• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off

Card Range To Study



Play button


Play button




Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

340 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What are some responsibilities with which a maintenance technician is charged?

To comply with all written guidance to ensure all required repairs, inspections, and documentation arecompleted in a safe, timely and effective manner. After fixing a malfunction, to follow through and verifythe entire system is serviceable by completing all checks and follow-on maintenance.

What type of issue is maintenance accountability?

An integrity issue.

Who can be held accountable for an aircraft mishap if the investigation proves maintenancenegligence?

The maintenance technician.

What are the two major categories of maintenance?

On-equipment and off-equipment.

Any action performed on an aircraft belongs to which category of maintenance?


Any action performed in a back shop as a result of aircraft maintenance belongs to what categoryof maintenance?


Name the three levels of maintenance.

Organizational, intermediate, and depot.

What level of maintenance consists of on-equipment tasks performed at an operating location?


What level of maintenance do you provide to your squadron?


What level of maintenance consists of off-equipment (back shop) tasks normally performed at theoperating location?


What level of maintenance consists of on- and off-equipment tasks performed at either a majorrepair center, or in some cases, an operating location?


Which level of maintenance is modified or eliminated under the two-level maintenance approach?


Within the Air Force Combat Wing Organization, who is the key individual controlling theresources to meet mission requirements?

The wing commander

Wing commanders now organize all wing maintenance functions under which group?


Who is responsible for aerospace equipment maintenance required to ensure balance betweensortie production and fleet management?


Which squadron within the maintenance group is responsible for off-equipment (back shop)maintenance?


Which squadron is directly responsible to the MXG/CC for the administration, analysis, trainingmanagement, and programs and resources necessary to support the group production effort?


To which squadron is QA assigned? For whom does QA work?

MOS. Directly for the MXG/CC.

Which squadron services, inspects, maintains, launches and recovers assigned aircraft?


Who allocates personnel and resources to the production effort?


Who is responsible for flight maintenance production?

The pro-super.

What are some of the jobs and responsibilities of the flight line expediter?

Manages their portion of the flying schedule, coordinates scheduled and unscheduled maintenance,determines aircraft status, and coordinates with the pro-super and MOC

When is maintenance debriefing conducted?

At the termination of each sortie/mission or when a sortie/mission is aborted.

What section is the focal point for all planned maintenance, TCTO, TCI, and inspections?


Which section is the primary work center responsible for maintaining the assigned aircraft?

The Aircraft Section

What does the Weapons Section provide?

Weapons loading and weapons maintenance

Which section controls the CTK and equipment storage and maintains TO files for the squadron?

The Support Section

To which section does an avionics technician normally belong?

The Specialist Section.

What are the three types of maintenance?

Preventive, scheduled and unscheduled.

Why is preventive maintenance performed?

For the normal upkeep and preservation of equipment and to perform maintenance before a part fails,greatly increasing aircraft safety and equipment reliability.

Which type of maintenance applies to maintenance requirements that can be programmed oneither a short- or long-range schedule?

Scheduled maintenance.

Which type of maintenance are you performing when you’re repairing a discrepancy discoveredin flight by the aircrew?

Unscheduled maintenance.

What is the best way to fix an aircraft problem?

Before it becomes a problem by employing preventive maintenance.

What do you call the deterioration of metal that’s caused when it reacts to its environment byattempting to return to its natural state?


To prevent corrosion, what type of rivets, bolts, and nuts should you use?

Those made up of the same type of material as the main structure.

What is your responsibility if you find corrosion on an aircraft not within your expertise to repair?

Write the condition up in the aircraft forms and notify the crew chief or a supervisor.

Which TO series will have the inspection requirements for the F–15E aircraft?

The –6 series TOs (e.g. TO 1F–15E–6).

Are work cards assigned a TO number? Why?

Yes. Collectively the work cards are a TO, and so must be assigned a TO number.

What are the two primary aids to effective inspection scheduling?

Inspection work cards and sequence charts.

List the five basic types of inspections.

Periodic, phased, calendar, isochronal, and programmed depot maintenance.

Describe the periodic and phased basic inspection concepts.

The periodic inspection is a complete and total look at the entire aircraft at one time, while the phasedconcept breaks up the inspection into smaller, equal packages that are performed at different times and lookat different areas.

Why was the phased inspection concept developed?

To minimize the length of time an aircraft is out of commission for a scheduled inspection.

Name the six basic subelements of the periodic inspection.

Preflight, end-of-runway, thruflight, basic postflight, hourly postflight, and periodic.

What are the five basic subelements of the phase inspection?

Preflight, end-of-runway, thruflight, basic postflight, and phase.

When is a 90-day calendar inspection required?

When the aircraft hasn’t flown or is out of commission for more than 90-calendar days.

What inspection is based on a calendar day sequence rather than the flying or operating hoursequence?

Isochronal inspection.

What are the objectives of ASIP?

To establish, evaluate, and substantiate the structural integrity (airframe strength, rigidity, damagetolerance, and durability, including economic life) of aircraft structures.

What does ASIP provide?

A basis for improving structural criteria and methods of design, evaluation, and substantiation for futureaircraft systems and modifications.

Why do we assign Air Force personnel responsibility for property?

By having someone responsible for the property, we can be sure that it’s safeguarded.

Why is it important to understand responsibility for government property?

If someone is negligent in their responsibilities, they may have to pay for all, or part of a piece ofequipment

What is accountability and give an example?

Is a person who, by law, lawful order, instructions, or contract maintains accurate records of property ordocuments in his or her charge. For example, a supply custodian is a person who is accountable.

Explain the difference between accountability and responsibility?

When you sign out a toolbox from your support section, you assume responsibility for that toolbox.However, the support section is still accountable for the tools and the box. You don’t become the owner ofthe item. The Air Force, through the support section, retains ownership while you assume responsibility forthe care and protection for the toolbox.

What must be done if an item worth over $100 is lost or damaged?

A Report of Survey must be completed; there are other criterion that may also require a Report of Surveyand they are listed in AFMAN 23–220, Reports of Survey for Air Force Property.

Explain the Report of Survey process?

The individual issued the property initiates a report of survey. After completion of the report of survey, aninvestigation is conducted. If the investigation determines there was willful misconduct, deliberate orunauthorized use, or gross negligence, a statement of charges is initiated.

What is the purpose of RAMPOD?

Collects, reports, and maintains real-time, inventory, performance, sortie, and engineering parametric datafor externally carried electronic combat pods and other avionics pods.

What Air Force assets is inventoried and financially accounted for in RAMPOD?

All Air Force externally carried pods, including leased pods.

What form is used to order parts from supply?

AF Form 2005.

What is the purpose of the forward supply point?

Is to be located within the maintenance unit so assets are immediately available to the using activity.

Give some examples of stock found in the work center?

(1) Bench stock items are nuts, bolts, washers, tubes, and resistors. (2) Shop stock items are gas cylinders, random length bar stock, sheet metal, plastic, fabric, and similaritems not included on bench stocks. 1–34 (3) Operating stock items are connector dust covers, hydraulic line caps or plugs, and other itemsnormally recovered after use.

Explain the process of repair cycle?

The repair cycle starts with the need for an LRU to correct an aircraft system malfunction. An order is madefor the replacement part (LRU). The part is issued from supply, thus creating a vacancy on the warehouseshelves. The defective part removed from the aircraft is then sent to a back shop facility for repair. Once therepair is accomplished, the now serviceable part is sent to supply to fill the open vacancy.

What is a scarce item in the supply system referred to as?

A Critical item

What happens when there is a needed part and there is no replacement part in supply and whoauthorizes it?

The item is cannibalized and pro super or maintenance officer authorizes this action.

Describe a DD Form 1574/1574–1?

The DD Forms 1574, Serviceable Tag—Materiel, and 1574–1, Serviceable Label—Materiel, are yellowand have the same format; the only difference between them is that the 1574 is a tag, and the 1574–1 is agummed label. The presence of either of these forms on a piece of new or used equipment shows that theitem is serviceable.

What tag do we put with unserviceable but repairable parts and what color is it?

The DD Form 1577–2; green.

What is the red tag?

DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag.

Why do we use the DD Form 1575, Suspended Tag (brown tag)?

If you find that an item is bad because of a defect that you suspect is caused by the manufacturer, you’ll filea deficiency report (DR).

What are the two types of DRs?

Category I and category II.

What type of DR, if uncorrected, would cause death, severe injury, or severe occupational illness?

Category I.

What type of DR deals with errors in workmanship?

Category II.

Would a TO discrepancy be a reason to submit a DR? Why or why not?

No. Report TO deficiencies with AFTO Form 22, Technical Order System Publication ImprovementReport, and Reply.

Who would be a good person to ask if you had questions concerning the completeness of a DR?

The unit DR monitor

What are the five responsibilities of the originator of a DR?

(1) Discover, identify, and document noted conditions which may become DRs. (2) Ensure potential exhibits and supporting data are made available to the originating point. (3) Forward a draft DR to personnel in the originating point. (4) Identify the DR exhibit with DD Forms 2332 and 1575. (5) Secure, segregate, and suspend the DR exhibit.

What’s the preferred method to prepare DRs?


How much time does the originator have to forward a completed CAT I DR to personnel in theoriginating point?

Within 24 hours of deficiency discovery.

How much time does the originator have to forward a completed CAT II DR to personnel in theoriginating point?

Within three workdays of deficiency discovery.

Why are DR exhibits assigned to a designated storage area?

To preclude their unauthorized return to the production, maintenance, or operation area.

What tags are normally filled out for a DR exhibit?

Normally, two DD Form 1575, Suspended Tag—Material, two DD Form 2332, Production QualityDeficiency Report Exhibit, and one AFTO Form 350, Repairable Item Processing Tag are filled out.

Who has overall DR management responsibility and serves as the focal point for all submittingorganization tasks?

The personnel in the originating point.

. (001) Which statement is true concerning being a maintenance technician?a. You have a responsibility to comply with all written guidance to ensure all required repairs,inspections, and documentation are completed in a safe, timely and effective manner.b. You do not have a responsibility to comply with all written guidance to ensure all requiredrepairs, inspections, and documentation are completed in a safe, timely and effective manner.c. You have a responsibility to comply with some written guidance to ensure all required repairs,inspections, and documentation are completed in a safe, timely and effective manner.d. You do not have a responsibility to comply with some written guidance to ensure all requiredrepairs, inspections, and documentation are completed in a safe, timely and effective manner.


(001) Personnel who fail to maintain maintenance integrity will be helda. responsible.b. accountable.c. in contempt.d. in moral compass.


(002) What are the two major categories of maintenance?a. Intermediate and depot.b. Organizational and depot.c. Off-equipment and intermediate.d. On-equipment and off-equipment.


(002) What type of maintenance is performed as a flightline technician?a. On-equipment.b. Off-equipment.c. Organizational and depot.d. On-equipment and off-equipment.


(002) In the Air Force how many levels of maintenance do we have?a. 2.b. 3.c. 4.d. 5.


(003) Who is responsible for aerospace equipment maintenance required to ensure balance betweensortie production and fleet management?a. Wing commander.b. Group commander.c. Squadron commander.d. Production Supervisor.


(003) Which maintenance squadron flight repairs, maintains, modifies, locally manufactures, andinspects aircraft and equipment components?a. Maintenance.b. Sheet metal.c. Fabrication.d. Armament.


(003) Quality assurance works directly for thea. wing commander.b. maintenance group commander.c. operational group commander.d. squadron commander.


(004) Who is responsible for flight maintenance production?a. Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) officer in charge.b. Production superintendent (pro-super).c. Flight chief.d. Expediter.


(004) Which best describes some of the jobs and responsibilities of the flight line expediter?a. Manages their portion of the flying schedule, coordinates only scheduled maintenance,determines aircraft status, and coordinates with the pro-super and MOC.b. Manages their portion of the flying schedule, coordinates only unscheduled maintenance,determines aircraft status, and coordinates with the pro-super and MOC.c. Manages their portion of the flying schedule, coordinates scheduled and unscheduledmaintenance, determines aircraft status, and coordinates with the pro-super.d. Manages their portion of the flying schedule, coordinates scheduled and unscheduledmaintenance, determines aircraft status, and coordinates with the pro-super and MOC.


(004) Within an Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU), the Specialist Section includesa. flightline expediters, avionics technicians, and dedicated crew chiefs.b. weapons technicians, electro/environmental technicians, and dedicated crew chiefs.c. weapons, avionics, and electro/environmental technicians.d. avionics, propulsion, and electro/environmental technicians.


(005) What are the three types of maintenance?a. Preventive, scheduled and corrective.b. Preventive, scheduled and unscheduled.c. Corrective, scheduled and unscheduled.d. Preventive, Preflight and Postflight.


. (005) What type of maintenance is normal upkeep and preservation of equipment?a. Preventive.b. Scheduled.c. Corrective.d. Unscheduled.


Which type of corrosion causes the metal surface to become rough and sometimes frosted?a. Uniformed etch.b. Exfoliation.c. Galvanic.d. Pitting.


(006) When two dissimilar metals are coupled together in the presence of an electrolyte, the effectcana. dull the surface.b. strengthen the joint.c. cold-weld the metals.d. produce galvanic corrosion.


Which technical order (TO) series will have the inspection requirements for any F–15aircraft?a. –6.b. Work Cards.c. General Vehicle.d. General System.


What are the two primary aids to effective inspection scheduling?a. Sequence charts and phased inspections.b. Phased inspections and depot maintenance.c. Inspection work cards and sequence charts.d. Inspection work cards and phased inspections.


(007) Work cards are normally grouped by type ofa. specialist required and by work area.b. avionics specialist and by work area.c. aircraft required and by work area.d. job required and by work area.


How many basic types of inspections does the Air Force use?a. 3.b. 4.c. 5.d. 6


(008) How many basic types of inspections does our career field use?a. 3.b. 4.c. 5.d. 6.


. (008) If a significant fuel leak developed while a pilot was taxiing an aircraft for take-off, it islikelya. the leak would not be identified until the next scheduled phase inspection.b. the pilot would receive a fuel gauge warning after airborne and report it to maintenancepersonnel during the basic postflight inspection.c. the pilot would request clearance from the control tower to return his aircraft to the parkingramp and request the preflight inspection be reaccomplished to identify the problem.d. maintenance personnel would identify this situation during the end-of-runway inspection andmake a determination at that time on how to proceed based on technical guidance.


(008) What type of inspection is more thorough than a preflight?a. Thruflight.b. End-of-runway.c. Basic postflight.d. Basic thruflight.


(008) Who determines whether additional inspections are required on a 30-day inspectionschedule?a. Expediter.b. Flight chief.c. Production supervisor.d. Senior maintenance officer.


(008) How are isochronal inspections determined?a. Operating hours.b. Calendar day.c. Flying hours.d. Daily.


(008) What are the objectives of the Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP)?a. Establish, evaluate, and substantiate the structural integrity of aircraft structures.b. Improve structural design and criteria for future aircraft systems and modifications.c. Identify all components with serial numbers and ensure all systems are given a thoroughcheckout.d. Implement operational usage data and make decisions on force structure planning.


(009) Which is accountability?a. A person who, by law or contract, maintains accurate records of property or documents in hisor her charge.b. A person who, by lawful order or contract maintains accurate records of property or documentsin his or her charge.c. A person who, by law, lawful order, or contract maintains accurate records of property ordocuments in his or her charge.d. A person who, by law, lawful order, instructions, or contract maintains accurate records ofproperty or documents in his or her charge.


(009) Who initiates the Report of Survey?a. Production Supervisor.b. Flight Chief.c. Individual.d. Supply.


. (010) Who coordinates the effort to establish a forward supply point?a. Organization commander and Base Supply commander.b. Customer support officer of Base Supply and resource advisor.c. Organization commander and Customer support officer of Base Supply.d. Organization commander, production superintendent and Customer support officer of BaseSupply.


(010) Identify stock items found in the work center.a. Bench and operating.b. Operating and shop.c. Shop and classified.d. Bench, shop, and operating.


(010) Bench stock should carry enough of an item to last fora. 30 days.b. 45 days.c. 60 days.d. 90 days


(010) What are examples of shop stock?a. Nuts, bolts, washers, tubes and resistors.b. Gas cylinders, random length bar stock, sheet metal, plastic, and fabric.c. Dust covers, hydraulic line caps or plugs, and other items normally recovered after use.d. All of the above.


(010) Where is a defective part sent in the repair cycle?a. Warehouse.b. Back shop.c. Supply.d. Depot.


(010) Who authorizes a cannibalization?a. Production supervisor or aircraft commander.b. Maintenance officer and aircraft commander.c. Production supervisor or maintenance officer.d. Maintenance operation center supervisor of the day.


(011) What is the DD Form 1574?a. Suspended Tag.b. Serviceable Tag.c. Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.d. Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag.


(011) What color tag is used on a new part?a. Red.b. Green.c. Brown.d. Yellow.


(012) Which situation is not a reason to submit a deficiency report (DR)?a. An item is suspected as a cause of a class C mishap.b. There is a deficiency that directly restricts combat or operational readiness.c. There is an unsatisfactory condition attributable to improper packaging and handling.d. There is a deficiency that if uncorrected, would cause death, severe injury, or severeoccupational illness.


(012) Which is not a responsibility of the originator?a. Identify noted conditions that may become deficiency reports (DR).b. Discover noted conditions that may become DRs.c. Document noted conditions that may become DRs.d. Investigate noted conditions that may become DRs.


(012) The personnel in the originating point interact with the originator as required to ensure eachdeficiency report (DR) isa. valid, accurate, and effective.b. valid, accurate, and complete.c. affordable, comprehensive, and effective.d. accurate and properly addressed to ALC recipients.


What are the five types of TOs?

(1) O&M TOs. (2) TCTOs. (3) Methods and procedures-type TOs. (4) Index-type TOs. (5) Abbreviated TOs.

What are the main purposes of a TCTO?

They are the authorized method of directing and providing instructions for modifying Air Force systemsand performing or initially establishing one-time inspections.

When would the Air Force issue an immediate action TCTO?

To correct an unsafe condition that could result in serious or fatal injury to personnel, or cause extensivedamage or destruction of valuable property.

Describe the conditions that would warrant issue of an urgent action TCTO.

Conditions that could result in injury to personnel, cause damage to valuable property, or result in anunacceptable reduction in operational and/or combat efficiency.

How are routine action TCTOs issued?

They’re issued in two separate categories (category 1 or 2), based on the primary responsibility foraccomplishment

Who performs a Category 1 routine action TCTO?

They’re performed at the organizational and field maintenance activities.

What are some methods of interim TCTO distribution?

They may be transmitted by radiogram, telegram, teletype, message form or any other type of speedycommunication.

What type of TOs begin with ―00‖ and are also referred to as general TOs?

Methods and procedures TOs.

What type TO is considered the starting point for finding information about any other TO?

Index-type TOs.

How would you know a TO number is in the fighter aircraft TO category?

The first group of numbers will contain an F.

What is the function of the second part of TO number 1F–15A–06?

Identifies the aircraft model and series.

What is the purpose of the ―2‖ in the TO number 1F–15C–2–00GV–00–1?

Identifies the kind of TO. (It means the TO contains maintenance instructions.)

What kind of TO is 1F–15C–575?


What does the number ―27‖ represent in the TO number 1F–15C–2–27JG–40–1?

The flight control system.

What does the number ―30‖ represent in the TO number 1F–15C–2–34JG–30–1?

The subsystem pertaining to the navigation system.

Why is it important to protect TOs?

Because they’re expensive

List three ways TOs can be damaged on the flight line.

Any three of the following:(1) Weather. (2) Aircraft engines. (3) Fluids. (4) Damage from vehicles or equipment. (5) General abuse.

Give two examples of TO abuse.

Any two of the following: 2–18 (1) Standing on one or more TOs to reach the top fasteners on forward equipment bay doors. (2) Using a JG as a kneepad. (3) Carelessly tossing a TO into the cockpit. (4) Dropping a bag of TOs from the cockpit down to the pavement.

What is the most common form of TO damage and what causes this damage?

Pages ripped from the TO binder. Normally, high winds will cause this kind of damage.

What would you do if you found pages torn out of the TO binder and the holes were damaged?

Repair the holes using paper reinforcements, then put the page back in the TO in its proper place.

Explain a couple of ways that TO pages can become torn?

Tears normally occur in the creases of schematic foldouts and can also happen if someone gets carelesswhen turning the pages.

When can you use cellophane tape to repair torn TO pages?

To repair ripped pages. If your repair obscures any technical data, the TO becomes invalid and must bereplaced.

How can existing material in a TO be easily altered to reflect new information?

A change to the TO can be submitted.

How do you identify a change within TO text?

There will be a heavy black line in the outer margin next to the changed information.

How do you identify a change to a schematic or illustration?

A graphic of a hand points to the affected material.

Describe a cumulative TO supplement.

They include data contained in previously issued supplements. Upon issue, the cumulative supplement willsupersede all previously issued supplements.

What type of supplement is used to supplement individual pages of a TO, and how is itdistinguished from normal TO pages?

TOPS; printed on green paper.

How are TOPS pages filed within a TO?

Facing the affected page

How are routine supplements filed?

They are filed in the back of the affected publication.

How are operational supplements identified?

They are identified by a black OS border on the front page with the words OPERATIONALSUPPLEMENT printed on the top and bottom of the first page

When are interim supplements issued?

When time is of the essence. They’re quickly produced and electronically transmitted to the using agencyfor rapid integration into deficient TOs

When is an urgent ISS issued?

When safety conditions could result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel.

How are safety and operational supplements filed?

In reverse numerical sequence in front of the basic TO.

How are you alerted of a TO supplement?

When you notice a supplement number, entered in pencil, next to a circled TO paragraph number (thecircled paragraph number indicates the affected material and is the subject of the filed supplement). Referto the indicated supplement number, in front or back of the TO depending on type, and follow itsinstruction, then continue on with the task.

Describe an LOEP check.

It is a comparison of the page and change numbers on each page of a TO with the data on the LOEP.

Describe the deficiencies that a TO correction would fix.

A correction fixes a word omission, typographical, or printing error that doesn’t cause misinterpretationand minor word changes or corrections to technical data, which clarify or expand existing instructions, butaren’t essential for the adequate performance of the functions required for mission accomplishment.

What type of recommended TO change corrects typos that alter the meaning of instructionalmaterial or procedures?

A TO improvement.

Name the three TO change recommendation priorities.

Emergency, urgent, and routine.

What type of TO change recommendation would be submitted as either an emergency or urgentpriority?

A TO improvement recommendation.

Who submits an AFTO Form 22?

The person who discovers a TO condition that requires a change.

What acts as the signature on e-mailed AFTO Form 22s?

The e-mail address. Its record is sufficient proof of identity.

Who is the final approval authority for a submitted AFTO Form 22?

The lead command (normally AFMC) for the system affected by the AFTO Form 22.

Who may perform a follow-up action for a delayed AFTO Form 22 reply?

The local PIM.

(013) Which is not an example of information found in maintenance manuals?a. System operation.b. Troubleshooting guides.c. Operational checkout procedures.d. Instructions for modifying aircraft systems.


(013) The three main categories of time compliance technical orders (TCTO) area. immediate action, urgent action, and routine action.b. immediate action, urgent action, and special action.c. immediate action, special action, and routine action.d. urgent action, special action, and routine action.


(013) Which level of maintenance completes Category 2 time compliance technical orders(TCTO)?a. Depot.b. Factory.c. Intermediate.d. Organizational.


(013) If the urgency of conditions doesn’t allow for time, what type of time compliance technicalorder (TCTO) is used?a. Record.b. Interim.c. Routine.d. Category 1.


(013) Methods and procedures technical orders (TO) begin witha. 00.b. 01.c. 10.d. 11.


(013) Abbreviated TOs are primarily useda. as work simplification aids for personnel.b. until such time as the permanent TOs are published.c. exclusively when equipment is undergoing modifications.d. to accomplish simple maintenance not covered in other TOs.


(014) How would you know a technical order (TO) number is in the utility aircraft TO category?a. The first group of numbers will contain the numeral 2.b. The second group of numbers will contain the numeral 2.c. The first group of numbers will contain the letter U.d. The second group of numbers will contain the letter U.


(014) Group two of an aircraft technical order (TO) number identifies thea. kind of TO.b. individual TO.c. aircraft basic mission.d. aircraft series and model.


. (014) The ―2‖ in group 3 of technical order (TO) number 1U–2S–2–10 designates that thetechnical order (TO is aa. parts catalog.b. flight manual.c. work unit code manual.d. maintenance instruction.


(014) When the technical order (TO) number has only three parts, group three identifies thea. individual TO.b. aircraft series.c. category of TO.d. aircraft basic mission.


(014) The fourth group of a technical order (TO) number contains one or two parts identifying aa. TO’s particular system and purpose.b. aircraft series and model.c. aircraft subsystem.d. TO’s category.


(015) If a page is found missing from a technical order (TO), ita. is still good and can be used.b. is not valid and must be removed from service.c. is still good as long as only one page is missing.d. can be used if it is inspected by a quality assurance inspector.


(015) How would you repair pages that have been ripped out of a technical order (TO) binder?a. Use paper reinforcements.b. Use ordinary cellophane tape.c. Use masking tape to repair any ripped out holes.d. No need to make repairs; instead, neatly place the loose pages back in place.


(015) You can use cellophane tape to mend a torn technical order (TO) page as long asa. the tape does not turn yellow or brown.b. the tape does not obscure any technical data.c. there are no more than five mends per page.d. there are no more than two mends per page.


(016) When a technical order (TO) change takes place, the changed (new) TO pagea. is stapled to the existing TO page.b. is filed in the TO facing the affected page.c. will be filed in the front of the TO with all other changed pages.d. replaces the corresponding page number in the existing publication.


(016) Changes in the text of a technical order (TO) are indicated bya. a black circle with the outer margin of the page.b. a small black hand, pointing to affected material.c. heavy black index dots in the outer margin of the page.d. a heavy black vertical line in the outer margin of the page.


(016) Supplements are issued to augment or change data in the basic technical order (TO)a. by replacing the existing pages.b. and are filed in a supplement TO.c. without replacing the existing pages.d. and the pages are printed in blue to alert the user.


(016) Routine technical order (TO) supplements are fileda. in the front of the most current TOPS.b. in the back of the affected publication.c. in front of the affected publication.d. along with a TOPS.


(016) Interim safety supplements are transmitteda. by courier.b. by telephone.c. electronically.d. by secure telephone.


(016) How can you tell if a supplement is filed in a technical order (TO)?a. Review the complete TO and remember its location.b. The TO manager will keep you informed of TO supplements.c. The unit bulletin board has a list of the most current supplements.d. By a supplement number, entered in pencil, next to a circled TO paragraph number.


(016) An inventory of each technical order (TO) page is also known as aa. list of effective pages check.b. page verification and certification check.c. technical order inventory and page quick check.d. technical data and specifications validation review.


(017) The two types of recommended technical order (TO) changes area. emergency and urgent.b. correction and improvement.c. upgrade type I and upgrade type II.d. scheduled and unscheduled, initiated by the TO manager.


(017) What would the priority recommendation be if a technical order (TO) deficiency wouldresult in a fatal or serious injury to personnel?a. Urgent.b. Routine.c. Interim.d. Emergency.


(017) What would the priority recommendation be if a time compliance technical order (TCTO)were deficient?a. Urgent.b. Routine.c. Interim.d. Emergency.


(017) Responsibility for initiating follow-up action on a technical order (TO) changerecommendation with a delayed reply rests witha. the local product improvement manager (PIM).b. the officer-in-charge (OIC) of the technical order library.c. your organization’s designated information manager (IM).d. the base forms and publications office of primary responsibility (OPR).


What are the general procedures for removing an LRU?

(1) Inspect the electrical connectors for bent pins and signs of corrosion.(2) Use new gaskets and O–rings on antenna and waveguide connections.(3) Remove all protective covers from the new LRU and place them on the defective LRU.(4) Never use masking tape or electrical tape on aircraft wiring or connector plugs.(5) Be sure the proper torque is put on each nut and bolt. The TO provides the proper torque values where required.(6) Ensure the proper paperwork is attached to the defective LRU.(7) Be sure the LRU is protected while it’s being transported between the aircraft and supply.

When doing any procedure involving the TO, what should the technician do?

Follow the TO step-by-step.

What must be done when an electrical connector is disconnected?

Protective covers must be installed on both the plug on the wire harness and the receptacle on the LRU.

How are hydraulic lines protected?

With threaded metal caps only; never use plastic caps.

What happens if dirt or moisture gets into a waveguide?

Dirt or dust entering the waveguide attenuates both the transmitted and received energy. Moisture reduces the insulating quality of the air in the waveguide, and can cause an arc.

What type of torque wrenches are there and what do they measure?

Two types, indicating or breakaway; they measure inch or foot pounds.

What type of torque wrench is most commonly used in the Air Force?


What are the precautions for using a torque wrench?

(1) Never use a torque wrench as a breaker bar for loosening nuts, bolts or other components.(2) When tightening anything with a torque wrench, don’t over tighten past the torque value set on the wrench. Doing this may throw off the calibration or possibly cause internal damage to the torque wrench.

When storing a breakaway torque wrench, what must be done?

The torque wrench should be cleaned. If the wrench has dirt on it, or if it was immersed in water or corrosive chemicals, it should be cleaned, lightly sprayed with protecting oil, and wiped down. Also, the wrench should be stored in its own storage container with the wrench handle at its lowest indicated setting.

How often should torque wrenches be calibrated?

Every 60 days, unless the torque wrench was dropped.

What’s the purpose of the AFTO Form 781H?

To document maintenance status, servicing information, and to provide a ready reference as to the status ofaerospace vehicles.

What information can be found within the status today box in the AFTO Form 781H?

A symbol representing the highest open symbol in the AFTO Forms 781A or 781K

What’s an ER? Who normally performs the ER?

It serves as a certification that the authorized individual who enters a signature in this area has reviewed theactive forms to ensure the aircraft is safe for flight. Normally performed by the pro-super.

In what two AFTO 781 Series forms will you find information about airframe time?

781H and 781J.

As a maintenance specialist, what AFTO 781 Series form will you use the most?


What’s the purpose of the AFTO Form 781A?

Used to document each aircraft discrepancy discovered by the pilot or any maintenance personnel.Essentially, any maintenance that’s performed or discrepancy found on an aircraft requires an entry on the781A.

What kind of date format is used in the FROM block of the 781A?

Recorded in an eight-digit format in order of year, month, and day.

As a maintenance technician, which entries will you see in the SYM block of the 781A?

A red X, red diagonal, or red dash.

What does a red X symbol indicate?

The weapon system, support system, or equipment is considered unsafe or unfit for flight or use and thatthe weapon system, support system, or equipment won’t be flown or used until the unsatisfactory conditionis corrected or symbol is cleared.

Who usually enters the symbol in the SYM block of the 781A?

The person who discovers the discrepancy.

. Who can sign off a red X discrepancy on the AFTO Form 781A?

Usually, it must be someone who is at least a 7-level technician, other than the person performing themaintenance, who inspects the work and is designated to clear red X symbols by being on red X orders.

When will the supply document number be entered into the DOC NO block of the 781A?

If a part is back-ordered.

What information must be entered into the CORRECTIVE ACTION block when a red Xcondition is cleared in the 781A?

A description of the corrective action and a TO reference (including page and paragraph/figure number orfunction number), or equivalent.

What’s done to the 781A if an operational check can’t be accomplished concurrently with orimmediately after completion of the maintenance?

The original entry is closed out by describing the corrective action and stating that an operational check isdue. The operational check is written up in the next open block on the AFTO Form 781A. The originalentry and the operational check entries must refer to each other as follows: ―see page __, item __.‖ In addition, the operational check entry must adequately describe the reason for the operational check.

What’s the purpose of the AFTO Form 781K?

To review and enter delayed discrepancies

Where are red X entries entered on the AFTO Form 781K?


What additional documentation is required when a delayed discrepancy is corrected on the AFTOForm 781K?

The discrepancy must be transferred to the 781A so a description of the corrective action can bedocumented.

What information needs to be added to automated AFTO 781 Series forms after the product is printed?


What is static electricity?

It’s the accumulation of an electrical charge on the surface of a material.

What are the four factors that affect the magnitude of a static charge on a material?

The size, shape, composition, and electrical properties of the material.

What type of material can quickly distribute a static charge over its entire surface?

A conducting material.

Will static electricity have a tendency to buildup more in a high or low humidity environment?Why is this true?

Low humidity. Humid air helps to dissipate electrostatic charges and decreases the chances of accumulating the charge.

List five components that are ESDS.

(1) All MOSFET components.(2) JFETs.(3) Film resistors.(4) Resistor chips.(5) Piezoelectric crystals.

How would you know that an ESDS component is present?

Any parts, LRUs, and equipment that contain an ESDS component should be marked with the ESDS caution symbol and statement.

What precaution should you take to be sure you don’t have a static charge built-up in your bodythat could damage an ESDS component?

First, be sure that the aircraft is properly grounded. Then discharge yourself by touching the unit’s case before disconnecting any cables and touch the outer shells of cable connectors together to equalize electrostatic potentials.

Which TO will give you further guidance on ESDS components?


What is the purpose of the altitude and airspeed portions of the test set?

These are used to perform leak and operational checks of the pitot-static system and instruments.

When will you use the TTU–205 to perform an operational and leak check?

Anytime a pitot-static indicator is replaced.

What is the altitude range of the TTU–205?

–1,000 to 80,000 feet.

What condition must be satisfied before connecting the TTU–205 to the aircraft?

After a satisfactory test set leak check.

What is the purpose of the AN/APM-424 test set?

TO perform the operational check on the IFF system.

What modes does the IFF test set interrogate?

Modes 1, 2, 3/A, C and 4

What conditions must be met in order for the aircraft altitude to be displayed on the test set?

The ADC is turned on and mode C enabled.

How is the test set powered?

By either a battery stick or six C-cell nickel cadmium batteries.

How are the mode 4 codes loaded into the tester?

Hook up the computer interface cable between the tester and the Mode 4 computer KIR-1A/TSEC.

What button is pushed to repeat the last IFF mode previously checked?


What are the four main functional groups of the AN/PLM4 (V3) RSS?

Power Distribution, Digital Control, RF, BIT.

What test failure will cause the RSS not to operate?

The FIFO memory part of this test.

What functional checks on the CMDS are performed with the CDSTS?

Verifies the absence of stray voltage on each firing pin of the CMD; validates amplitude, duration and sequence of fire pulse; provides PASS/FAIL status of the CMDS; provides fire pulse count, sequence of fire pulse, pin number for each no-fire position, each bad ground spring position, and the number(s) of failed limiter circuits (ALE-47 only) as well as providing PASS/FAIL status of the AN/ALE-40 reset.

What does the Stray Voltage Test perform?

Perform an absence of stray voltage safety checkout across dispenser firing contact before loading payload magazines with live pyrotechnic cartridges (squibs). The CDT monitors all dispenser firing contacts for the existence of an AC or DC stray voltage.

What groups are checked by the JSECST?

Group A and Group B components of the EC SUT.

What is checked by Group B tests?

Radar warning receivers, integrated electronic attack suites, and electronic countermeasures characteristics of target EC systems.

When will the JSECST pressure-equalizing valve open?

Whenever a pressure differential of more than 6 psi exists between the test set’s internal pressure and the ambient pressure.

What is the SKL and for what is it used?

A PDA running the Windows CE operating system used to load cryptographic codes into aircraft secure voice systems, GPS and IFF.

The crypto ignition key is used for what?

In order to have access to the information on the SKL.


Exercises conducted periodically to validate the production and delivery of software and hardware changes to electronic equipment used to provide an awareness and response capability with the electronic spectrum.

What is the intention of SERENE BYTE?

Identify problem areas; gain confidence in the process; ensure a smooth flow of information during a crisis; ensure readiness in response to threat parameter changes; train operations, intelligence, communications, and maintenance personnel.

What are the four steps in the Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming and the code name for this process?

(1) Detect change.(2) Determine impact.(3) Reprogram.(4) Field change; code name PACEWARE.

What is the goal for emergency changes affecting combat operations?

Releasing necessary changes within 24 hours.

State a general definition of FOD.

Any object that can cause damage, in any place and time, when it is where it doesn’t belong.

Name some items that can become FOD.

Birds, hats, TO pages, packaging materials, field jackets, panel fasteners, and tools.

Who has the responsibility for FOD prevention?

Everyone (including you).

List at least four things you can do to help reduce the FOD problem.

Any 4 of the following:(1). Follow tech data.(2). Properly plug or cap all aircraft openings, ports, lines, hoses, and ducts.(3). Account for all tools, equipment, and hardware at the end of each job.(4). Keep all work areas clean and free of debris; double-check the work site before leaving it.(5). Pick up litter, even when you’re just passing through an area.

Give the precautions you should take while using MEK.

Wear proper gloves and eye protection and never use MEK without proper ventilation.

Where will you most likely encounter hydraulic fluid?

Around flight control system components and anywhere that someone needed to open a hydraulic line.

What are the hazard attributes associated with hydraulic fluid?

Its flammable, an irritant, somewhat toxic, and very slippery.

Give two general precautions you should take around aircraft to prevent igniting fuel.

(1) Never smoke on the flight line or in a hangar except in designated smoking areas.(2) Avoid any source of spark or open flame near an aircraft.

To minimize the hazard created by their burners, how far should you place portable heaters from the aircraft

As far as the ducting allows.

What is the water content of hydrazine (H70)?


What risks are associated with exposure to hydrazine?

It’s a suspected carcinogen (cancer causing agent) that also attacks the liver, kidneys, and respiratory system.

What does the hydrazine vapor indicator do?

Detects hydrazine vapor and changes color to warn personnel

What color does the hydrazine vapor indicator turn if a hydrazine tank leak has been detected?

Gray or black.

How far should personnel be evacuated in the event of a hydrazine spill or leak?

100 feet minimum (500 feet downwind) from the source of the spill.

What two safety measures need to be followed when performing maintenance on the H70 system?

Wear respiratory and personal protective equipment and provide positive ventilation through the fuselage.

When should respiratory and personal protective equipment be worn?

Whenever levels of H70 exceed the recommended safe level of 100 ppb.

Why is the energy stored in a compressed gas cylinder such a hazard?

Because a flaw in, or mishandling of, the cylinder could cause it to explode.

Why do you need to check the threads on regulators, fittings, and valves?

To make sure that the threads on the valve and any fittings match.

If the gas cylinder valve requires the use of a wrench or key, what special precaution should you take while using the gas?

Keep the tool ready in case you need to shut off the flow of gas from the cylinder.

What types of tools can you use on valves equipped with hand wheels?


With what type of gas should you not open the cylinder valve fully?


Why do helium and nitrogen create such a hazard in inadequately ventilated areas?

They dilute the air’s oxygen to unsafe levels, possibly causing you to suffocate.

What hazard does the cold temperature of liquid gasses create?

Contact with a liquid gas will cause instant frostbite, possibly leading to the loss of fingers or worse.

What danger does evaporating LOX create?

The risk of fire or explosion.

What is the operational hydraulic system pressure of most aircraft?

At or above 3,000 psi.

Name some possible contaminants of a hydraulic system.

Air, water, oils (other than hydraulic fluid), fuel, and dirt.

What’s the most common contaminant found in hydraulic systems?


What characteristic of air makes it such a serious problem in hydraulic systems?

Its compressibility leads to pressure fluctuation and actuator failure.

What effect does contamination by dirt and sand have on a hydraulic system?

Score the armature and damage the seals; clog the micron filters, slowing servo actuator response time; if the dirt or sand gets past the filters, damage the actuators.

Why should you never use your hands to feel for a hydraulic leak?

Because a pinhole leak with 3,000 psi pressure can easily amputate fingers or even your hand, or inject you with a toxic amount of hydraulic fluid.

List two reasons why you should avoid wearing metal jewelry around electrical circuits.

(1) The metal helps to overcome the skin’s natural resistance; it provides an excellent conductor, thus increasing the danger of being shocked.(2) The metal may spot-weld to any circuit it touches, making it difficult to escape.

When should you work on energized circuitry?

Only if it’s absolutely necessary.

What are the benefits of the buddy system?

Each person acts as a safety observer for the other. If one gets hurt, the other can administer first aid and summon help. Two can often get a job done more quickly than one.

List three safety points you should follow whenever you work around electricity.

Any three of the following:(1) Never trust a switch.(2) Don’t assume someone else installed safety devices.(3) Always tell your partner which circuit you’re working on.(4) Don’t rely on insulation as complete protection against electrical shock.(5) Keep your feet clear of objects on the ground.

What unit of measurement is used to measure noise levels?


What noise level, even for a short duration, could rupture the eardrum?

160 dB or above.

Below what level is noise considered relatively safe?

84 dB.

Name the symptoms people who have received an overdose of sound may display.

Pain and/or ringing or burning in the ears, a feeling of fullness, dizziness, lack of concentration, nausea, vomiting, and/or weakness of the knees

What should you do if you or your coworkers experience the symptoms of noise overdose?

Get away from the noise area and seek medical help immediately.

Although you can’t easily recognize the symptoms of minor noise overdoses, frequent exposure to these small overdoses can cause permanent hearing loss. What does the Air Force do to try to detect the first signs of hearing loss?

Base medical personnel periodically test your hearing.

When do F–15 engines produce the most dangerous levels of noise?

While in afterburner.

What type of AGE uses a small jet turbine to turn its generator and produce bleed air?

A/M32A–60A power unit.

When should you wear both earplugs and earmuffs?

Anytime you need to work where the noise may exceed 120 dB.

How long per day is it safe to expose yourself to 140 dB of noise while wearing both earplugs and earmuffs?

Less than 5 minutes.

List the four ways that RF can cause harm.

(1) Direct biological.(2) Indirect biological.(3) The ignition of fuel.(4) The detonation of EEDs.

How does RF damage your internal organs?

By causing them to heat up more quickly than their blood flow can cool them down.

What are the symptoms of RF radiation exposure?

Symptoms resembling the flu, or heat exhaustion may occur. These symptoms may include headache, nausea, vertigo, confusion, a sensation of warmth, a metallic taste in the mouth and sandy-feeling eyes or blurred vision. You may experience a slight decrease in blood pressure. You may also suddenly be overtaken by feelings of apathy or depression.

Which hazard of RF radiation occurs when RF interferes with medical devices?

Indirect biological.

Why does RF present a hazard to fuel trucks and other exposed fuel containers?

Because the radiation sets up eddy currents that could become strong enough to spark and set off the fuel.

State which hazard of RF radiation occurs in the following scenario: An operating radar causes a neighboring aircraft’s drop-tank squib to detonate, dropping the unpinned tank onto the ground.

The detonation of EEDs.

After seeing to an RF radiation overexposure victim’s medical needs, what should the supervisor immediately do?

Notify the RPO.

If you report an RF radiation overexposure, and you show no signs of injury, what should your supervisor do?

Make an appointment for you with the flight surgeon’s office for within the next 72 hours.

Does exposure to RF radiation definitely place you at risk of cancer or genetic mutation?


Who is the first line of defense when it comes to preventing RF hazards?

You, the technician.

How can the focusing property of the eye cause damage?

It increases the incident energy density (upon your retinas) by several-hundred-thousand times.

What determines which part of the eye might be damaged?

The wavelength of the radiated energy

What functions of sight does the fovea portion of the retina enable?

It enables you to see fine detail, distinguish colors, and perceive depth.

What function does the pupil of an eye perform?

It can vary its size over a wide range of lighting intensities to increase or decrease the amount of light entering the eye.

What determines how much skin damage a laser can inflict?

The amount of absorbed energy.

Where can you look to find guidance on laser operation and safety?

AFOSH Standard 48–139, Laser Radiation Protection Program.

(018) Which action will never be done after removing a line replaceable unit (LRU)? a. Inspect plugs and pins for signs of corrosion and bent pins. b. Use electrical tape to cover open connectors when high humidity is a problem. c. Use new gaskets or O–rings whenever the antenna and waveguide connections were opened. d. Install protective covers from the new LRU onto the connection receptacles of the defective LRU.


(018) What should be used on open hydraulic lines? a. Metal caps only. b. Plastic caps only. c. Cloth or rags only. d. Metal or plastic caps.


(019) How many indicating torque wrenches are there? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.


(019) What is the most common type of torque wrench used in the Air Force? a. Dial. b. Indicating. c. Deflection. d. Breakaway.


(019) What must be accomplished to keep the breakaway torque wrench set at a specific value? a. Lock the spring tube. b. Lock the locking ring. c. Adjust the handle grip. d. Adjust the drive assembly.


(019) How often should a torque wrench be calibrated? a. 60 days. b. 90 days. c. 60 days or when it is dropped. d. 90 days or when it is dropped.


(020) The Status Today symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781H represents the a. highest symbol in the forms. b. highest open symbol in the forms. c. last exceptional release completed by the 7-level technician. d. last exceptional release completed by the production superintendent.


(020) Prior to performing any maintenance on an aircraft you must first review the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form a. 781. b. 781A. c. 781H. d. 781K.


(020) Symbols entered in the 781A SYM block may a. never be erased. b. be erased when the symbol was entered in error. c. be erased if there is a change of status to the discrepancy. d. be erased only if approved by the production superintendent.


(020) When is a technician qualified to sign off a red dash or diagonal? a. Upon graduation of technical school. b. When the technician feels confident with the task. c. When the technician is a 7-level and is qualified to perform the task. d. When the technician has completed training on the task which has been signed off in their training records.


(020) A warning note is required to be entered on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A. To do this properly, the note will be entered into the a. DISCREPANCY block. b. INSPECTED BY block. c. DISCOVERED BY block. d. CORRECTIVE ACTION block.


(020) When the CORRECTED BY block on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A is signed, the signature will include the individual’s a. first initial and last name. b. full name, without the middle initial. c. full name to include any middle initial. d. first and middle initials along with his or her last name.


(020) The number and type of the next inspection due on an aircraft is documented on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781K. This data is entered in block a. A, AEROSPACE INSPECTION STATUS. b. B, ENGINE DATA. c. C, CALENDAR AND HOURLY INSPECTION SCHEDULE. d. D, DELAYED DISCREPANCIES, URGENT ACTION, AND OUTSTANDING ROUTINE ACTION TCTOs.


(021) High humidity affects the buildup of a static charge on insulator material because the humid air a. has no affect on the buildup of static charge. b. localizes the static charge and slows the dissipation of the charge. c. helps to dissipate electrostatic charges and decreases the chances of accumulating the charge. d. causes more electrons to travel to the insulating material and increases the chances of accumulating the charge.


(021) The primary cause of electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage to avionic components and equipment is a. lightning strikes on aircraft left exposed to the elements. b. discharge of static electricity through the equipment casing. c. discharge of static electricity into the equipment connector pins. d. placing the equipment too close to other operating electronic equipment.


(022) What must be performed prior to using the TTU–205 test set? a. Attaching the tester to the aircraft first. b. Just a visual inspection of the hoses. c. A leak check on the tester. d. No special check is required.


(023) What is the purpose of the AN/APM–424 test set? a. To check power output of the identification friend or foe (IFF) system. b. Produces IFF interrogations and displays the received replies. c. To only display the received replies. d. To check the transmitter frequency of the IFF system.


(023) How many push buttons are on the AN/APM–424 test set? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.


(024) On the AN/ALM–288 Countermeasures Dispensing Set, Test Set (CDSTS), which testing capability is used to test the serviceability of the Countermeasure Dispenser System (CMDS) dispenser ground spring contacts? a. Fire Test. b. Jettison Test. c. Misfire Test. d. Stray Voltage Test.


(024) On the Joint Service Electronic Combat Systems Test Set (JSECST), which is checked during Group A test? a. Radar Warning Receivers. b. Characteristics of target. c. Electronic attack suites. d. Distance-to-fault.


(025) What operating system is used with the simplified key loader (SKL)? a. Windows XP. b. Windows CE. c. Linux. d. Mac OS X.


(026) Which is the intention of the SERENE BYTE exercises? a. Detect change. b. Determine impact. c. Identify problem areas. d. To reprogram and field changes.


(027) Which is an example of foreign object damage (FOD)? a. Fuel fire destroys an aircraft. b. Piece of scrap metal punctures an aircraft tire. c. Defective component shorts out, causing an aircraft to crash. d. A worker drops a line replaceable unit (LRU), shattering the internal circuit cards.


(027) The responsibility for foreign object damage (FOD) prevention on the flight line rests with a. everyone. b. the maintenance officer. c. the maintenance supervisor. d. each flying squadron (FS) commander.


(028) Hydraulic fluid is not a. toxic. b. slick. c. corrosive. d. flammable.


(029) Gas cylinder valves have fusible safety plugs that are designed to release the gas when a. the flow out of the valve surpasses design limitations. b. eddy currents in the metal shell exceed a certain level. c. cylinder pressures exceed a predetermined danger point. d. a sharp blow or drop creates a danger of the cylinder rupturing.


(030) Aircraft hydraulic systems are very dangerous because they operate at a pressure of a. 1,500 pounds per square inch (psi). b. 3,000 psi. c. 4,500 psi. d. 6,000 psi.


(030) The most common contaminant found in aircraft hydraulic systems is a. air. b. oil. c. dirt. d. water.


(031) When you are working around electrical circuits, you should a. have trust in switches. b. assume someone else installed safety devices. c. tell your partner which circuit you are working on. d. rely upon insulation as protection against electrical shock.


(032) The noise level at which your eardrums could easily rupture is a. 130 decibels (dB) and above. b. 140 dB and above. c. 150 dB and above. d. 160 dB and above.


(032) What region of noise levels is considered relatively safe? a. 102 decibels (dB) and below. b. 96 dB and below. c. 92 dB and below. d. 84 dB and below.


(032) Since people normally display no outward symptoms of small overdoses to dangerous noise, the Air Force tries to detect the first signs of hearing loss by a. periodically testing your hearing. b. monitoring the adverse noise dosimeter (AND). c. performing an annual psycho-environmental profile. d. observing sample groups of airmen from your career field.


(033) Which statement is not true concerning hazardous noise? a. Short duration exposure to hazardous noise is not very harmful. b. The best protection is provided by wearing both earmuffs and earplugs. c. Noise hazards exist forward, to the side, and aft of operating jet engines. d. The frequency and level of noise generated when a jet engine is operating can cause permanent loss of hearing.


(033) You should wear both ear plugs and ear muffs at noise levels above a. 90 decibels (dB). b. 100 dB. c. 110 dB. d. 120 dB.


(034) After taking a suspected radio frequency (RF) over exposure victim to the hospital who should be immediately contacted? a. The base Chaplin. b. The radiation protection officer. c. The airfield radiofrequency manager. d. The biomedical incident review board.


(035) What factor(s) determine the amount of laser energy absorbed by the skin? a. Power and wavelength of the laser beam. b. Distance from laser radiating element. c. Degree of skin pigmentation. d. Power and wavelength of the laser beam and degree of skin pigmentation.


(035) The extent of skin damage that can be inflicted by a laser is primarily determined by the a. power of the laser beam. b. amount of absorbed energy. c. wavelength of the laser beam. d. degree of pigmented tissue composition.