Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
220 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
In what portion of the kidney does urine production occur?
|
The nephron: the glomerulus and tubular segments.
|
|
|
What products does the glomerulus retain?
|
The cells and high molecular weight proteins.
|
|
|
What is the unit for glomerular filtration rate?
|
ml/min/ kg BW.
|
|
|
What is the primary force that favors filtration?
|
Hydrostatic pressure of the capillary (oncotic pressure of the filtrate to a small extent).
|
|
|
What forces oppose filtration?
|
Plasma oncotic pressure and the hydrostatic pressure in Bowman’s space.
|
|
|
GFR is the product of net filtration pressure and permeability of filtration barrier and what other factor?
|
The surface area for filtration.
|
|
|
What three factors mediate GFR?
|
Renal perfusion pressure. Myogenic reflex (arterial dilation and constriction). The tubuloglomerular feedback.
|
|
|
What effect does vasopressin and catecholamines have on GFR?
|
Increases.
|
|
|
What structure of the kidney is responsible for what is filtered?
|
The capillaries of the glomerulus.
|
|
|
What size of molecule is not filtered by the glomerulus?
|
Anything bigger than 4 nm is not filtered.
|
|
|
Are cations or anions more readily filtered?
|
Cations (the positive ones).
|
|
|
Before the proximal tubule where is filtrate collected?
|
Bowman’s space (between the glomerulus and the capsule).
|
|
|
What is the meant by the term fractional excretion rate?
|
The percentage of filtered substance actually excreted in the urine.
|
|
|
What percentage of filtered substances and water is resorbed by the tubule?
|
60%.
|
|
|
What governs movement of water and solute from the interstitial space to the capillaries in the kidneys?
|
Starling’s forces (hydrostatic/oncotic/membrane permeability).
|
|
|
What is the difference between superficial and juxtamedullary nephrons?
|
The superficial only extend to outer medulla and the JM have the long loops of Henle that go deep in to the medulla.
|
|
|
Is the ascending loop of Henle permeable or impermeable to water?
|
Impermeable.
|
|
|
The distal tubule and collecting duct respond to what type of influence?
|
Hormones.
|
|
|
Aldosterone is secreted from where?
|
Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex.
|
|
|
What stimulates the release of aldosterone?
|
Angiotensin II.
|
|
|
What effect does aldosterone have on the kidney?
|
Increased Na retention and therefore water.
|
|
|
What is another name for anti-diuretic hormone?
|
Vasopressin.
|
|
|
What stimulates the release of vasopressin?
|
Volume depletion. Dehydration. Hypotension.
|
|
|
Which hormone inhibits aldosterone release?
|
Atrial naturietic peptide.
|
|
|
Where is ANP produced?
|
Cardiac atrium.
|
|
|
Hypocalcemia stimulates which hormone release?
|
Parathyroid hormone.
|
|
|
What effect does PTH have on phosphate resorption?
|
decreases or inhibits it.
|
|
|
What effect does of Vitamin D3 have on cellular content of calcium?
|
It increases it.
|
|
|
What substances reduces calcium by stimulating deposition in bone?
|
Calcitonin.
|
|
|
BUN is the product of what?
|
Synthesized from ammonia from amino acid catabolism.
|
|
|
What conditions can increase BUN?
|
High protein meal. GI bleed. Catabolic state.
|
|
|
What product is from the breakdown of muscle?
|
Creatinine.
|
|
|
What is the relationship between creatinine levels and GFR?
|
Inverse (creatinine is an estimate of GFR).
|
|
|
An increase in BUN or creatinine indicates that what percentage of nephrons are not functional?
|
At least 75%.
|
|
|
What condition causes marked increase in 24 hours protein levels in the urine?
|
Glomerulonephritis.
|
|
|
What is normal protein level per day in urine?
|
Less than 20 mg/kg/day.
|
|
|
What urine protein test is simple to perform?
|
Urine protein creatinine ratio (UPC).
|
|
|
What is the normal UPC in dogs and cats?
|
Less than 0.4.
|
|
|
Increased excretion of albumin may indicate what type of damage?
|
Vascular endothelial damage (typically in humans but can show in dogs).
|
|
|
Polyuria and polydipsia occurs after what percentage loss of nephrons?
|
66%.
|
|
|
What two non-radioactive substances can be used to calculate GFR?
|
Inulin or iohexol.
|
|
|
What is normal GFR in a dog?
|
1.7-4.1 ml/min/kg (in cats 1.3 to 4.2)
|
|
|
What is the definition of urine specific gravity?
|
Weight of a solution compared to an equal volume of distilled water.
|
|
|
In which condition is solute concentration of urine the same as unaltered glomerular filtrate?
|
Isothenuria.
|
|
|
Clearance of all electrolytes in the urine should be less what percentage?
|
1%.
|
|
|
Persistent proteinuria in the absence of urine sediment suggests what disease process?
|
Glomerular disease.
|
|
|
Ketones in the urine are most often secondary to what condition?
|
Diabetes mellitus.
|
|
|
What are casts within urine sediment?
|
Cylindrical molds of renal tubules made of aggregated protein or cells.
|
|
|
What type of casts are degenerative cells with protein indicating ischemic or nephrotoxic renal tubular injury?
|
Granular casts.
|
|
|
Fatty casts can be seen in animals with what two conditions?
|
Nephrotic syndrome and diabetes mellitus.
|
|
|
By what two ways do the kidneys influence blood pressure?
|
Increasing blood volume and constricting arteries and veins.
|
|
|
Which portions of the distal tubules sense sodium in the filtrate and blood pressure?
|
The macula densa and juxtaglomerular cells.
|
|
|
With the drop in blood pressure the Juxtaglomerular cells release what substance?
|
Renin.
|
|
|
What is the function of Renin?
|
Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
|
|
|
Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by what enzyme?
|
The angiotensin converting enzyme.
|
|
|
Where does the conversion of angiotensin occur?
|
The lungs (vascular endothelial cells).
|
|
|
What is the effect of Angiotensin II on the blood vessels?
|
Vasoconstriction (then increases blood pressure).
|
|
|
Angiotensin stimulates the adrenal gland to release what substance?
|
Aldosterone from the zona glomerulosa.
|
|
|
What effect does aldosterone have on the distal renal tubules?
|
Na resorption (water follows).
|
|
|
What does the kidney secrete in response to hypoxia?
|
Erythropoietin.
|
|
|
The consumption of oxygen by the kidney is determined by resorption of what?
|
Sodium.
|
|
|
By what cells of the renal cortex is erythropoietin produced?
|
Peritubular fibroblasts.
|
|
|
Which hormone inhibits erythropoiesis?
|
Estrogen.
|
|
|
Where are the erythropoietin receptors?
|
The bone marrow.
|
|
|
What effect does 1-25 dihydroxycholecalciferol have on Calcium resorption and where does this occur?
|
Increases calcium resorption by the renal tubular cells.
|
|
|
What effect can acute renal failure have in calcium levels?
|
Hypocalcemia (caused by decreased GFR with an associated increased in Phosphorous).
|
|
|
Which condition can result in renal secondary hyperparathyroidism?
|
Chronic renal failure (vitamin D3 activation is lost).
|
|
|
With renal secondary hyperparathyroidism demineralization of what anatomic structure is seen first?
|
The skull and distortion of the face.
|
|
|
What is the general definition of acute renal failure?
|
Abrupt decrease of renal function leading to retention of nitrogenous waste.
|
|
|
What is the generalized cause of pre renal acute renal failure?
|
Decreased circulating blood volume to the kidneys.
|
|
|
What are the generalized causes of post renal acute renal failure?
|
Urine leakage (resorbed back into the blood) or urinary obstruction.
|
|
|
Ischemic or toxic damage to the renal tubules results in what type of renal failure?
|
Intrinsic renal failure.
|
|
|
Pyelonephritis is typically secondary to what condition?
|
Ascending infection.
|
|
|
How many stages are there to acute renal failure?
|
Four.
|
|
|
Which stage of acute renal failure has continued hypoxemic inflammation propagating damage?
|
The second or Extension phase.
|
|
|
What occurs in stage three or the maintenance phase of acute renal failure?
|
Urine is the glomerular filtrate with minimal modification. Irreversible damage has occurred.
|
|
|
What is stage four of acute renal failure?
|
The recovery phase.
|
|
|
What are the two cellular mechanisms of acute renal failure (reduced GFR)?
|
Intrarenal vasoconstriction and tubule dysfunction (obstruction from detached cells).
|
|
|
What is the radiographic appearance of the kidneys in acute renal failure?
|
Bigger.
|
|
|
What are the sonographic findings of acute kidney disease?
|
Big kidneys +/- perirenal fluid and hydronephrosis.
|
|
|
What electrolyte imbalance is a complication of acute kidney injury?
|
Hyperkalemia.
|
|
|
How does acute renal failure cause hypertension?
|
Retention of Sodium and water.
|
|
|
What are some of the characteristic changes of uremic gastritis?
|
Glandular atrophy. Edema of the lamina propria. Fibroplasia. Mineralization.
|
|
|
What is the common location for uremic gastric ulcers?
|
Fundus.
|
|
|
What is the definition of chronic kidney disease?
|
Kidney damage has existed for at least three months with or without a reduction in GFR. A reduction in GFR greater than 50% persisting for greater than three months.
|
|
|
What is the compensatory response to the acute loss of nephrons in chronic disease?
|
Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the remaining nephrons resulting in improvement of renal concentrating ability.
|
|
|
What are the most prominent clinical signs related to uremia?
|
GI signs and oral ulcers.
|
|
|
Is chronic kidney disease more common in cats or dogs?
|
Cats.
|
|
|
In which species is uremic gastropathy more common?
|
Dogs.
|
|
|
With renal failure which hormone is increased causing gastric ulceration?
|
Gastrin.
|
|
|
Why is altered consciousness and seizures seen in dogs with chronic kidney disease?
|
Hypertension causing stroke.
|
|
|
Metastatic mineralization of the soft tissues may be seen if the calcium phosphorous product exceeds what level?
|
70.
|
|
|
Disease of what part of the nephron is the leading cause of renal failure?
|
Glomerulus.
|
|
|
What urinalysis finding is the hallmark of glomerulonephritis?
|
Proteinuria.
|
|
|
What are the four components of nephrotic syndrome?
|
Hypoalbuminemia. Proteinuria. Hypercholesterolemia. Edema.
|
|
|
Nephrotic syndrome is pathognomonic for what disease?
|
Glomeruar disease.
|
|
|
What is a common pulmonary complication of glomerular disease?
|
Pulmonary thromboembolism.
|
|
|
In which dog breed is there association with membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?
|
Bernese Mountain Dog.
|
|
|
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis has also been associated with what infection?
|
Lyme disease.
|
|
|
What is the most common glomerular disease of young male cats?
|
Membranous nephropathy (auto-immune).
|
|
|
Extracellular deposition of fibrils by polymerization of proteins can result in what type of deposits in the glomerulus?
|
Amyloid.
|
|
|
In which part of the kidney does amyloid deposit occur in the Shar Pei?
|
The medulla.
|
|
|
Interstitial nephritis is characterized by the absence of what lab value?
|
Proteinuria.
|
|
|
What is the disorder where the concentrating mechanism cannot respond to ADH?
|
Diabetes insipidus.
|
|
|
What is the most common renal toxicity of dogs?
|
Ethylene glycol.
|
|
|
What toxic effect do NSAIDs have on the kidney?
|
Renal ischemia.
|
|
|
What antibiotic group can cause tubular damage to the kidneys?
|
Aminoglycosides.
|
|
|
What plants can cause acute renal failure in cats?
|
Lilies.
|
|
|
What are the most common causes of renal infection?
|
Borrelia and leptospirosis.
|
|
|
What is more common in dogs primary renal tumors or renal metastatic disease?
|
Renal metastatic disease.
|
|
|
What is the most common primary renal tumor?
|
Renal cell carcinoma.
|
|
|
Renal cell carcinoma is believed to originate from which cells?
|
Epithelium of the proximal convoluted tubules.
|
|
|
What congenital neoplasm is from the pluripotent cells?
|
Nephroblastoma.
|
|
|
In which part of the kidney do TCC and Squamous cell carcinoma occur?
|
The renal pelvis.
|
|
|
In which dog breed can you see dermal fibrosis with renal cystadenocarcinoma and uterine tumors?
|
German Sheperd Dogs.
|
|
|
What is the most common benign renal tumor?
|
Renal adenoma.
|
|
|
What is the term for a renal adenoma that escapes the capsule?
|
Renal carcinoma.
|
|
|
T/F. In cats primary ureter neoplasia is uncommon.?
|
True. It is not reported.
|
|
|
What are the two most common malignant epithelial tumors of the ureter in the cats?
|
TCC and SCCa.
|
|
|
What are the clinical signs of ureteral neoplasia?
|
Obstruction or hematuria.
|
|
|
What is the typical location of transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder?
|
The trigone.
|
|
|
What is the shape of a mass on ultrasound that is likely to be neoplasia?
|
Sessile (rather than polypoid).
|
|
|
What type of cystitis is indistinguishable from bladder neoplasia?
|
Granulomatous cystitis.
|
|
|
What is a common location for metastatic disease for TCC of the bladder?
|
The regional lymph nodes.
|
|
|
Which is more common: TCC of the bladder with extension to the urethra or primary TCC of the urethra?
|
TCC of the urethra.
|
|
|
Primary urethral tumors are the most common cause of urine retention in female dogs with the exception of what condition?
|
Spinal lesions.
|
|
|
What is the common signalment of a cat with a bladder tumor?
|
Older male.
|
|
|
What type of test is the BARD bladder tumor antigen test?
|
A dipstick for TCC.
|
|
|
What term refers to any disorder affecting the bladder or urethra of cats?
|
FLUTD.
|
|
|
What is the most common form of feline idiopathic cystitis?
|
Non ulcerative.
|
|
|
What secondary product of FIC causes obstruction in male cats?
|
Struvite urethral plugs with proteinaceous matrix.
|
|
|
Which type of uroliths are less soluble in acidic urine?
|
Cysteine and urate and silica.
|
|
|
What is the most common type of urolith seen in dogs?
|
Struvite.
|
|
|
What type of urolith form in cats with sterile urine?
|
Struvite.
|
|
|
In dogs struvite uroliths form commonly in the presence which bacteria?
|
Staphylococcus.
|
|
|
What is the most common urolith in the cat?
|
Calcium oxalate.
|
|
|
What is the most likely signalment in a cat with calcium oxalate uroliths?
|
Young neutered indoor male cats.
|
|
|
Where does oxlate come from?
|
Liver metabolism of ascorbic acid in carnivores.
|
|
|
Urate is produced from the metabolism of what substance?
|
Purine.
|
|
|
In which dog breed is urate urolithiasis most common?
|
The Dalmatian.
|
|
|
What defect do Dalmatian’s have that they are prone to formation of urate?
|
A defect of uric acid transport into the hepatocytes.
|
|
|
Dogs with urate stones are likely to have what other condition?
|
PSS.
|
|
|
Xanthine uroliths are rare and can be seen with the administration of what medication?
|
Allopurinol.
|
|
|
In which dog breed are cysteine uroliths most common?
|
Newfies. Also Mastiff.
|
|
|
What electrolyte condition can result in increased calcium phosphate urolith formation?
|
Hypercalciuria and hyperphosphaturia.
|
|
|
What is a common name for the shape of a silicate urolith in the dogs?
|
Jacks.
|
|
|
Renal pelvic dilation secondary to an obstructive process is the definition of what?
|
Hydronephrosis.
|
|
|
Distention of the pelvis and diverticuli in hydronephrosis can result in what effect on the renal cortex?
|
Pressure necrosis with subsequent atrophy.
|
|
|
What is the most common cause of hydroureter?
|
Obstruction.
|
|
|
What is the common term for a periureteral pseudocyst?
|
Urinoma.
|
|
|
What is the definition of renal dysplasia?
|
Disorganized development of renal parenchyma from abnormal differentiation.
|
|
|
What two dog breeds are affected by renal dysplasia?
|
Lhasa Apso and the Shih Tzu.
|
|
|
Which renal disease is a defect the collagen of the glomerular basement membrane?
|
Primary glomerulopathy.
|
|
|
Immune-mediated glomerulopathy is thought to be associated with what condition initially?
|
A food sensitivity (altered intestinal permeability leading to immune complex glomerulonephritis).
|
|
|
In which dog breed is immune-mediated glomerulopathy most commonly seen?
|
Soft-coated Wheaten Terrier.
|
|
|
In which species with polycystic kidney disease are hepatic cysts also seen?
|
Cat.
|
|
|
What is Fanconi syndrome?
|
Impairment of the resorptive functions of the proximal renal tubules (excessive loss urinary solutes and water).
|
|
|
In which dog breed is Fanconi usually seen?
|
The Basenji.
|
|
|
Hereditary multifocal renal cystadenoma and nodular dermatofibrosis is what type of syndrome in the German Shepherd dog?
|
Cancer syndrome (tumors on kidneys and skin).
|
|
|
What is the clinical sign of renal telangiectasia?
|
Recurrent hematuria (in Corgis).
|
|
|
What two conditions can renal telangiectasia lead to?
|
Nephrocalcinois and Hydronephrosis.
|
|
|
What is the term for the progressive accumulation of fluid under the renal capsule?
|
Perinephric pseudocyst.
|
|
|
What congenital anomaly of the urinary bladder may predispose a dog to UTI?
|
Urachal diverticulum.
|
|
|
In which condition is the ventral bladder wall and abdominal wall absent?
|
Exstrophy.
|
|
|
What is the term for a pressure-volume recording as it is filled with fluid?
|
Cystometrogram.
|
|
|
Which is the smooth muscle of the bladder?
|
The detrusor muscle.
|
|
|
What is the function of the detrusor muscle?
|
Contracts the entire bladder at once.
|
|
|
The internal sphincter of the bladder neck is comprised of the detrusor muscle interlaced with what other structure?
|
Elastic fibers.
|
|
|
The pelvic nerves that innervate the bladder arise from which vertebral levels?
|
S2-S3.
|
|
|
The pudendal nerve gives rise to skeletal motor fibers innervating which structure of the bladder?
|
The external sphincter.
|
|
|
Is the pudendal nerve voluntary or involuntary?
|
Voluntary.
|
|
|
Which nerve from an S2 segment may play a role in sensation of bladder fullness?
|
The hypogastric nerve.
|
|
|
What is the detrusor reflex?
|
Small contractions that allow the external sphincter to relax.
|
|
|
What is an atonic bladder?
|
The destruction of sensory nerve fibers leading to overflow urination.
|
|
|
In which condition when the spinal cord is damaged above the sacral region is there normal detrusor reflex but no control by the brain?
|
Automatic bladder (can’t feel the urge to go but goes automatically).
|
|
|
What is the common signalment of a dog with primary sphincter mechanism incontinence?
|
Large breed spayed female.
|
|
|
In which condition does the detrusor muscle contract but the urethral muscle fails to relax?
|
Reflex dyssynergy.
|
|
|
What is the term for retrograde flow of urine into the ureters and renal pelvis?
|
Vesicoureteral reflux.
|
|
|
In what percentage of puppies is primary vesicoureteral reflux seen?
|
50% (goes away as they age).
|
|
|
What acquired disorders of the vesicoureteral junction can cause secondary reflux?
|
UTI. Neurogenic bladder. Urethral obstruction.
|
|
|
What congenital disorders of the vesicoureteral junction can cause secondary reflux?
|
Ectopic ureter.
|
|
|
What is the gestational length of the dog?
|
63 days +/- 1 days.
|
|
|
How many days post ovulation can uterine enlargement be identified on radiographs of the bitch?
|
30 days.
|
|
|
In the dog when is fetal mineralization first seen?
|
45 days (spine ribs and skull).
|
|
|
At what day is the radius/ulna/tibia seen in the fetus radiographically?
|
55 days.
|
|
|
On which day of pregnancy can ultrasound show gestational sex?
|
20 days.
|
|
|
Why should sonographic confirmation of canine pregnancy be performed between 25 and 30 days?
|
It’s when you can see a heartbeat.
|
|
|
What is the gestational length in the cat?
|
60-65 days.
|
|
|
When is uterine enlargement in the queen identified radiographically?
|
25-35 days.
|
|
|
When is fetal mineralization of the cat seen?
|
36-45 days.
|
|
|
What are the radiographic signs of fetal death?
|
Intrafetal gas. Overlap of the cranial bones. Fetal skeletal collapse resulting in a C-shape.
|
|
|
Abortion of a non-viable fetus occurs at which day of pregnancy?
|
Day 35.
|
|
|
What is a clinical sign of fetal distress?
|
Bradycardia in response to hypoxia.
|
|
|
What percentage of unspayed dogs develop pyometra?
|
About 25% (around 9 years of age).
|
|
|
At which week of estrus does pyometra usually develop?
|
8 weeks- the luteal phase.
|
|
|
Pyometra is associated with what other disease?
|
Cystic endometrial hyperplasia.
|
|
|
Dogs develop cystic endometrial hyperplasia with age due to exposure to what hormone?
|
Progesterone.
|
|
|
Why is pyometra associated with the luteal phase?
|
Progesterone stimulates glandular secretions/closes the cervix/ decreases myometrial contraction/decreases the local immune response.
|
|
|
What is the suspected cause of the systemic signs of a closed pyometra?
|
Endotoxins produced by E. coli.
|
|
|
What is the sonographic appearance of a stump pyometra?
|
Cystic mass near the bladder.
|
|
|
Follicular cysts form from what structure?
|
The graffian follicles.
|
|
|
What affect can a functional follicular cyst have on a cat?
|
Prolonged estrus. Nymphomania. Behavior change.
|
|
|
What are the common neoplasms of the ovary?
|
Adenoma or adenocarcinoma and cystadenoma or cystadenocarcinoma.
|
|
|
What type of tumor contains ectodermal and mesodermal and endoderamal cells?
|
Teratoma or teratocarcinoma.
|
|
|
What is most common ovarian tumor of the dog and cat?
|
Granulosa cell tumor.
|
|
|
What is the only accessory sex gland in the dog?
|
The prostate.
|
|
|
Radiographically what is the normal size of the prostate in the dog?
|
50% of the pelvic inlet on VD and 70% of the pubic-sacral promontory distance on the lateral.
|
|
|
Benign prostatic hypertrophy results as a response to what hormone?
|
Dihydrotestosterone.
|
|
|
What is the usual cause of bacterial prostatitis?
|
Ascending infection.
|
|
|
Chronic urethral discharge in the dog is common clinical sign of what prostatic condition?
|
Prostatic abscess.
|
|
|
What disease process is associated with androgen dependent BPH?
|
Prostatic cyst.
|
|
|
What structure can form outside the prostatic parenchyma with a fibrous wall that contains clear to turbid fluid?
|
A paraprostatic cyst.
|
|
|
Do castrated dogs have higher or lower incidence of pulmonary metastatic disease associated with prostatic neoplasia?
|
Higher.
|
|
|
What is the most common congenital condition associated with the testicles in the dog?
|
Cryptorchid
|
|
|
The testes of the dog may descend until what time frame?
|
6 months.
|
|
|
What is the most common location for a cryptorchid testicle?
|
The abdomen.
|
|
|
What is a common cause of orchitis?
|
Urethral reflux.
|
|
|
Which two primary tumors of the testicle is almost always benign?
|
The Leydig (interstitial cell) tumor or Seminoma.
|
|
|
What is the most common tumor of the undescended testicle?
|
Sertoli cell tumor.
|
|
|
A seminoma can secrete androgens leading to what conditions?
|
Prostatomegaly or perianal adenoma.
|
