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111 Cards in this Set

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1. Which of the following statement is true about inflammatory process; (P49,50,52)
1. The presence of exudate implies significant alteration in the normal permeability of small blood vessels in the area of injury.
2. Vasodilation first involves the arterioles and opens new capillary beds in the area.
3. Vasodilation is quickly followed by increased blood flow.
4. Decreased hydrostatic pressure by the dilated vessels leads to a marked outflow of fluid.
5. Increased vascular permeability due to cytokine effect is delayed and shorter than that due to histamine effect.

A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,5
D. 2,3,4
E. 2,3,5
2. Which of the following work as actin-regulating protein in leukocyte filopodium; (P57)
1. filamin 2. myosin 3. gelsolin 4. profilin 5. calmodulin

A. 1,2
B. 1,3,4,5
C. 2,3,4
D. 3,4,5
E. All of above
3. Which of the following statement about cellular event is true; (P59)
A. Major opsonins, which are IgM antibodies, the C3a breakdown product, and MBL are recognized by specific receptors on leukocytes.
B. Mannose receptors bind and mediate endocytosis of oxidized or acetylated LDL particles that can no longer interact with the conventional LDL receptor.
C. Receptor-mediated endocytosis of small particles is dependent on polymerization of actin filaments.
D. IFN-γ secreted by NK-cells and antigen-activated T-cells is the major macrophage-activating cytokine.
E. CR1 (type 1 complement receptor) on leukocyte recognizes activated C1.
4. Which of the following statement about leukocyte function is true; (P60, 61)
A. In the oxygen-independent mechanisms, BPI in leukocyte granules hydrolyses the muramic acid-Niacetyl-glucosamine bond which is found in the glycopeptide coat of all bacteria.
B. H2O2generated by the NADPH oxidase system is able to kill microbes efficiently.
C. Chediak-Higashi syndrome is characterized by myeloperoxidase deficiency.
D. In resting neutrophils, different NADPH oxidase protein components are located in the lysosome.
E. MPO-deficient leukocytes are capable of killing bacteria.
5. All of the following combinations between leukocyte receptor and function can be correct EXCEPT;  
A. Sialyl-Lewis X―Rolling of neutrophil, monocyte, lymphocyte
B. Mac-1―fibrinogen receptor
C. CD11b/CD18―Binding microbes for phagocytosis
D. CD31―Leukocyte adhesion to activated endothelium
E. L-selectin―Lymphocyte homing to high endothelial venules (P54,55,59,60)
6. Which of the following are cells resident in tissues, which serve important functions in initiating acute inflammation; (P62)
1. Neutrophil 2. Tissue macrophage 3. Mast cells

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 2 and 3
E. All of above
7. Which of the following are the plasma-derived chemical mediators; (P63)
1. Activated oxygen species 2. Serotonin 3. C3a 4. Bradykinin 5. Hageman factor

A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 2,3,4
D. 3,4,5
E. 1,3,4,5
8. Which of the following can be included in the activation of alternative pathway of complement system; (P66,214) 1. IgA 2. Factor D 3. Plasma collectin 4. Endotoxin 5. Properdin

A. 1,2,4,5
B. 1,3,5
C. 2,3,4
D. 2,4,5
E. 2,3,4,5
9. Which of the following is the clinical manifestation due to deficiency of C1 inhibitor; (P67)
A. Increased susceptibility to infections
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Chronic hemolytic anemia due to extravascular hemolysis
D. Hemoglobinuria due to intravascular hemolysis
E. Episodic edema accumulation in the skin
10. Which of the followings are inhibited by C1 inhibitor; (P67)
1. C1 2.C3 3. C3b 4. Kallikrein 5. Hageman factor

A. 1
B. 1,2
C. 1,3
D. 1,2,4,5
E. 1,4,5
11. All of the following statement about clotting system is true EXCEPT; (P65,67,68)
A. Thrombin is the major coagulation protease.
B. PARs (Protease-activated receptors) bind to thrombin and multiple trypsin-like serine proteases.
C. PARs are single G-protein-coupled receptors, which are expressed on platelets, endothelial and smooth muscle cells.
D. Binding of thrombin to PAR-1 (type 1 receptor) triggers inflammatory responses that include P-selectin mobilization and NO production.
E. Plasmin cleaves C3 to produce C3 fragments in inflammation.
12. All of the following statement about C5a is true EXCEPT; (P64,66,68)
A. Increase vascular permeability by stimulate histamine release from mast cells
B. Stimulate arachidonic acid release from cell membrane
C. Mediate chemotaxis for neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils and basophils
D. Are inhibited by CD59 (membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis)
E. Are generated by immunologic reactions, plasmin and kallikrein
13. All of the following statement about arachidonic acid pathway is true EXCEPT; (P68,69,70)
A. When cells are activated by stimuli, cell membrane proteins are remodeled to generate eicosanoid.
B. Vascular endothelium lacks thromboxane synthetase but possesses prostacyclin synthetase.
C. Both COX-1 and COX-2 are responsible for the production of prostaglandins that are involved in inflammation.
D. Blocking adhesion between neutrophil and platelet inhibits lipoxin production.
E. Resolvins, which are arachidonic acid-derived mediators, inhibit leukocyte recruitment and activation.
14. All of the following statement about PAF is true EXCEPT; (P70)
A. PAF effects via a single G-protein-coupled receptor.
B. PAF is regulated by a family of inactivating PAF acetylhydrolases.
C. Platelets, basophils, neutrophils and monocytes can produce PAF in both secreted and cell-bound forms.
D. At extremely low concentration, PAF induces vasoconstriction.
E. PAF increases vascular permeability greater than histamine.
15. All of the following statement about chemokines is true EXCEPT; (P71,202)
A. IL-8 acts primarily on neutrophils.
B. MCP-1 (monocyte chemoattractant protein) selectively recruits monocytes.
C. C-C chemokines are produced largely by T cells.
D. C chemokines are relatively specific for lymphocytes.
E. Both surface-bound and membrane-bound fractalkines have potent chemoattractant activity for the same cells.
16. Which of the following cytokine or chemokines is called lymphotoxin; (P71)
A. TGB-β
B. TNF-β
C. INF-β
D. C-C chemokine
E. C chemokine
17. Which of the following statement about lysosomal constituents of leukocytes is true; (P73)
A. Azurophil granules are larger than specific granules.
B. The specific granules release their contents primarily within the phagosome.
C. The azurophil granules secrete their contents by low concentrations of agonists.
D. Acid proteases degrade extracellular component mainly, but neutral proteases degrade invasive component within the phagolysosomes.
E. Monocytes don’t contain phospholipase and plasminogen activator.
18. All of the following statement about acute or chronic inflammatory response is true EXCEPT; (P81,83,84)
A. Tissue destruction is the hallmarks of the chronic inflammation.
B. Uric acid from necrotic cells initiates the inflammatory response.
C. Foreign body granulomas typically do not cause immune response.
D. Caseous necrosis due to tuberculosis is an example of foreign body granulomas.
E. Acute-phase proteins act as opsonins and fix complement.
19. In the hypothalamus, which of the following substance mainly stimulate the production of neurotransmitters, which
functions to reset the temperature set-point at higher level in inflammation; (P84)
A. Histamine
B. Bradykinin
C. Leukotriene B4
D. Prostacyclin
E. Prostaglandin E2
1. SOX9 differentiates pluripotent stromal cells into; (P94)
A. Endothelial cells
B. Myotubes
C. Fat cells
D. Osteoblasts
E. Chondroblasts
2. All of the following are function of the PDGF EXCEPT; (P95)
A. Migration of monocyte
B. Proliferation of fibroblast
C. Platelet aggregation
D. Angiogenesis
E. Production of MMPs
3. Which of the following molecules use receptor without tyrosine kinase activity for signal transudations; (P99)
1. Epo 2. IFN-γ 3. G-CSF 4. IL-3 5. Growth-hormone

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,3,4
C. 2,3,4,5
D. 3,4,5
E. All of above
4. Which of the following statement about liver regeneration is true; (P89, 93, 101)
A. Restoration of liver mass is achieved with the regrowth of the lobes that were resected.
B. After partial hepatectomy, expression of the p53 corresponds to the immediate early gene phase of gene expression during liver regeneration.
C. Acute injury caused by a high dose of the chemical compound is followed by the repair by fibrosis.
D. Oval cell proliferation and differentiation are prominent in liver carcinogenesis and advanced liver cirrhosis.
E. In hepatic growth process after partial hepatectomy, hepatocytes themselves readily replicate and the stem cell compartment is fully activated.
5. Which of the following is the function of Ang1 binding to the Tie2 regarding to angiogenesis; (P109)
A. Enhance the ECM production
B. Mobilize smooth muscle cells
C. Mobilize periendothelial cells
D. Mobilize endothelial cells
E. Loosen endothelial cells
6. In the signal transduction pathway via receptor with intrinsic tyrosine kinase, PI3 kinase phosphorylates
membrane phospholipid with activating; (P99)
A. Phospholipase Cγ
B. Protein kinase A
C. Protein kinase B
D. Protein kinase C
E. Inositol triphosphate
7. In the signal transduction pathway via receptor with intrinsic tyrosine kinase, which of the following molecule
does the GRB-2 bind to; (P99)
A. Inactivated RAS
B. Activated RAS
E. Akt
8. All of the following statement is true EXCEPT; (P99, 100)
A. Receptors without intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity can activate MAP kinase pathways.
B. Steroid hormone receptors are located in the cytoplasm and less frequently in the nucleus.
C. The estrogen receptor is located in the cytoplasm.
D. Vitamin D and retionoids bind to steroid hormone receptor.
E. A group of steroid hormone receptor family is mentioned as peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors.
9. In the signal transduction pathway via seven transmembrane GPCRs, all of the following are the target of calcium
signal EXCEPT; (P100)
A. Cytoskeletal protein
B. Protein kinase A
C. Cl- and K- activated ion pump
D. Calpain
E. Calmodulin
10. Which of the following molecule mediate priming (G0→G1 transition) in hepatocyte replication during
liver generation; (P102)
1. HGF 2. TNF 3. TGF-α 4. IL-6 5. Insulin 6. Activin

A. 1,3
B. 2,4
C. 1,3,5
D. 2,4,6
E. 2,3,4,5
11. All of the following statement is true EXCEPT; (P105)
A. The integrin-cytoskeleton complexes trigger PI-3 kinase pathway.
B. Integrin and growth factor receptors interact to transmit environmental signals to the cells.
C. Cell-to-cell interactions mediated by cadherins and catenins account for the inhibition of cell proliferation.
D. Free β-catenin function as a regulator of nuclear transcription factors independently of cadherins in the Wnt signaling pathway.
E. SPARC, also called as osteopontin, function as an angiogenesis inhibitor.
12. Which of the following statement is true; (P104, 105, 106)
A. Collagen fibril formation is associated with the oxidation of specific lysine and hydroxylysine residues by the lysyl oxidase.
B. Integrin is the most abundant glycoprotein in the basement membrane and has binding domains for both ECM and cell surface receptors.
C. The tensile strength of the tissue is provided by elastic fibers.
D. Type IV is fibrillar and is the main component of the basement membrane.
E. Hyaluronic acid is found in the matrix of migrating and proliferating cells and facilitates cell-to-cell adhesion.
13. Which of the following are the functions of the TGF-β;   (P110, 111)1. Fibroblast migration/proliferation
2. Angiogenesis
3. Collagen synthesis
4. Collagenase secretion
5. Monocyte chemotaxis

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,3,5
C. 1,3,5
D. 2,4,5
E. All of above
(13:B, TGF-β → VEGF → angiogenesis)
14. Which of the following statement about tissue repair process is true; (P110-115)
A. Migration of fibroblasts to the site of injury are triggered by IL-1, TNF, PDGF, EGF and TGF-β.
B. ADAM-17 cleaves the precursors of TNF and TGF-β.
C. In the healing by first intension, permanent wound contraction requires the action of myofibroblasts.
D. Diabetes mellitus is associated with delayed healing due to inhibited collagen synthesis by protein deficiency.
E. Excessive amounts of granulation tissue, which blocks re-epithelialization in wound healing, is mentioned as desmoids.
15. Which of the following are the functions of the VEGF; (P52, 109)
1. Stimulate fibroblast migration
2. Induce hyperplasia of lymphatic vasculature
3. Increase endothelial expression of plasminogen activator
4. Decrease endothelial expression of plasminogen activator inhibitor-1
5. Increase the number of vesiculovacuolar organelle

A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,3,4
C. 2,3,5
D. 2,3,4,5
E. All of above
1. All of the followings are mediators of fever EXCEPT:
A. IL-1
B. IL-6
C. IL-8
(1:C p.105, IL-8 is chemotaxis)
2. Select preformed mediators of inflammation:
a. Histamine
b. Defensins
c. Lysosomal enzymes
d. Serotonin
e. Nitric oxide

A. a. b. c
B. a, b, c, d
C. a, c, d
D. a, c, d, e
E. a, b, c, d, e
(2:C p.107)
3. Mast cells synthesize all followings EXCEPT:
A. Leukotriene B4
B. Prostaglandin D2
C. Platelet-activating factor
D. Macrophage inflammatory protein (MIP) 1-α
E. Macrophage chemotactic protein (MCP) -1
(3:A p.118, Leukotriene C4)
4. All followings regarding substance P are correct EXCEPT:
A. Substance P is a tachykinin, which is synthesized by sensory affect nerve fibers of the lung and alimentary system.
B. Substance P can induce vasodilation and increased permeability changes leading to edema.
C. Substance P can induce vasoconstriction, leukocyte activation, and chemotaxis.
D. Substance P can induce proliferation of mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils.
E. Substance P can induce activation and degranulation of mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils.
(4:D p.124)
5. All following regarding complement factors are correct EXCEPT:
A. C3a increases vascular permeability by inducing histamine release from mast cells.
B. C3b is an important opsonin and enhances neutrophil phagocytosis.
C. C3b is an inducer of adhesion molecule expression by endothelial cells.
D. C5a is an anaphylatoxin.
E. The plasma enzyme carboxypeptidase can degrade both C3a and C5b.
(5:C p.124, C5a is an inducer of adhesion molecule expression by endothelial cells.)
6. Match the prostaglandins to the major cell type(s) which produce them:
a. Mast cells
b. Platelets
c. Endothelial cells and epithelial cells
d. Endothelial cells
e. Many cell types
(6. A:d; B:b; C:a; D:e; E:c p.127)
7. Match the arachidonic acids and the producing cell types:
A. COX-2
B. Leukotorien B4
C. Leukotorien C4
D. Lipoxins
a. Endothelial cells
b. Eosinophils
c. Mast cells
d. Macrophages
e. Neutrophils
f. Platelets
g. Synovial fibroblasts
(7. A:a,g; B:e>d; C:b,c>d; D:f p.128, COX-2: leukocytes as well)
8. Match the cytokines and their functions:
A. Hematopoietic growth factors
B. Inflammatory mediators (acute phrase reactants and natural immunity)
C. Chemotactic cytokines
D. T-cell proliferation, activation, and differentiation cytokines
a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-3
d. IL-4
e. IL-5
f. IL-6
g. IL-7
h. IL-8
i. IL-9
j. IL-10
k. IL-11
l. IL-12
(8. A:c,i,k; B:a,f; C:h; D:b,d,e,g,i,j,l, p.129)
9. Which are involved with hypothalamic function in food aversion, hypophagia, anorexia, weight loss, and sickness behavior:
a. TNF
b. IL-1
c. IL-6
d. PGE2
e. HMGB-1 (high mobility group box protein-1)

A. a
B. a,b
C. a,b,c
D. a,b,c,d
E. All of them
(9:E p.132)
10. What is high mobility group box protein-1 (HMGB-1):
A. A product by macrophages
B. A nonhistone nuclear protein that has cytokine-like functions
C. A mediator of cell differentiation
D. A mediator of endotoxicemia
E. All of above
(10:E p.131)
11. All of the following are correct regarding free radicals, EXCEPT:
A. Damage to extracellular matrix
B. Inactivate cytokines
C. Increase adhesion molecule expression
D. Increase the formation of LTB4
E. Inactivate neurotransmitters (adrenaline and noradrenaline)
(11:B p.133, B. enhance cytokine expression secondary to signaling changes and cell damages; A. Inactivate antiproteases, such as α1-antitrypsin, resulting in damage to extracellular matrix proteins)
12. All followings are nonenzymatic dietary substances, which minimize the damage to tissue caused by free radicals EXCEPT:
A. Flavonoids
B. Genistein
C. Lycopenes
D. Reserpines
E. Melatonin
(12:E p.133, Melatonin is nonenzymatic antioxidant, but not dietary substance. Ceruloplasmin and transferring are also nonenzymatic antioxidants.)
13. All followings are correct regarding nitric oxide (NO) EXCEPT:
A. L-arginine molecular oxygen and NADPH are cofactors of NO synthesis
B. Inhibits platelet aggregation and adhesion
C. Activates mast cell-induced inflammation
D. Oxidizes lipids and other molecules
E. Regulates leukocyte chemotaxis
(13:C p.134, NO inhibits mast cell-induced inflammation.)
14. All followings are correct regarding PRRs (pattern-recognition receptors) and PAMP (pathogen associated molecular pattern) EXCEPT:
A. LPS-binding protein (LBP) is a secreted PRR
B. Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are intracellular PRRs
C. MARCO is a surface receptor for mannose and induce phagocytosis
D. CD14, a surface receptor for LPS and peptidoglycan, is a co-receptor for TLR
E. C-reactive protein (CRP) and serum amyloid protein (SAP) are secreted PRRs for microbial membranes
(14:C p.134, C. Macrophage mannose receptor is a surface receptor for mannose; MARCO is a surface receptor for bacterial cell walls; both induce phagocytosis)
15. All followings are correct regarding TLR4 EXCEPT:
A. CD-14 is a LPS binding protein receptor, and a co-receptor of TLR4
B. MD-2 is an accessory extracellular adaptor protein that binds TLR4
C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) F protein has affinities to TLR4
D. Lipoteichoic acids G+ have affinities to TLR4
E. LPS of Leptospira has affinities to TLR4
(15:E p.135, E. TLR4 is a receptor for LPS but not LPS of Leptospira – TLR1&2 and TLR2&6)
16. Match the organs and color of the exudates:
A. Staphylococcus spp.
B. Streptococcus spp.
C. Serratia marcescens
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
a. Yellow
b. Green
c. Red
(16: A:a; B:a; C:c; D:b p.156)
17. All of the followings play roles in TH1 pathway EXCEPT:
A. IL-2
B. IL-4
C. IL-12
D. IFN-γ
E. TNF-β
(17:B p.157,158, TH1: IL-2,12,18,23,27, IFN-γ, TNF-β; TH2: IL-4,5,10,13,17,19 etc)
18. All of the followings play roles fibrosis in TH2 pathway EXCEPT:
A. Citrulline
B. Proline
C. TGF-β
D. IL-13
E. Arg-1
(18:A p.161, In TH1-mediated responses, NOS2 converts L-hydroxy-arginine to citrulline, which is antifibrotic)
19. All of the following factors inhibit macrophage activity in chronic inflammation EXCEPT:
A. Internalized oxidized low-density lipoprotein
B. Acetylcholine
C. IFN-γ
D. IL-10
E. α5β3-integrin
(19:C p.163, IFN-γ is a activator; IFN-α and –β are inactivators)
20. All of the following statements regarding peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor (PPAR) are true EXCEPT:
A. Macrophages activity can be reduced by PPAR.
B. PPARs are nuclear transcription factors.
C. Activated PPARs alter inflammatory responses by macrophages, dendritic cells, endothelial cells, and B cells.
D. PPARs can inhibit NF kappa B, STATs and AP-1, and the T-lymphocyte activator NFAT.
E. PPAR activity decreases iNOS expression, reduces macrophage survival, and inhibits IL-6 and IL-12 and VCAM-1 expression.
(20:C p163, C. T cells but not B cells)
21. All of the following statements regarding regulatory T lymphocytes (T reg cells) are true EXCEPT:
A. T reg cells can influence the strength and the balance of TH1 and/or TH2 responses.
B. T reg cells release IL-10.
C. T reg cells release TGF-β.
D. T reg activity inhibits dendritic cells.
E. T reg activity inhibits TH1 response and activates TH2 response.
(21:E p.172, T reg activity inhibits both TH1 and TH2 responses.)
22. Which following lymphoid organ expresses MAdCAM-1, a receptor for the α-4/β-7 adhesion molecule expressed by T and B cells:
A. Spleen
B. Thymus
C. Lymph nodes
D. Peyer’s patch
E. Mucosal lymphoid follicles in colon and cecum
(22:D p.173)
23. Which followings are tight junctions which interconnect endothelial cells:
A. Occludins
B. Claudin
C. JAMs (Junctional adhesion molecules)
D. A and B
E. All of above
(23:E p.174, Endothelial cells are interconnected by tight junctions along with adherens junctions composed of vascular endothelial cadherin (VE-cadherin).)
24. Match following leukocyte adhesion molecules and intercellular molecules:
A. VLA-4
B. LFA-1
C. MAC-1
a. JAM-A
b. JAM-B
c. JAM-C
d. VCAM-1
(24: A:b,d; B:a; C:c p.174)
25. All of followings are proteinases that degrade extracellular matrix (ECM) but not proteoglycan EXCEPT:
A. Matrix metalloproteins (MMPs)
B. Cathepsin G
C. Heparinases
D. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
E. Cysteine proteases
(25:C p.179,181, ECM is also degraded by urokinase plasminogen activator (uPA) and serine protease; Proteoglycans are largely degraded by lysosomal enzymes such as heparinases and galactosidases.)
26. Match collagen types and tissues following:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
E. Type V and VI
F. Type VI
G. Type VIII
H. Type X and XI
a. skin and muscle
b. bone, skin, and tendon
c. near epithelia
d. near endothelial cells
e. interstitial tissue
f. basal lamina
g. cartilage and vitreous humor
h. cartilage
(26: A:b; B:g; C:a; D:f; E:e; F:f; G:d; H:h p.180)
27. All of followings are components of basal lamina EXCEPT:
A. Laminin
B. Integrin
C. Entactin
D. Heparin sulfate proteoglycan
E. Perlecan
(27:B p.180, collagen IV is also a component)
28. All of followings stimulate matrix metalloproteinase (MMP) activities EXCEPT:
A. IL-1
C. TGF-β
(28:C p.181, TGF-β inhibits MMP activities)
29. Match the steps in wound healing and the growth factors associated with:
A. Fibroblast proliferation and migration
B. Induce fibroblasts to produce collagen
C. Induce endothelial cells to proliferate and migrate and produce basement membrane for formation of new capillaries
a. Mast cell tryptase
c. FGF, TGF-β, PDGF, IL-13
e. Angiopoietin
(29: A:b; B:c, C:a,d,e p.182, 183)
30. All following statements are true regarding TGF-β EXCEPT:
A. TGF-β is produced by platelets and macrophages.
B. TGF-β induces macrophage chemotaxis.
C. TGF-β induces fibroblast migration and proliferation.
D. TGF-β induces synthesis of collagen and ECM proteins.
E. TGF-β binds TGF-β receptor II, which activate SMAD7.
(30:E p.183, TGF receptor phosphorylates R-SMAD and Co-SMAD to overcome inhibition of SMAD 7.)
31. Newly formed endothelial cells and fibroblasts migrate into wound sites and bind to fibrinogen and proteins as well as newly deposited ECM substances. All of followings are ECM substances for angiogenesis EXCEPT:
A. Heparin sulfate
B. Laminin
C. Type IV collagen
D. Vitronectin
E. Fibronectin
F. Chondroitin sulfate
(31:C p.187, Type III collagen)
32. Match growth factors, the receptors, and roles in angiogenesis:
A. Endothelial cell proliferation
B. Vascular remodeling
d. VEGF R1
e. VEGF R2
f. VEGF R3
g. Angiopoietin 1
h. Angiopoietin 2
i. Tie 1
j. Tie 2
k. Ephrin B1
l. Ephrin B2
m. Ephrin B3
n. Ephrin B4
(32: A:a&e, g&j; B:c&f, h&j, l&n p.186,187)
33. All of followings are inhibitors of endothelial cell growth in angiogenesis EXCEPT:
A. Angiostatin
B. Endostatin
C. Thrombospondin
D. Prox 1 gene expression
E. Specialized CXC chemokines (lacking ELR motif)
(33:D p.187, prox 1 gene expression plays a role in vascular remodeling)
34. All followings are activators of epithelial differentiation in lung EXCEPT:
A. FGF-10
B. NF kappa B
D. Thyroid transcription factor-1 (TTF-1)
E. Sonic hedgehog
(34:B p.189, NF kappa B is a inhibitor; FGF-10 binds FGF R IIIB → bone morphogenic protein 4, sonic hedgehog → GATA-6, TTF-1, HNF-β, HFH-4 →epithelial cell differentiation) (HNF-β: hepatocyte nuclear factor-β; HFH-4: hepatocyte factor homolog-4) (TTF-1 induces production of surfactant proteins A, B, and C; HFH-4: stimulates cilia formation)
1) All are true regarding Chediak-Higashi syndrome EXCEPT:
A) An autosomal-recessive disease
B) Giant phagocyte lysosomal granules
C) Giant abnormal melanosomes in melanocytes
D) Ocular abnormalities
E) Sever bleeding tendency
(1:E p.146,288; Mild bleeding tendency)
2) All are true regarding bovine leukocyte adhesion deficiency (BLAD) EXCEPT:
A) Single point mutation of CD18 gene
B) Impaired expression of β2 integrin
C) Neutropenia
D) Loss of teeth
E) Mucosal ulcer
(2:C p.146; J Vet Med Sci 66:1475-1482, 2004; Neutrophilia; β2 integrin = CD11a,b,c/CD18)
3) Order the sequence events in acute inflammation:
1. Increased vascular permeability
2. Decreased speed of flow w/ margination of leukocytes along vessel walls
3. Vasodilation by histamine, nitric oxide, PGD2, and PGE2
4. Neurogenic transient vasoconstriction
5. Exudation
6. Increased volume of blood flow in the area
A) 3→4→6→1→2→5
B) 3→4→2→6→1→5
C) 4→3→6→1→2→5
D) 4→3→1→5→2→6
E) 4→6→3→2→1→5
(3:C p.161 Table4-7)
4) During the early phase of increased vascular permeability, all of the following preformed or rapidly synthesized mediators are involved EXCEPT:
A) Histamine
B) Leukotorienes C4, D4, E4
C) Platelet activating factor
D) Serotonin
E) Thromboxane A2
(4:E p.164; TXA2 increases vascular permeability, but it must be synthesized in platelets and is not a “rapid release” product.)
5) The most abundant mammalian proteinases are:
A) Aspartic proteinases
B) Cysteine proteinases
C) Metalloproteinases
D) Serine proteinases
(5:D p.170)
5) The most universal antiproteinase, synthesized in liver and inhibits all four classes of leukocyte proteinases, is:
A) α2-macroglobulin
B) α1-proteinase inhibitor
C) Antithrombin III
D) Plasminogen-activator inhibitor
E) Serpin
(5:A p.171; Serpins: serine proteinase inhibitors including α1-proteinase inhibitor, antithrombin III, and plasminogen-activator inhibitor)
6) Match the following enzymes and substrates:
A) Arylsulfatase B
B) Histaminase
C) MMP-1
D) Phospholipase D
1. Histamine
2. Collagen
3. PAF
4. LTC4
(6: A=4, B=1, C=2, D=3; p.170,174)
7) Match each leukocyte granule component with its specific action:
A) Lactoferrin
B) Major basic protein
C) Bactericidal permeability-increasing protein (BPI)
D) Defensins
E) Lysozyme
1. Phospholipase activation and phospholipid breakdown
2. Hydrolysis of muramic acid-N-acetylglucosamine bond
3. Iron-binding protein
4. Cytotoxic to parasites
5. Cytotoxic to microbes
(7: A=3, B=4, C=1, D=5, E=2; p.201)
8) Both azurophil and specific granules of neutrophils contain (2 answers):
A) Lactoferrin
B) Phospholipase A2
C) Myeloperoxidase
D) Defensins
E) Lysozyme
(8:B,E p.169 Table4-9; Robbins p.73 Fig2-20; Azurophil/primary granules: myeloperoxidase, defensins; Specific/secondary granules: lactoferrin)
9) Neutrophils are the source of all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Cytokines
B) Histamine
C) Nitric oxide
D) Lysosomal enzymes
E) Platelet-activating factors
(9:B,C p.169; Robbins p.72; Specific granules contain histaminase; NO is produced by endothelial cells, macrophages, and some neurons in the brain)
10) The second phase of vascular leakage is induced by which cytokines (choose 2):
B) IL-1
C) IL-4
(10:B,E p.164)
11) All of the following are induced vasoconstriction, EXCEPT
A) LTC4, D4, E4
C) Nitric oxide
D) PGF2α
(11:C p.166 Fig4-17)
12) All of the following are induced vasodilatation, EXCEPT
C) Histamine
D) Nitric oxide
E) Bradykinin
(12:C p.166 Fig4-17; Histamin: increase vascular permeability)
13) All of the following factors are containing neutrophilic azurophil granules, EXCEPT
A) Myeloperoxidase
B) Elastase
C) Defecins
D) α-mannosidase
E) MMP-8
(13:E p.169 Table4-9; Collagenase MMP-8 in specific granules)
14) Which factor does inhibit the MMPs
B) α2-macroglobulin
C) α1-proteinase inhibitor
D) Antithrombin III
E) Serine proteinase
(14:A p.171; TIMPs=tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases)
15) Which factor is most important eosinophilic differentiation factor?
A) IL-8
B) IL-3
C) Eotaxin
D) IL-4
E) IL-5
(15:E p.172)
16) All of the following are containing eosinophils, EXCEPT
A) Major basic protein
B) Histaminase
C) Lysozyme
D) MMP-1, -8
E) Phospholipase D
(16:C p.173,174)
17) All of the following are specific granules of neutrophils, EXCEPT
A) Vitamin B12-bindning protein
B) Histaminase
C) Elastase
D) CD11b/CD18 β2-integrin
E) Urokinase plasminogen activator (uPA)
F) uPA receptor
(17:C p.169 Table4-9; Elastase - azurophil granules)
18) Leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD) in which leukocytes lack a related group functional adhesion molecules on the surface; which factor
A) CD11/CD18
B) CD31 (PCAM-1)
C) L-selectin
D) E-selectin
E) VLA-1
(18:A p.146)
19) Which kind of dogs is reported CLAD?
A) German shepherd
B) Beagle
C) Bassett hound
D) Irish setter
E) Akita
(19:D JVIM 2002 16:518-523)
20) All of the following are cytokines and other mediators synthesized by stimulated macrophages/monocytes, EXCEPT
A) IL-1
B) Interferon-inducible protein-10 (IP-10)
C) IFN-γ
D) Nitric oxide
E) Platelet-activating factor
(20:C p.178; IFN-α and β, but not IFN-γ)
21) β2-integrins bind to which?
D) VLA-1
E) E-selectin
(21:A p.182 Table4-13)
22) Pairing
A) CD11a/CD18
B) CD11b/CD18
C) CD11c/CD18
D) CD11d/CD18
1. Enriched on lymphocyte
2. Enriched on myeloid cell
3. Enriched on monocytes
4. Primarily on monocytes
(22:A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 p.182 Table4-13)
23) Which the followings contain P-selectin, CHOOSE TWO
A) Alpha granules of platelets
B) Dense bodies/ δ granules of platelets
C) Weibel-Palade bodies of endothelial cells
D) Azurophil granules of neutrophils
E) Specific granules of neutrophils
(23:A,C p.184; Robbins p.55,126)
24) All of the following are products of platelets, EXCEPT
A) Platelet factor 4
B) Fibrinogen
C) Serotonin
D) Histamin
E) L-selectin
(24:E p.184 Box4-4, P-selectin)
25) Endothelial molecule PECAM adhere to which leukocyte receptor?
B) Sialyl-Lewis X
C) E-selectin
D) GlyCAM-1
(25:E p.182 Table4-13; PECAM = CD31)
26) L-selectin of lymphocytes has special combination of adhesion molecules on endothelial cells. Which adhesion molecules on the Payer’s patch?
A) GlyCAM-1
B) MadCAM-1
C) CD34
D) CD31
(26:B p.182; Peripheral lymph nodes – GlyCAM-1)
27) All of the following are factors of the cell-mediated immunity, EXCEPT
A) IL-2
B) IFN-γ
C) IL-12
D) IL-4
E) IL-12
(27:D p.208 Table4-16; IL-4: important for humoral immunity)
28) Which cytokine is an eosinophil growth and differentiation factor
A) IL-3
B) IL-8
C) IL-18
D) IL-5
E) IL-1
(28:D p.208 Table4-16)
29) Which factor is producing the acute-phase inflammation response?
A) IL-3
B) IL-8
C) IL-18
D) IL-5
E) IL-1
(29:E p.208 Table4-16; Also TNF-α and IL-6)
30) In cachexia, which factor is over-expressed?
A) TNF-α
B) IFN-γ
C) IL-1
D) Cox-2
(30:A Robbins p.9)
31) Mast cells contain abundant prostaglandin, which class?
B) PGF2α
(31:D p.211, 214; PGI2: endothelial cells; TXA2: platelets; PGE2 and PGF2α: widely distribute)
32) Which NOS is long-lasting release
(32:A p.222 Table4-21)
33) Which NOS require Ca as cofactor for NOS activity, CHOOSE ALL?
(33:B,C p.222 Table4-21; cNOS (eNOS, nNOS): Ca++/calmodulin-dependent regulation)
34) Which NOS is inhibited by corticosteroids?
A) Inducible NOS
B) Constitutive NOS
(34:A p.222 Table4-21)
35) Histamine induces the vascular leakage, which vessels?
A) All levels of the microcirculation
B) Venules
C) Capillaries
D) Arterioles
(35:B Robbins p.64; Histamine causes dilation of the arterioles and increases the permeability of venules)
36) All of the following factors have both vascular leakage and chemotaxis, EXCEPT
A) C5a
(36:D Robbins p.74 Table2-5; LTB4 mediates chemotaxis but not vascular leakage)
37) All are “positive” acute-phase proteins of inflammation (concentration increases), EXCEPT
A) Complement components (C3, C4, C9, and C1 inhibitor)
B) C-reactive protein
C) Ceruloplasmin
D) Serum amyroid P (SAP)
E) Albumin
(37:E p.224 Table4-23; Albumin is a “negative” acute-phase protein)
38) All are “negative” acute-phase proteins of inflammation, EXCEPT
A) Albumin
B) Transferrin
C) Haptoglobin
D) Factor XII
E) Insulin-like growth factor I
(38:C p.224 Table4-23; Haptoglobin is a “positive” acute-phase protein)
39) Which cytokines play the principal roles in acute phase response (CHOOSE THREE)
A) IL-1
B) IL-6
C) TNF-α
D) IFN-γ
E) IL-13
(39:A,B,C p.224-5; Synthesis of IL-1 or TNF-α can induce synthesis of IL-6)
40) All of the following are angiogenic growth factor, EXCEPT?
C) TGF-α
E) Endostatin
(40:E p.238 Table 4-24; Endostatin – antiangiogenesis)
41) Which cells have receptor for VEGF, CHOOSE ALL?
A) Endothelial cells
B) Epidermis
C) Macrophages
D) Vascular smooth muscles
E) Fibroblasts
(41:A p.238 Table4-24; Receptors for VEGF are found only on endothelial cells)
42) All of the following coagulation-related proteins are increased in acute inflammation, EXCEPT
A) Fibrinogen
B) Plasminogen
C) Plasminogen activators
D) Plasminogen activator inhibitor
E) Factor XII
(42:E p.224 Table4-23; Factor XII – a “negative” acute-phase protein)