2010 Released Qs And Ans26

Front 1

In a xerostomic patient, which salivary
gland(s) is/are most likely responsible for
the lack of saliva production?
A. Accessory.
B. Labial.
C. Parotid.
D. Sublingual and submandibular.

Back 1

D. Sublingual and submandibular.

Front 2

Oral signs and/or symptoms of vitamin B2
(riboflavin) deficiency may include
1. glossitis.
2. angular cheilitis.
3. pain.
4. erythematous oral mucosa.

Back 2

E. All of the above.

Front 3

A patient complains of the discolouration
of an unrestored upper central incisor.
Radiographically, the pulp chamber and
the root canal space are obliterated, there
is no evidence of caries and the
periodontal ligament space appears
normal. The most appropriate treatment
would be to
A. perform root canal treatment and
nonvital bleaching.
B. perform root canal treatment and
fabricate a post retained porcelain
fused to metal crown.
C. perform root canal treatment and
fabricate a porcelain veneer.
D. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal
crown.
E. fabricate a porcelain veneer.

Back 3

E. fabricate a porcelain veneer.

Front 4

The most appropriate management for a
tooth with a history of previous trauma
that now exhibits apical resorption is
A. observation over 6 months to
monitor the progression of
resorption.
B. complete instrumentation and
medication with intracanal calcium
hydroxide.
C. immediate instrumentation and
obturation followed by apical
curettage.
D. extraction, apical resection,
retrofilling and replantation.
E. extraction and replacement with a
fixed or removable prosthesis.

Back 4

B. complete instrumentation and
medication with intracanal calcium
hydroxide.

Front 5

Which of the following isare (an)
indication(s) for the removal of impacted
mandibular third molars?
1. Recurrent pericoronitis.
2. Prevention of crowding of mandibular
incisors.
3. Pain.
4. They are impacted.

Back 5

1. Recurrent pericoronitis.
3. Pain.

Front 6

The most important factor in determining
the dosage of systemic fluoride
supplementation is
A. daily water consumption.
B. climate.
C. water fluoride concentration.
D. total daily fluoride intake.
E. patient age.

Back 6

E. patient age.

Front 7

A 70 year old insulin-dependent patient
has just completed a 7 day course of
ampicillin for a respiratory infection. He
presents with signs and symptoms
consistent with a diagnosis of oral
candidiasis. Which of the following drugs
is/are appropriate to manage this
condition?
1. Fluconazole.
2. Nystatin.
3. Ketoconazole.
4. Clindamycin.

Back 7

1. Fluconazole.
2. Nystatin.
3. Ketoconazole.

Front 8

A 34 year old male patient complains of
night sweats, weight loss, malaise,
anorexia and low-grade fever. Clinical
examination shows a nodular, ulcerated
lesion on the palate. The most likely
diagnosis is
A. viral hepatitis.
B. infectious mononucleosis.
C. tuberculosis.
D. actinomycosis.

Back 8

C. tuberculosis.

Front 9

Aging pulps show a relative increase in
1. fibrous elements.
2. cell numbers.
3. calcification.
4. vascularity.

Back 9

1. fibrous elements.
3. calcification.

Front 10

Isthmus fracture during function in a
recently placed proximal-occlusal silver
amalgam restoration (with occlusal
extension through the occlusal fissure
system), is most likely due to a preparation
with
A. inadequate isthmus depth.
B. inadequate isthmus width.
C. a stepped buccal or lingual wall.
D. subgingival proximal extension.

Back 10

A. inadequate isthmus depth.

Front 11

Pins for cusp replacement should ideally
be placed
A. within enamel.
B. at the dentino-enamel junction.
C. a minimum of 0.5-1.0mm from the
dentino-enamel junction.
D. a minimum of 1.5-2.0mm from the
dentino-enamel junction.

Back 11

C. a minimum of 0.5-1.0mm from the
dentino-enamel junction.

Front 12

The most important factor contributing to
the long term success of the restoration of
an endodontically treated tooth is the
A. type of post utilized.
B. remaining coronal tooth structure.
C. presence of extracoronal coverage.
D. type of core material used.

Back 12

B. remaining coronal tooth structure.

Front 13

Conventional glass ionomer cements
A. elicit less pulp response than zincoxide
and eugenol cements.
B. do not require a protective liner, such
as calcium hydroxide in a deep
preparation.
C. have a lower modulus of elasticity
than zinc phosphate cements.
D. bond mechanically to calcium in
enamel and dentin.
E. are superior to zinc phosphate cement
for luting porcelain (all ceramic)
crowns.

Back 13

C. have a lower modulus of elasticity
than zinc phosphate cements.

Front 14

A small hinge articulator was used for the
fabrication of a cast gold onlay for tooth
4.6. Which of the following movements
will result in the greatest discrepancy
between the articulator and the patient?
A. Laterotrusive.
B. Mediotrusive.
C. Protrusive.
D. Retrusive.

Back 14

B. Mediotrusive.

Front 15

Which of the following cements can
chemically bond to enamel?
A. Zinc phosphate.
B. Polycarboxylate.
C. Calcium hydroxide.
D. Reinforced zinc-oxide eugenol.

Back 15

B. Polycarboxylate.

Front 16

Which of the following are vital signs?
A. Pulse rate and respiration.
B. Complete blood count.
C. Pupil size and reactivity.
D. Height and weight.

Back 16

A. Pulse rate and respiration

Front 17

Which of the following radiographs is
most appropriate for the diagnosis of a
fracture of the maxilla?
A. Panoramic radiograph.
B. Anteroposterior radiograph of the
skull.
C. Periapical radiographs of maxillary
teeth.
D. Occlusal radiograph.

Back 17

A. Panoramic radiograph

Front 18

The protective role of junctional
epithelium is aided by its increased
number of
A. cell layers.
B. intercellular spaces.
C. cell-cell adhesions.
D. collagen fibres.

Back 18

C. cell-cell adhesions.

Front 19

One of the mechanisms of bacterial
adherence to the dental pellicle is through
A. positively charged bacteria with the
pellicle.
B. interaction of cations such as calcium.
C. hydrophilic interactions.
D. interaction of salivary anions.

Back 19

D. interaction of salivary anions.

Front 20

Post-immunization serological test results
for a health care worker who has
completed the series of vaccinations
against hepatitis B is informed that their
anti-HBsAg is less than the value required
for immunity. The health care worker
should
A. receive one additional vaccination
followed by post-immunization
testing.
B. undergo the full series of hepatitis B
vaccinations followed by postimmunization
testing.
C. refrain from performing any
exposure-prone procedures for a
period of 3-6 months followed by a
full series of hepatitis B vaccinations.
D. have liver function tests performed to
assess liver damage from a previous
hepatitis B infection.

Back 20

B. undergo the full series of hepatitis B
vaccinations followed by postimmunization
testing.

Front 21

Oral foci of infection are of greatest
concern in patients with which of the
following conditions?
A. Type 2 diabetes.
B. Iron deficiency anemia.
C. Hypertension.
D. Rheumatic heart disease.

Back 21

D. Rheumatic heart disease.

Front 22

A daily dose of 80mg of acetylsalicylic
acid is used for its
A. analgesic properties.
B. antipyretic effect.
C. antiplatelet action.
D. anti-inflammatory function.

Back 22

C. antiplatelet action

Front 23

Which of the following could cause
clicking sounds during speech in denture
wearers?
A. Excessive vertical dimension.
B. Nonbalanced occlusion.
C. Excessive buccal flange thickness.
D. Reduced vertical overlap (overbite).

Back 23

A. Excessive vertical dimension.

Front 24

Which of the following is a depressor of
the mandible?
A. Temporalis.
B. Lateral (external) pterygoid.
C. Masseter.
D. Medial (internal) pterygoid

Back 24

B. Lateral (external) pterygoid.

Front 25

The location and extent of subgingival
calculus is most accurately determined
clinically by
A. radiopaque solution used in
conjunction with radiographs.
B. disclosing solution.
C. probing with a fine instrument.
D. visual inspection.

Back 25

C. probing with a fine instrument.

Front 26

In an infrabony pocket, the epithelial
attachment is located
A. within basal bone.
B. coronal to alveolar bone crest.
C. apical to alveolar bone crest.

Back 26

C. apical to alveolar bone crest.

Front 27

The most likely diagnosis for a child with
a painful, fiery-red, diffuse gingivitis is
A. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis.
B. aggressive periodontitis.
C. idiopathic fibromatosis.
D. aphthous stomatitis.

Back 27

A. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis.

Front 28

Which of the following is/are clinical
signs of gingivitis?
1. Loss of stippling.
2. Gingival hyperplasia.
3. Decreased pocket depth.
4. Bleeding on probing.

Back 28

4. Bleeding on probing.

Front 29

Regarding dental caries, which of the
following is correct?
A. All carbohydrates are equally
cariogenic.
B. More frequent consumption of
carbohydrates increases the risk.
C. The rate of carbohydrate clearance
from the oral cavity is not significant.
D. Increased dietary fat increases the
risk.

Back 29

B. More frequent consumption of
carbohydrates increases the risk.

Front 30

Lidocaine (Xylocaine®) is an example of
a local anesthetic which is chemically
classified as an
A. amide.
B. ester.
C. aldehyde.
D. ethamine.
E. aminide.

Back 30

A. amide.

Front 31

Procaine (Novocaine®) is an example of a
local anesthetic which is chemically
classified as an
A. amide.
B. ester.
C. aldehyde.
D. ethamine.
E. aminide.

Back 31

B. ester.

Front 32

A protective mechanism of the dental pulp
to external irritation or caries is the
formation of
A. pulp stones.
B. tertiary dentin.
C. secondary cementum.
D. primary dentin.

Back 32

B. tertiary dentin.

Front 33

Which of the following is NOT a
component of a dental cartridge containing
2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine?
A. Methylparaben.
B. Water.
C. Sodium metabisulphite.
D. Sodium chloride.

Back 33

C. Sodium metabisulphite.

Front 34

Which of the following drugs is used in
the treatment of mild allergic reactions?
A. Isoproterenol.
B. Meperidine hydrochloride.
C. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride.
D. Propoxyphene.

Back 34

C. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride.

Front 35

When a radiographic examination is
warranted for a 10 year old child, the most
effective way to decrease radiation
exposure is to
A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron.
B. apply a radiation protection badge.
C. use high speed film.
D. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp.
E. take a panoramic film only.

Back 35

A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron.

Front 36

If an alginate impression must be stored
for a few minutes before the cast is
poured, it should be placed in
A. water.
B. 100% relative humidity.
C. a 1% aqueous calcium sulfate
solution.

Back 36

B. 100% relative humidity.

Front 37

An end result of ionizing radiation used to
treat oral malignancies is
A. deformity of the jaws.
B. reduced vascularity of the jaws.
C. increased vascularity of the jaws.
D. increased brittleness of the jaws.

Back 37

B. reduced vascularity of the jaws.

Front 38

Which of the following is most often
associated with a nonvital tooth?
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
B. Internal resorption.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous
dysplasia.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis.

Back 38

A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.

Front 39

Myxedema is associated with
A. insufficient parathyroid hormone.
B. excessive parathyroid hormone.
C. insufficient thyroid hormone.
D. excessive thyroid hormone.

Back 39

C. insufficient thyroid hormone.

Front 40

Condensing osteitis in the periapical
region is indicative of a/an
A. acute inflammation of the pulp.
B. pulpal abscess.
C. chronic inflammation of the pulp.
D. early apical abscess formation.

Back 40

C. chronic inflammation of the pulp.

Front 41

A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic
enamel on tooth 1.5. All other teeth are
normal. This was most probably caused
by a/an
A. vitamin D deficiency.
B. generalized calcium deficiency.
C. high fever encountered by the patient
when he had measles at age 3.
D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the
development of tooth 1.5.
E. hereditary factor.

Back 41

D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the
development of tooth 1.5.

Front 42

Which of the following features would be
most indicative of a cracked tooth?
A. Periapical radiolucency.
B. Hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli.
C. Pain upon biting pressure.
D. Absent vitalometric response.

Back 42

C. Pain upon biting pressure.

Front 43

A 4 year old child has a normal
complement of deciduous teeth, but in
appearance they are grayish and exhibit
extensive occlusal and incisal wear.
Radiographic examination indicates some
extensive deposits of secondary dentin in
these teeth. This condition is typical of
A. cleidocranial dysplasia.
B. amelogenesis imperfecta.
C. neonatal hypoplasia.
D. dentinogenesis imperfecta.

Back 43

D. dentinogenesis imperfecta.

Front 44

Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis.
3. traumatic injury.
4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.

Back 44

1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis.
3. traumatic injury.

Front 45

Which of the following results from a
necrotic pulp?
A. Dentigerous cyst.
B. Lateral periodontal cyst.
C. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
D. Pulp polyp.

Back 45

C. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.

Front 46

Which of the following is/are associated
with an unerupted tooth?
1. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor.
2. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic
tumor.
4. Cementoblastoma.

Back 46

1. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor.
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic
tumor.

Front 47

An ankylosed tooth is usually
A. nonvital.
B. associated with a root fracture.
C. infraerupted.
D. found in the permanent dentition.

Back 47

C. infraerupted.

Front 48

For which of the following pathological
conditions would a lower central incisor
tooth be expected to respond to heat, cold
and electric pulp test?
A. Apical cyst.
B. Acute apical abscess.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous
dysplasia.
D. Chronic apical periodontitis.

Back 48

C. Periapical cemento-osseous
dysplasia.

Front 49

The microscopic appearance of the central
giant cell granuloma of the jaws is similar
to that of lesions which occur in
A. hyperparathyroidism.
B. Paget's disease.
C. cleidocranial dysplasia.
D. hyperpituitarism.

Back 49

A. hyperparathyroidism.

Front 50

An ameloblastoma can develop from the
epithelial lining of which of the following
cysts?
A. Periradicular.
B. Dentigerous.
C. Residual.
D. Lateral periodontal.

Back 50

B. Dentigerous.