

Back 79

Monocytes

Front 80

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

It is an agranulocyte the functions through the process of phagocytosis

Back 80

Monocytes

Front 81

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

This leukocyte is seen in abundance during an allergic reaction

Back 81

Eosinophil

Front 82

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

This leukocyte is seen in abundance during a parasitic infection

Back 82

Eosinophil

Front 83

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

This is the rarest of all leukocytes seen in a normal blood sample

Back 83

Basophil

Front 84

Match the following descriptions with the proper blood cell it describes.

This leukocyte causes the release of histamine which triggers inflammation

Back 84

Basophil

Front 85

The biconcave cells in blood that lack nuclei when they are mature are the

Back 85

red blood cells.

Front 86

Hematocrit is

Back 86

the percent of red blood cells in a blood sample

Front 87

The condition called cyanosis is caused by an increased blood concentration of

Back 87

carbon dioxide.

Front 88

The red blood cells of type AB blood have on their surfaces

Back 88

antigens A and B.

Front 89

Sickle cell disease, in which red blood cells contain abnormal hemoglobin, is caused by

Back 89

a mutation

Front 90

The basic event in the formation of a blood clot is the change of

Back 90

fibrinogen to fibrin.

Front 91

A platelet plug is formed when fibrinogen is converted to fibrin.

Back 91

FALSE

Front 92

Platelets are best defined as

Back 92

cytoplasmic fragments of cells

Front 93

Which of the following elements is included in hemoglobin molecules?

Back 93

Iron

Front 94

Patients with leukemia have a tendency to bleed because they have a deficiency of

Back 94

platelets

Front 95

A primary function of lymphocytes is to

Back 95

act against foreign substances

Front 96

The most important action of plasma albumins is

Back 96

helping to maintain blood osmotic pressure.

Front 97

Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented by treating

Back 97

Rh-negative mothers with anti-Rh agglutinin

Front 98

Persons with type AB blood are sometimes called universal donors

Back 98

FALSE

Front 99

A red blood cell contains a large nucleus; it is thicker near the center and thin around the rim of the cell.

Back 99

FALSE

Front 100

Nonprotein nitrogenous substances include

Back 100

amino acids, urea, uric acid, creatine

Front 101

Which of the following is not required in the formation of a blood clot?

Back 101

Albumin (Calcium, Fibrinogen, Prothrombin, Vitamin K)

Front 102

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of parts through which blood moves from the vena cava to the lungs?

Back 102

Right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve

Front 103

Impulses carried to the heart by means of fibers that secrete acetylcholine are

Back 103

parasympathetic impulses and cause the heart rate to decrease

Front 104

When the ventricular walls contract, the

Back 104

bicuspid and tricuspid valves close

Front 105

The cardiovascular system consists of all of the following except

Back 105

lungs

Front 106

Arteries are strong, elastic vessels that carry blood to the heart.

Back 106

FALSE

Front 107

Which type of blood vessel serves as a blood reservoir?

Back 107

Vein

Front 108

In an ECG pattern, the T wave is caused by

Back 108

repolarization of ventricular muscle fibers.

Front 109

In an ECG pattern, the P wave is caused by

Back 109

depolarization of atrial muscle fibers.

Front 110

Which of the following helps return blood to the heart?

Back 110

Contracting skeletal muscles

Front 111

Which of the following is not a risk factor for atherosclerosis?

Back 111

Diet high in unsaturated fats (High blood pressure, Lack of physical exercise, Obesity, Tobacco smoking)

Front 112

The SA node relays nerve impulses into the AV bundle of the interventricular septum and the AV node is responsible for the rhythmic contractions of the heart.

Back 112

FALSE

Front 113

The density of capillaries within a tissue varies directly with the tissue's

Back 113

rate of metabolism

Front 114

The pulmonary circuit

Back 114

sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs

Front 115

Because net inward pressure in venular capillary ends is less than net outward pressure at the arteriolar ends of capillaries

Back 115

more fluid leaves the capillaries than returns.

Front 116

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

Receives blood from the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava and coronary veins

Back 116

Right atrium

Front 117

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

Separates the right atrium from the right ventricle

Back 117

Tricuspid valve

Front 118

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

Prevents the AV valves from prolapsing during ventricular contraction

Back 118

Chordae tendinae

Front 119

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

Propels blood to and through the pulmonary cycle

Back 119

Right ventricle,

Front 120

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

Takes blood from the right ventricle to the lungs

Back 120

Pulmonary artery

Front 121

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

When blood leaves the heart to travel through the pulmonary circuit it will go through this tissue

Back 121

Pulmonary valve

Front 122

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

Separates the right and left ventricle

Back 122

Interventricular septum

Front 123

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

Carries oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart

Back 123

Pulmonary veins

Front 124

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

The valve that separates the left atrium and ventricle

Back 124

Mitral valve

Front 125

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

The largest and most powerful chamber of the heart

Back 125

Left ventricle

Front 126

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

The last valve that blood goes through before going to the system

Back 126

Aortic valve

Front 127

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

The pacemaker of the heart

Back 127

SA node

Front 128

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

Delays the heart conduction to the ventricles for a brief second so that the atriums can contract

Back 128

AV node

Front 129

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

Carries the nerve conduction from the AV node into the proximal septum

Back 129

Bundle of His

Front 130

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

Carries the nerve conduction through the septum

Back 130

Bundle branches

Front 131

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

Carries the nerve conduction from the septum and wraps around each ventricle

Back 131

Purkinjie fibers

Front 132

Blood from the face and scalp is drained by the

Back 132

external jugular vein.

Front 133

Venules continue from capillaries to form veins, which carry blood back to the atria.

Back 133

TRUE

Front 134

Sympathetic branches of the autonomic nervous system stimulate smooth muscle in artery and arteriole walls to

Back 134

contract

Front 135

The blood pressure in the systemic arteries is greatest during

Back 135

ventricular systole

Front 136

Which of the following is not a branch of the aorta?

Back 136

Pulmonary artery

Front 137

Osmotic pressure forces molecules in the blood out through capillary walls.

Back 137

FALSE

Front 138

The effect on the heart of excess potassium ion concentration usually is

Back 138

decreased rate and decreased force of contraction.

Front 139

Veins function as blood reservoirs whenever blood pressure increases by venous walls constricting.

Back 139

FALSE

Front 140

The tissue that forms a loose-fitting sac around the heart is the

Back 140

fibrous pericardium

Front 141

The pain of angina pectoris comes from a blockage in an artery that supplies the

Back 141

heart

Front 142

Which of the following structures consists of self-exciting tissue?

Back 142

Sinoatrial node

Front 143

An injection of antibodies produces active immunity

Back 143

FALSE

Front 144

The most active phagocytic cells in circulating blood are

Back 144

neutrophils and monocytes.

Front 145

The type of resistance that is a response to contracting an infectious disease is

Back 145

naturally acquired active immunity.

Front 146

T lymphocytes are responsible for

Back 146

the cellular immune response.

Front 147

A newborn infant may have some defense against digestive and respiratory disturbances because of IgA obtained from its mother's

Back 147

milk

Front 148

HIV infects

Back 148

macrophages

Front 149

In an autoimmune disease, the immune response is directed toward

Back 149

cells of the body ("self")

Front 150

The cells that are primarily responsible for immunity are

Back 150

lymphocytes and macrophages

Front 151

Stephanie has her cancerous right breast removed, and the surgeon also removes lymph nodes in the axillary region. As a result, Stephanie's right arm

Back 151

becomes edematous

Front 152

The spleen

Back 152

is a blood reservoir, responds to low oxygen concentration, contains many macrophages, resembles a large lymph node divided into nodules

Front 153

During the primary immune response, B cells give rise to plasma cells.

Back 153

TRUE

Front 154

The two collecting ducts that drain the lymphatic trunks ar

Back 154

the thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct

Front 155

Which of the following is an example of a specific body defense mechanism?

Back 155

Immunity

Front 156

The movement of lymph through lymphatic vessels is caused largely by

Back 156

muscular activity

Front 157

The thymus may destroy older red blood cells.

Back 157

FALSE

Front 158

Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

Back 158

Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, Multiple sclerosis, Type 1 diabetes mellitus, Systemic lupus erythematosus

Front 159

The region of a lymph node through which blood vessels pass is called the

Back 159

hilum

Front 160

Interferon is a group of proteins that cells produce in response to

Back 160

viruses

Front 161

The formation of lymph increases as a result of

Back 161

increasing osmotic pressure in tissue fluid.

Front 162

As a result of the allergen-antibody reaction, mast cells release histamine.

Back 162

TRUE

Front 163

Cells in a lymph node that engulf and destroy damaged cells, foreign substances, and cellular debris are

Back 163

macrophages

Front 164

The structure of a lymphatic vessel is most similar to that of a(an)

Back 164

vein

Front 165

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

Skin

Back 165

Primary

Front 166

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

Mucous membranes

Back 166

Primary

Front 167

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

Lysozymes in saliva

Back 167

Primary

Front 168

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

HCl in the stomach

Back 168

Primary

Front 169

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

Neutrophils and other macrophages

Back 169

Secondary

Front 170

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

Natural killer cells

Back 170

Secondary

Front 171

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

Inflammation

Back 171

Secondary

Front 172

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

Complements

Back 172

Secondary

Front 173

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

Interferon

Back 173

Secondary

Front 174

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

Fever

Back 174

Secondary

Front 175

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

B-cells

Back 175

Humoral

Front 176

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

Plasma cells

Back 176

Humoral

Front 177

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

Antibodies

Back 177

Humoral

Front 178

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

T-cells

Back 178

Cell mediated

Front 179

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

Cytotoxic T-cells

Back 179

Cell mediated

Front 180

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

Helper T-cells

Back 180

Cell mediated

Front 181

Match the following descriptions with whether it is a primary, secondary, humoral or a cell mediated line of defense

Antigen presenting cells

Back 181

Cell mediated

Front 182

The thymus is in the mediastinum behind the sternum.

Back 182

TRUE

Front 183

In HIV infection, reverse transcriptase

Back 183

makes DNA from viral RNA.

Front 184

Excess fluid is kept from accumulating in tissue spaces by

Back 184

the lymphatic system.

Front 185

The hormone secretin

Back 185

stimulates the release of pancreatic fluid

Front 186

Food passing from the stomach through the small intestine first passes into the duodenum, then the jejunum and lastly the ileum.

Back 186

TRUE

Front 187

Gastrin, which stomach cells secrete

Back 187

increases the secretion by the gastric glands

Front 188

The epithelial cells that form the inner lining of the small intestine

Back 188

are replaced every few days

Front 189

Gallstones are usually composed of

Back 189

cholesterol

Front 190

Acute pancreatitis is often caused by the conversion of

Back 190

trypsinogen to trypsin

Front 191

The results of poor nutrition from lack of nutrients or failure to use them is

Back 191

malnutrition

Front 192

Vitamin E, a fat-soluble vitamin, is destroyed by cooking.

Back 192

FALSE

Front 193

Which constituent of bile has a digestive function?

Back 193

Bile salts

Front 194

The digestive system

Back 194

mechanically and chemically breaks down food for nutrient absorption

Front 195

Lactose intolerance is caused by

Back 195

deficiency of lactase

Front 196

Jaundice, which is characterized by a yellowish tinge to the tissues, is due to an increased blood concentration of

Back 196

bile pigments

Front 197

Microorganisms promote the development of dental cavities by metabolizing carbohydrates and releasing by-products that are

Back 197

acidic

Front 198

The American Heart Association recommends that the percentage of calories in a person's diet derived from fats should not exceed

Back 198

30%.

Front 199

The parietal cells of gastric glands secrete

Back 199

hydrochloric acid.

Front 200

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description

Where chemical digestion begins

Back 200

Mouth

Front 201

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description

Where peristalsis begins

Back 201

Pharynx

Front 202

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description

Connects the pharynx to the stomach

Back 202

Esophagus

Front 203

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description

Where protein digestion primarily occurs

Back 203

Stomach

Front 204

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description

Where most of the absorption occurs

Back 204

Small intestine

Front 205

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description

Forms fecal matter

Back 205

Large intestine

Front 206

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description

Secretes digestive enzymes into the mouth

Back 206

Salivary glands

Front 207

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description

Makes and secretes bile

Back 207

Liver

Front 208

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description

Stores and secretes bile

Back 208

Gallbladder

Front 209

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description

Secretes the majority of digestive enzymes

Back 209

Pancreas

Front 210

Because of their location, swollen palatine tonsils may interfere with

Back 210

both breathing and swallowing

Front 211

The cecum is located at the inferior end of the descending colon.

Back 211

FALSE

Front 212

Cholecystokinin secretion from the intestinal wall is stimulated by the presence of

Back 212

proteins and fats in the small intestine

Front 213

During the defecation reflex,

Back 213

. the diaphragm lowers

Front 214

A hiatal hernia is due to a weakness of the

Back 214

diaphragm

Front 215

The uvula is

Back 215

a projection of the soft palate

Front 216

One of the major functions of the large intestine is to

Back 216

reabsorb water from chyme

Front 217

The greater omentum is composed of

Back 217

the peritoneal membrane

Front 218

The correct sequence for the layers within the wall of the alimentary canal from inside to outside is

Back 218

mucosa, submucosa, muscular layer, serosa.

Front 219

Plant proteins typically contain less than adequate amounts of

Back 219

essential amino acids.

Front 220

Cholecystokinin, a hormone released from intestinal mucosa by the presence of fats, stimulates the gallbladder to contract and release bile into the duodenum.

Back 220

TRUE

Front 221

Severe liver damage would most likely affect digestion of

Back 221

lipids

Front 222

Which of the following is a protein-splitting enzyme found in pancreatic juice?

Back 222

Trypsin

Front 223

The main part of the stomach is called the

Back 223

body

Front 224

The movement of chyme through the small intestine is increased by parasympathetic impulses and is inhibited by sympathetic impulses.

Back 224

TRUE

Front 225

Which of the following would be most helpful for forceful expiration?

Back 225

abdominal wall muscles

Front 226

Hyperventilation causes

Back 226

a decrease in plasma pCO2.

Front 227

Microorganisms trapped in the mucus of the nasal cavity eventually end up in the

Back 227

stomach

Front 228

Carbon monoxide bonds to hemoglobin more strongly than does oxygen.

Back 228

TRUE

Front 229

Breathing rate is most likely to increase if the blood level of

Back 229

carbon dioxide increases.

Front 230

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

Houses the adenoids

Back 230

Nasopharynx

Front 231

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

Houses the palatine tonsils

Back 231

Oropharynx

Front 232

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

The distal end of the pharynx

Back 232

Laryngopharynx

Front 233

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

Covers the larynx during swallowing

Back 233

Epiglottis

Front 234

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

Houses the vocal cords

Back 234

Larynx

Front 235

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

Has hyaline cartilage lining its tube

Back 235

Trachea

Front 236

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

It is the first tube to enter each lung

Back 236

Primary bronchi

Front 237

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

It is the first tube to enter each lobe of the lung

Back 237

Secondary bronchi

Front 238

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

It is the smallest of all air tubes

Back 238

Bronchiole

Front 239

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its best description/function.

It is considered the functional piece of tissue in a lung

Back 239

Alveoli

Front 240

Laryngitis is potentially dangerous condition because it may cause

Back 240

obstruction of the airway

Front 241

A breathing pattern that eliminates too much CO2 is called hyperventilation.

Back 241

TRUE

Front 242

The glottis is the opening between the vocal cords.

Back 242

TRUE

Front 243

Hyperventilation causes

Back 243

a decrease in plasma pCO2

Front 244

Carbaminohemoglobin is formed when hemoglobin bonds

Back 244

amino acids

Front 245

Which of the following is a value that cannot be measured or calculated using a simple spirometer?

Back 245

total lung capacity (tidal volume, vital capacity, expiratory reserve volume, inspiratory reserve volume)

Front 246

The procedure used to directly examine the trachea and bronchial tree is called

Back 246

bronchoscopy

Front 247

The muscular action that causes air to move into the lungs during inspiration is provided by

Back 247

the diaphragm

Front 248

The receptors of the inflation reflex are most sensitive to

Back 248

stretch

Front 249

Most of the inspired air eventually ends up in the

Back 249

alveoli

Front 250

The amount of air that enters or leaves the lungs during a respiratory cycle is the

Back 250

tidal volume.

Front 251

The volume of air that can be expelled from completely filled lungs is called

Back 251

vital capacity

Front 252

Emphysema is characterized by an increase in

Back 252

total surface area of the respiratory membrane, alveolar wall elasticity, alveolar wall elasticity.

Front 253

The left lung is larger than the right lung.

Back 253

FALSE

Front 254

The organs of the upper respiratory tract are located outside the thorax.

Back 254

TRUE

Front 255

The pectoralis minor and the sternocleidomastoid muscles are useful in aiding forced expiration.

Back 255

FALSE

Front 256

The force responsible for normal resting expiration is supplied by

Back 256

elastic recoil of the lungs

Front 257

Cancer that originates in the lungs is most likely to develop from

Back 257

epithelial cells.

Front 258

The respiratory membrane consists of

Back 258

two thicknesses of epithelial cells and their basement membranes

Front 259

The walls of the alveoli are composed of

Back 259

simple squamous epithelium

Front 260

Which of the following would be most helpful for forceful expiration?

Back 260

abdominal wall muscles

Front 261

The condition in which outside air enters the pleural cavity is called

Back 261

pneumothorax

Front 262

The walls of the nasal cavity are composed of

Back 262

ciliated columnar epithelium

Front 263

Gas exchange between the air in the alveoli and the blood in nearby capillaries occurs by the process of

Back 263

diffusion

Front 264

Which of the following is an abnormal constituent of urine?

Back 264

none of these (urea, uric acid, creatinine, water)

Front 265

Cystitis occurs more commonly in women than in men because the

Back 265

female urethral pathway is shorter

Front 266

Kidney stones are least likely to be composed of

Back 266

cholesterol

Front 267

A renal corpuscle includes the

Back 267

glomerulus and glomerular capsule

Front 268

Urine formation involves

Back 268

glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, tubular secretion

Front 269

The ureters extend downward

Back 269

behind the parietal peritoneum and join the urinary bladder from below

Front 270

When the concentration of water in body fluids increases, the secretion of ADH increases.

Back 270

FALSE

Front 271

If a substance is transported from the plasma of the peritubular capillary into the fluid of the renal tubule, it is said to be

Back 271

secreted

Front 272

The effector of the micturition reflex is the

Back 272

detrusor muscle

Front 273

Glomerular filtrate is nearly protein free.

Back 273

TRUE

Front 274

An automatic bladder is most likely to result from injury to the

Back 274

spinal cord above the sacral region

Front 275

Whenever sodium ions are reabsorbed through the wall of the renal tubule by active transport, the chloride ions are

Back 275

reabsorbed passively by electrical attraction

Front 276

As a result of excessively low arterial blood pressure, glomerular hydrostatic pressure

Back 276

drops and filtration decreases

Front 277

The largest quantity of hydrogen ions is secreted

Back 277

actively into the proximal convoluted tubule

Front 278

The reabsorption of sodium under the influence of aldosterone occurs primarily in the

Back 278

distal convoluted tubule

Front 279

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description.

Brings blood into a nephron

Back 279

Afferent arteriole

Front 280

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description.

Brings blood out of the renal corpuscle

Back 280

Efferent arteriole

Front 281

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description.

Where the first wave of filtration occurs

Back 281

Renal corpuscle

Front 282

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description.

The blood vessel associated with the first wave of filtration

Back 282

Glomerular capillaries

Front 283

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description.

The blood vessel associated with the second wave of filtration

Back 283

Peritubular capillaries

Front 284

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description.

Sucks up the filtrate in the first wave of filtration

Back 284

Bowman's capsule

Front 285

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description.

The tubule associated with the majority of the second wave of filtraion

Back 285

Proximal convoluted tubule

Front 286

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description.

The tubule associated with the juxtaglomerulus apparatus

Back 286

Distal convoluted tubule

Front 287

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description.

Where all nephrons eventually drain into

Back 287

Collecting duct

Front 288

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description.

The anatomy in which the Loop of Henle and the collecting ducts run through

Back 288

Renal pyramid

Front 289

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description.

The renal pyramids empty into which piece of tissue

Back 289

Calyx

Front 290

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description.

The calyx drains into which piece of tissue

Back 290

Renal pelvis,

Front 291

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description.

Carries urine away from the kidney

Back 291

Ureter

Front 292

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description.

Where the majority of nephrons are found

Back 292

Cortex

Front 293

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description.

The area where things enter and leave the kidney

Back 293

Hilum

Front 294

Shock-wave lithotripsy is a procedure for

Back 294

fragmenting kidney stones.

Front 295

Which of the following indicates the parts of a renal tubule in the correct sequence from beginning to end?

Back 295

proximal convoluted tubule, descending limb of the nephron loop, ascending limb of the nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule

Front 296

Afferent arterioles are branches of the

Back 296

cortical radiate arteries

Front 297

The urethra transports urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder.

Back 297

FALSE

Front 298

If the arteriole that supplies blood to the glomerulus becomes constricted,

Back 298

the glomerular filtration rate decreases

Front 299

If the colloid osmotic pressure of the blood plasma is decreased, the glomerular filtration rate will increase.

Back 299

TRUE

Front 300

Which of the following is correct concerning the location of the kidneys?

Back 300

They are located behind the parietal peritoneum

Front 301

The stretch receptors of the micturition reflex are in the

Back 301

urinary bladder

Front 302

Reabsorption of glucose occurs primarily through the walls of the

Back 302

proximal convoluted tubule.

Front 303

During a kidney transplant procedure, the renal artery and vein of the donor kidney are connected to the recipient's

Back 303

iliac artery and vein

Front 304

Efferent arterioles lead to the

Back 304

peritubular capillaries

Front 305

The micturition reflex center is located in the

Back 305

sacral portion of the spinal cord

Front 306

Gout is a condition in which the plasma has an abnormally high concentration of

Back 306

uric acid

Front 307

Urine is forced along the length of the ureter by peristaltic waves.

Back 307

TRUE

Front 308

Glomerular filtrate is least likely to contain

Back 308

plasma proteins.

Front 309

The movement of water and electrolytes between fluid compartments is regulated primarily by

Back 309

hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure

Front 310

Ingestion of too much sodium bicarbonate to relieve indigestion may lead to

Back 310

metabolic alkalosis

Front 311

Any factor that alters water balance will also alter electrolyte balance.

Back 311

TRUE

Front 312

Drinking alcohol produces its diuretic effect by

Back 312

inhibiting the release of ADH.

Front 313

Extracellular fluids have relatively

Back 313

high sodium and low potassium levels

Front 314

Acid-base buffer systems minimize pH changes by

Back 314

converting strong acids to weak acids

Front 315

Which of the following includes the greatest volume of total body water?

Back 315

Intracellular fluid

Front 316

Prolonged diarrhea that causes great loss of intestinal secretions leads to

Back 316

metabolic acidosis

Front 317

Hyperventilation leads to

Back 317

respiratory alkalosis

Front 318

A person who is severely dehydrated is likely to have a high fever because

Back 318

water is needed for body temperature regulation

Front 319

Water balance and electrolyte balance are interdependent because

Back 319

electrolytes are dissolved in water

Front 320

The kidneys help to regulate the pH of body fluids by controlling the

Back 320

excretion of hydrogen ions

Front 321

As body fluids become more alkaline, neurons become

Back 321

excitable

Front 322

Diabetes mellitus, in which fatty acids are converted to ketone bodies, leads to

Back 322

metabolic acidosis

Front 323

Compared to the average adult male, the average adult female body contains relatively

Back 323

less water and more adipose tissue

Front 324

Obstruction of the airways leads to

Back 324

respiratory acidosis.

Front 325

Normally, fluid enters the lymphatic capillaries as a result of active transport.

Back 325

FALSE

Front 326

Prolonged vomiting, in which only the stomach contents are lost, leads to

Back 326

metabolic alkalosis

Front 327

The thirst center is located in the

Back 327

hypothalamus

Front 328

Which of the following metabolic processes releases hydrogen ions into body fluids?

Back 328

Anaerobic respiration of glucose, Incomplete oxidation of fatty acids, Oxidation of sulfur-containing amino acids, Aerobic respiration of glucose

Front 329

The hormone ADH, released from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland, increases urine production.

Back 329

FALSE

Front 330

A person in a moderate environment probably would lose the greatest amount of water by means of

Back 330

urine

Front 331

Marielle is very thirsty following her tennis game. She drinks for a few minutes, then stops. The stimulus to stop drinking comes from

Back 331

distension of her stomach

Front 332

Transcellular fluid includes the water and electrolytes within

Back 332

joint cavities

Front 333

The hormone aldosterone promotes the

Back 333

reabsorption of sodium