Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
124 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Which squadrons form a maintenance group?
a. operations, aircraft maintenance, flying b. maintenance, operations, quality assurance c. quality assurance, support, aircraft maintenance d. maintenance operation, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, quality assurance |
d. maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, quality assurance
|
|
|
QA recommends possible corrective actions to which level?
a. Supervisors b. Flight commanders c. Group commanders d. Squadron commanders |
a. Supervisors
|
|
|
Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?
a. Operations Support Center b. Logistics Support Center c. Operations Support Squadron d. Maintenance Operations Center |
d. Maintenance Operations Center
|
|
|
When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you MOST LIKELY be assigned?
a. Debrief b. Training c. Specialist d. Deployment |
c. Specialist
|
|
|
What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
a. NCO Acadamy b. OJT c. Career Development Course d. Task Qualification Training |
c. Career Development Course
|
|
|
You may attend the ALS after having how many months in the Air Force?
a. 24 b. 36 c. 48 d. 60 |
c. 48
|
|
|
Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees?
a. ORM b. MSDS c. AFOSH d. Flightline Safety |
c. AFOSH
|
|
|
Occupational Health is regulated by Air Force series
a. 91 b. 66 c. 127 d. 161 |
a. 91
|
|
|
Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
a. 00-5-1 b. 00-20-1 c. 21-101 d. 36-2108 |
c. 21-101
|
|
|
Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?
a. Lock and pin the work stands b. Check the AFTO Form 781K c. Check the intake for FOD d. Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft |
d. Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft
|
|
|
How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?
a. 20 feet to the front, 15 feet from the rear b. 15 feet to the front, 10 feet from the rear c. 10 feet to the front, 5 feet from the rear d. 5 feet to the front, 1 foot from the rear |
c. 10 feet from the front, 5 feet from the rear
|
|
|
To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the MINIMUM distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?
a. 100 b. 200 c. 300 d. 400 |
b. 200
|
|
|
FOD is usually caused by
a. people b. animals c. weather d. mechanical failure |
a. people
|
|
|
Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?
a. QA b. Squadron Commander c. Production Supervisor d. Maintenance Group Commander |
d. Maintenance Group Commander
|
|
|
During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to
a. acetone b. toluene c. carbon dioxide d. carbon monoxide |
d. carbon monoxide
|
|
|
Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of
a. aerosols b. liquids c. solids d. gases |
d. gases
|
|
|
Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain PPE?
a. Safety b. Hospital c. Supervisor d. Environmental |
c. Supervisor
|
|
|
Hazardous waste storage areas MUST prevent
a. explosions b. unauthorized entry c. overflow of materials d. mixing of unlike materials |
b. unauthorized entry
|
|
|
A common method for disposing of hazardous wastes is
a. dilution b. incineration c. land disposal d. biodegration |
a. dilution
|
|
|
For hazardous waste disposal, it is UNLIKELY the Air Force can justify
a. incineration b. land disposal c. biodegration d. chemico-physical treatment |
a. incineration
|
|
|
A specialized function of the supply mission is
a. repair b. service c. disposal d. retrieval |
c. disposal
|
|
|
From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?
a. Base system b. Weapons system c. Inventory system d. Geographical system |
b. Weapons system
|
|
|
Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?
a. Depot Level Repair System b. Repair Cycle Support System c. Standard Base Supply System d. Precious Metals Recovery System |
b. Repair Cycle Supply System
|
|
|
Selected Equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require
a. overhaul b. retest OK c. time change d. repair cycle support |
a. overhaul
|
|
|
Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by SBSS?
a. Priority Monitor Support (D18) b. Daily Document Register (D04) c. Due-out Validation Listing (M30) d. Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23) |
b. Daily Document Register (D04)
|
|
|
Base supply MUST deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of what difference in each organization?
a. Mission b. Contract c. Location d. Type of Aircraft |
a. Mission
|
|
|
What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?
a. Origin of the item b. Why the item broke c. How long the item will take to repair d. The responsible repairable processing center |
a. Origin of the item
|
|
|
Which provides a block by block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag?
a. AFMAN 23-110 b. TO 00-20-2 c. AFI 91-301 d. TO 00-5-1 |
b. TO 00-20-2
|
|
|
If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are NOT available, what form would you use to order an engine part?
a. AF IMT 2005 b. AFTO Form 349 c. AFTO Form 350 d. DD Form 1574 |
a. AF IMT 2005
|
|
|
If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN
a. 23-110 b. 23-254 c. 91-110 d. 91-254 |
a. 23-110
|
|
|
Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance?
a. DD Form 1574 b. DD Form 1575 c. DD Form 1577-2 d. DD Form 1577-3 |
b. DD Form 1575
|
|
|
Which item is one that a storage time period MUST be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?
a. Supply b. Shelf-life c. Inspection d. Bench Stock |
b. Shelf-life
|
|
|
When a bench stock item has a type 1 shelf-life, it means the item
a. has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended b. should be returned to supply after expiration date c. has a non-definite non-extendable period of shelf-life d. should be inspected or tested |
b. should be returned to supply after expiration date
|
|
|
A Category 1 DR is used to report a deficiency
a. that is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager b. found during an initial acceptance inspection (critical to major defects only) c. that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system d. that identifies a potential enhancement (applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle) |
c. that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment of a system
|
|
|
Within how many hours MUST Category 1 DR be forwarded to the screening point?
a. 8 b. 12 c. 24 d. 72 |
c. 24
|
|
|
Which type of items MUST be reflected on the CA/CRL?
a. Shelf-life b. Bench stock c. Hazardous materials d. Equipment Authorization Inventory Data |
d. Equipment Authorization Inventory Data
|
|
|
To become an equipment custodian, you MUST be appointed by the
a. Shop chief b. Supervisor c. Commander d. Supply chief |
c. Commander
|
|
|
The first part of a TO number identifies the
a. sectionalization of the TO b. type of instructions found in the TO c. category and type of equipment in the TO d. model and series of the equipment covered by the TO |
c. category and type of the equipment in the TO
|
|
|
The second part of a TO number gives the
a. TO classification b. type of equipment in the TO c. type of instructions found in the TO d. model and series for equipment type in the TO |
d. model and series for equipment type in the TO
|
|
|
In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?
a. Index b. Preliminary c. Methods and procedure d. Operational and maintenance |
a. Index
|
|
|
Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
a. General equipment b. General system c. Fault isolation d. Job Guide |
d. Job Guide
|
|
|
Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMS)?
a. Rapid action changes b. Operational supplements c. Urgent recommendations d. Time compliance technical order |
c. Urgent recommendations
|
|
|
What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding in the IPB?
a. Introduction b. Numerical Index c. Group assembly parts list d. Reference designation index |
a. Introduction
|
|
|
What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?
a. Record b. Urgent action c. Routine action d. Immediate action |
d. Immediate action
|
|
|
Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?
a. 00-5-1 b. 00-5-2 c. 00-20-1 d. 00-20-2 |
a. 00-5-1
|
|
|
How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?
a. the text or picture will be marked in color b. the text or picture will be highlighted in yellow c. the word "changed" will be marked on the text or picture d. a bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture |
d. a bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture
|
|
|
An AFTO IMT 22 is NOT submitted for
a. job guides b. work cards c. preliminary TOs d. methods and procedures TOs |
c. preliminary TOs
|
|
|
Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?
a. initiator b. commander c. supervisor of initiator d. product improvement office |
c. supervisor of initiator
|
|
|
Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if NOT corrected, COULD cause personnel injury or damage to equipment of property?
a. Urgent b. Special c. Routine d. Emergency |
a. Urgent
|
|
|
What are the two classifications of failures in RCM?
a. Evident and hidden b. Potential and evident c. Hidden and functional d. Potential and functional |
d. Potential and functional
|
|
|
In RCM, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?
a. Hard time b. Lubrication c. On Condition d. Failure finding |
c. On condition
|
|
|
The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by
a. reviewing the past engine accident investigation reports b. tracking serially controlled components and modules c. early detection of performance degradation and/or failures d. documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions |
c. early detection of performance degradation and/or failures
|
|
|
Within the ET&D program, to whom do flightline personnel transfer collected data for analysis?
a. Depot-level engine maintenance shops b. Base engine maintenance shop c. Product center engineers d. Flightline expediter |
b. Base engine maintenance shop
|
|
|
Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program?
a. propulsion and depot b. depot and nondestructive inspection c. propulsion and nondestructive inspection d. environmental health and nondestructive inspection |
c. propulsion and nondestructive inspection
|
|
|
What drives the creation of CRP?
a. equipment cost and repair time b. number of available spare engines c. number of assigned maintenance personnel d. customer wait time and transportation constraints |
d. customer wait time and transportation constraints
|
|
|
Who maintains accountability of CIRF assets and reports their status?
a. Production supervisor b. Depot item manager c. Engine technician d. Supply officer |
a. production supervisor
|
|
|
When a CIRF ships a replacement asset to a deployed unit, who is responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed?
a. Deployed unit b. CIRF personnel c. Supply squadron d. Transportation squadron |
b. CIRF personnel
|
|
|
What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility/capability?
a. Field maintenance b. Depot maintenance c. Engine trending and diagnostics d. Engine life-cycle management planning |
b. Depot maintenance
|
|
|
Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by
a. providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability b. ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner c. notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming TCTO d. providing the most current TO updates to the field |
a. providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability
|
|
|
Depot level support includes CLSS crews, depot maintenance support, maintenance assistance, and
a. jet engine intermediate maintenance crews b. ALC teams c. engineer assistance d. field teams |
d. field teams
|
|
|
A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to
a. schedule engine replacement times. b. track parts replacement on jet engines. c. report all engine related discrepancies d. maintain accurate and timely engine inventories |
d. maintain accurate and timely engine inventories
|
|
|
The KEY to making the CEMS work is
a. availability of engines and their parts b. accurate and timely data at the lowest level c. accurate and timely data at the highest level d. availability of a storage and analysis computer |
b. accurate and timely data at the lowest level
|
|
|
For how many categories of reporting does the CEMS establish and maintain records?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 |
a. 2
|
|
|
You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which one of the following AFTO Forms?
a. 25 b. 44 c. 95 d. 349 |
c. 95
|
|
|
To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form
a. 25 b. 95 c. 98 d. 349 |
b. 95
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs?
a. Prevent unscheduled removal of engines b. Identify engines requiring TCTO maintenance c. Accelerate the flying rate of all the unit's installed engines d. Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field |
d. Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field
|
|
|
Which is NOT a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?
a. Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets b. Accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements c. Evaluate the engine controls and accessories to include engine monitoring systems d. Detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections |
a. Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets
|
|
|
How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and accessories?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
b. 2
|
|
|
Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is POTENTIALLY HAZARDOUS because it could cause
a. injury to you b. torn clothing c. electrical shock d. damage to the tool |
a. injury to you
|
|
|
What would you use to hold your tools when you CANNOT locate your toolbox within arm's reach?
a. Ziplock bag b. Parts bag c. FOD bag d. Toolbag |
d. Toolbag
|
|
|
If you MUST torque a sequence of three or more bolts,
a. use maximum torque b. use a staggered sequence c. torque from left to right d. overtorque, loosen, and retorque |
b. use a staggered sequence
|
|
|
The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the
a. lock b. grip c. shaft index line d. broached opening |
d. broached opening
|
|
|
What type of rule should you use for measuring an INSIDE diameter?
a. hook b. narrow c. 6-inch steel d. slide caliper |
d. slide caliper
|
|
|
Micrometers are generally used to make measurements to an accuracy of
a. one sixteenth of an inch b. one one-hundredth of an inch c. one one-thousandth of an inch d. one ten-thousandth of an inch |
d. one ten-thousandth of an inch
|
|
|
The LONGEST calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is
a. 1 inch b. 2 inches c. 3 inches d. 4 inches |
a. 1 inch
|
|
|
You adjust a micrometer by turning the
a. barrel b. frame c. spindle d. thimble |
d. thimble
|
|
|
The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in
a. hundredths of an inch b. thousandths of an inch c. ten-thousandths of an inch d. hundred-thousandths of an inch |
c. ten-thousandths of an inch
|
|
|
Where is the contact point on a dial indicator located?
a. on the dial face b. at the end of the anvil c. at the end of the thimble d. at the end of a pivoted lever |
d. at the end of a pivoted lever
|
|
|
What feature is common to all dial indicators?
a. construction of indicator b. construction of indicating hand c. ability to amplify movement greatly d. ability to amplify movement slightly |
c. ability to amplify movement greatly
|
|
|
To avoid rust, measuring tools should NEVER be stored where the relative humidity EXCEEDS what percentage?
a. 10 b. 20 c. 40 d. 50 |
d. 50
|
|
|
What should you use for cleaning measuring tools?
a. WD-40 b. Trychlorethlene c. Turbo-super-carb d. Dry-cleaning solvent |
d. Dry-cleaning solvent
|
|
|
The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC is the
a. function selector b. range-mode pushbutton switch c. touch-hold pushbutton switch d. volts, ohms, diode test input jack |
d. volts, ohms, diode test input jack
|
|
|
How many range settings does the Fluke 8025A multimeter have?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 |
c. 4
|
|
|
What is the MAXIMUM voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter?
a. 28 b. 30 c. 32 d. 34 |
c. 32
|
|
|
What is the purpose of a borescope inspection on an engine?
a. Replace a teardown inspection b. Visually inspect internal cavities c. Detect major damage inside the engine d. Determine how much maintenance is required during a periodic inspection |
b. Visually inspect internal cavities
|
|
|
Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by
a. the fiber optics b. an optical illusion bundle c. a grounded extension cord d. a directly magnified light source |
a. the fiber optics
|
|
|
What are the type(s) of view(s) available with the rigid borescope?
a. Direct b. Axisymetrical c. Direct and lateral d. 60 degrees up and 180 degrees down |
c. Direct and lateral
|
|
|
When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the area you are inspecting?
a. Light guide tube b. Control unit c. Distal tip light guides d. Bending section lever |
c. Distal tip light guides
|
|
|
The type of borescope that uses miniature TV camera images is a
a. videoimagescope b. rigid borescope c. flexible scope d. fibrescope |
a. videoimagescope
|
|
|
Which factor IS NOT considered for borescope operator certification?
a. Experience b. Maturity c. Age d. Rank |
c. Age
|
|
|
Proper bolt length allows a MINIMUM of how many threads protruding the nut?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
b. 2
|
|
|
The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to
a. allow for the installation of a washer b. keep the nut from backing loose c. allow for expansion of the metal d. avoid bottoming out the nut |
d. avoid bottoming out the nut
|
|
|
What type of bolt is used PRIMARILY in high-tension applications?
a. Clevis b. Hex head c. Special purpose d. Internal wrenching |
d. Internal wrenching
|
|
|
Which nuts should NEVER be used in areas where the temperature EXCEEDS 250 degrees F?
a. Plain nuts b. Wing nuts c. Metallic self-locking nuts d. Nonmetallic self-locking nuts |
d. Nonmetallic self-locking nuts
|
|
|
How is a screw length measured?
a. Thread length of the treads b. Base of the head to the bottom of the threads c. Length of the shank plus the threaded portion d. Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads |
d. Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads
|
|
|
When installing a self-taping screw, the hole MUST be
a. slightly smaller than the screw. b. the same size as the screw shank c. slightly deeper than the length of the shank d. slightly shallower than the length of the screw |
a. slightly smaller than the screw
|
|
|
What type of washer is used to prevent corrosion of DISSIMILAR metals?
a. Plain b. Lock c. Star d. Tab |
a. Plain
|
|
|
To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces and a lock washer is required, what should you use?
a. Plain washer underneath the lock washer b. Solf lock washer c. Special washer d. Crush washer |
a. Plain washer underneath the lock washer
|
|
|
What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential?
a. Tapered b. Flathead c. Cotter d. Shear |
a. Tapered
|
|
|
When lockwiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness?
a. 6 to 8 b. 8 to 10 c. 10 to 12 d. 12 to 14 |
b. 8 to 10
|
|
|
Copper tubing is NOT used on jet engines because it
a. is expensive b. is too flexible c. has a high-fatigue factor d. has extremely high tensile strength |
c. has a high-fatigue factor
|
|
|
You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines by
a. their international orange color b. the different colors of the tubing or hoses c. the specifications embossed on the tubing or hoses d. the coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hoses |
d. the coded bands of colored tape place around the tubing or hoses
|
|
|
What numerical value is given to a fitting used on tubing that measures 3/8 inch?
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 |
c. 6
|
|
|
Why should dust caps be installed over tube ends rather than inside them?
a. Provides a tighter fit b. Prevents nicking of inner tube surface c. Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed d. Provides less contact with corrosive lubricants. |
c. Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed
|
|
|
For a straight piece of tubing to remain serviceable, a dent MUST be LESS than what percentage of the tubing diameter?
a. 20 b. 25 c. 30 d. 35 |
a. 20
|
|
|
What type of hoses should you NEVER use oil as an aid to installing?
a. Hydraulic b. Pneumatic c. Self-sealing d. High-pressure |
c. Self-sealing
|
|
|
When you receive an engine in your shop, you should check the applicable forms and then
a. look for leaks b. change the oil filter c. inspect for missing parts d. check the compressor inlet |
d. check the compressor inlet
|
|
|
Operating procedures and practices that, if NOT strictly observed, may result in damage to equipment are shown in the maintenance manuals in the form of
a. notes b. hints c. warnings d. cautions |
d. cautions
|
|
|
Preservation of a component being shipped is REQUIRED when it is being returned to depot or stored for MORE THAN how many days?
a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 |
b. 30
|
|
|
The shroud-type cover consists of a buildup of how many layers of wrap?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 |
b. 3
|
|
|
Which TO covers the disposition of engines removed from aircraft involved in mishaps?
a. 00-20-4 b. 2J-1-14 c. 2J-1-19 d. 33-1-37-1 |
c. 2J-1-19
|
|
|
Which container does NOT require warehouse facilities?
a. Shroud b. Prefabricated c. Fiberglass reinforced plastic d. Flexible environment control |
c. Fiberglass reinforced plastic
|
|
|
To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you MUST remove the
a. parting surface nuts b. parting surface bolts c. filler valve on the side of the container d. filler valve on the front of the container |
d. filler valve on the front of the container
|
|
|
When removing the shipping container lid from the shipping container, how much are the turnlock fasteners turned?
a. 1/4 turn b. 1/2 turn c. 1 turn d. 2 turns |
a. 1/4 turn
|
|
|
To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, look on the
a. side of the container b. data plate on both halves of the container c. top half on the right panel of the container d. bottom half on the left panel of the container |
c. top half on the right panel of the container
|
|
|
Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning MUST be observed?
a. Ensure humidity indicator is blue b. Release all pressure before removing lid c. Loosen bolts in a staggered pattern to prevent warpage d. Ensure pressure is below 5 psi before loosening bolts |
b. Release all pressure before removing lid
|
|
|
How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 |
b. 4
|
|
|
Engines inactive for over 180 days MUST have what accomplished?
a. Motor the engine to circulate the oil b. Inspect reservoirs to ensure they are full c. Visually inspect compressor for corrosion d. Preservation run and fuel system preservation |
d. Preservation run and fuel system preservation
|
|
|
To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, you MUST flush the system with
a. oil b. fuel c. PD-680 d. calibration fluid |
b. fuel
|
|
|
When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it will start
a. deep within the metal b. on the surface of the metal c. throughout the metal all at once d. just under the surface of the metal |
b. on the surface of the metal
|
|
|
What is used to help remove moisture from an area where engines are stored?
a. CPC b. CPM c. Cobalt chloride d. Desiccants |
d. Desiccants
|
|
|
On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to
a. prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use b. prevent the platform from swaying while it is in use c. lock the base structure while the platform is in use d. prevent the wheels from swiveling while it is in use |
a. prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use
|
|
|
Which maintenance platform can be adjusted from 3 to 7 feet?
a. B-1 b. B-2 c. B-4 d. B-5 |
c. B-4
|
|
|
What information is found in Part 1 of an AFTO Form 244?
a. Supervisory review b. Item identification c. Employee number blocks d. Nonscheduled inspection blocks |
b. Item identification
|
