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625 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1
Which of the following does NOT assess the value a project brings to an organization? A. Benefit cost analysis B. Net present value C. Value analysis D. Needs assessment |
C
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2
Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as "projects" and that project managers will be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer formally accepts the product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US $150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other than daily status. How would you define this situation? A. Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor," each order is a project. B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved. C. This is a recurring process. D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project management. |
C
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3
A project manager in a predominantly hierarchical organization has been assigned a major project with aggressive timelines. The BEST approach for developing an initial project charter in this environment is to: A. Create a project charter using brainstorming sessions with potential team members and stakeholders. B. Create and present a draft project charter to potential team members and stakeholders to solicit their input. C. Create a project charter jointly with management for distribution to potential team members and stakeholders. D. Create a project charter with the functional managers and present it to the sponsor for signature. |
C
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4
All of the following are correct statements about a project manager EXCEPT: A. He or she is assigned after the project charter is created. B. He or she may initiate changes to the project. C. He or she manages changes and factors that create change. D. He or she is held accountable for project success or failure. |
A
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5
A new project manager is having difficulty creating a WBS with the team. To alleviate this situation, the project manager should ask for help from: A. The sponsor. B. Other project managers. C. The project management office. D. The team. |
C
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6
While preparing your risk responses, you realize that you have not planned for unknown risk events. You need to make adjustments to the project to compensate for unknown risk events. These adjustments are based on your past project experience when unknown risk events occurred and knocked the project off track. What should you do? A. Include a management reserve in the budget to try to compensate for the unknown risks, and notify management to expect unknown risks to occur. B. Document the unknown risk items and calculate the expected monetary value based on probability and impact that may result from the occurrence. C. Determine the unknown risk events and the associated cost, then add the cost to the project budget as reserves. D. With the stakeholders, determine a percentage of the known risk budget to allocate to a management reserve budget. |
A
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7
You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country. Which of the following should provide guidance on what business practices are allowed and not allowed? A. The company code of conduct B. The project charter C. The scope management plan D. The negotiation plan |
A
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8
An employee approaches you and asks to tell you something in confidence. He advises you that he has been performing illegal activities within the company for the last year. He is feeling guilty about it and is telling you in order to receive advice as to what he should do. What should you do? A. Ask for full details. B. Confirm that the activity is really illegal. C. Inform your manager of the illegal activity. D. Tell the employee to inform his boss. |
C
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9
What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations? A. Obtain a fair and reasonable price. B. Negotiate a price under the seller's estimate. C. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated. D. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established. |
A
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10
You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked to plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on _______ during planning to improve your chance of success. A. Your intuition and training B. Stakeholder analysis C. Historical information D. Configuration management |
C
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11
If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all project management processes, she should concentrate on creating a better: A. WBS. B. Communications management plan. C. Project management information system. D. Project scope management plan. |
C
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12
The Java development of a project is outsourced to India. The project schedule is starting to slip. What is the LEAST likely cause of the slippage? A. Lack of competent programmers B. Cultural influences C. Internationalization D. Communication |
A
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13
A project manager has made a change to the project. What should she do NEXT? A. Assign resources. B. Revise the project management plan and/or project documents. C. Evaluate impact. D. Request change control board involvement. |
B
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14
A work authorization system can be used to: A. Manage who does each activity. B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done. C. Manage when each activity is done. D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done. |
B
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15
A project team member tells you that she went to her project manager with a good idea for a useful change to the project. Instead of giving her approval to make the change, the project manager asked her to write a report describing the benefits of the change. What is the MOST appropriate advice for the situation? A. The project manager is being unreasonable and should do that kind of work herself. B. Remind the project manager that the benefit cost analysis for the project was done during project planning. C. A project manager must be able to weigh the benefits of the change versus the costs and compare them to other possible changes. The team member should do what was asked. D. The team member should do what was asked because this sort of information must be given to the project sponsor to make the change. |
C
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16
A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks. If the project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because: A. It only had six weeks of changes. B. It was completed within the baseline. C. There were so few changes. D. There was good communication control. |
B
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17
Your company has just presented its new five-year strategic plan. You have received a new product request from a customer that is in line with the previous five-year strategic plan, but it does not meet the objectives of the new plan. The product description seems to have a valid business driver and to be a straightforward development effort. As project manager, what is the BEST course of action? A. Do a benefit cost analysis of the project and submit it for management approval. B. Submit the new product request to the PMO for review and approval before proceeding. C. Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/her to take another look at the project. D. Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS. |
B
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18
The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the contracts department and assign procurement responsibilities to departments directly responsible for the projects. A procurement professional might not want this split to occur because they would lose ___________ in a decentralized contracting environment. A. Standardized company project management practices B. Loyalty to the project C. Experience D. Access to others with similar expertise |
D
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19
Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria? A. Constrained optimization B. Comparative approach C. Benefit measurement D. Impact analysis |
A
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20
A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the approved project charter. The FIRST thing the project manager must do is: A. Create a project scope statement. B. Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope. C. Analyze project risk. D. Begin work on a project management plan. |
B
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21
A person is writing a document identifying the business need for a project and is including a description of the product created by the project. She includes a list of stakeholders and pre assigned resources. What is the role of this person on the project? A. The project manager for the project or a company functional manager B. A member of the project management team working at the direction of the project manager C. The sponsor or the project manager D. A manager or executive in the organization who is higher in the corporate hierarchy than the project manager |
C
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22
Generally, when is the BEST time to create a procurement management plan? A. After the contract is signed B. Preceding the Conduct Procurement process C. During project initiating D. When updating the procurement management plan |
B
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23
All the following are needed to create the WBS EXCEPT: A. Organizational process assets. B. Quality measurements. C. Requirements documentation. D. Project scope statement. |
B
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24
Which of the following is a KEY output of the Verify Scope process? A. A more complete scope management plan B. Customer acceptance of project deliverables C. Improved schedule estimates D. An improved project management information system |
B
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25
A project manager discovers that two team members discussed what was needed to complete a work package on the project and made many changes to the project scope. The work package is now completed and the team members are planning to go on to the next work package. In looking at what was done, the project manager determines that the work does NOT meet the requirements of the project. What is the BEST course of action for the project manager? A. Add another work package, formatted with the correct scope, to the project. B. Refuse the submittal of the work package. C. Have the team begin the work package again and include the incident in their performance reviews. D. Ask the team member's manager to assign different people to the work package. |
B
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26
You are the project manager on an information technology project on which you and the sponsor have already approved the scope. An information specialist on your team, after having lunch with a low ranking customer representative working with him on a software project, learns that a simple alteration in the display would be a great addition to the project. The information specialist installs the change with no negative effect on the project schedule and at no additional cost. What action should be taken? A. The information specialist should be recognized for exceeding customer expectations without affecting project cost or schedule. B. The project manager should add an activity to the project management plan with no associated time. C. The information specialist should be told that his behavior was unacceptable, as it may have negatively affected the overall project. D. The project manager should create a change control form and have the customer approve the change since the change has already been made. |
C
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27
Which of the following is NOT included in a schedule change control system? A. Approval levels necessary for authorizing changes B. Tracking systems C. Paperwork necessary for making changes D. Limitations on the scope of changes |
D
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28
Which of the following is generally the MOST CORRECT use of a project network diagram? A. Showing the project schedule B. Documenting activity interdependencies C. Defining project resources D. Defining the project costs |
B
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29
In an activity-on-node diagram, the nodes represent: A. Work packages. B. Activities. C. Dependencies. D. Discretionaries. |
B
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30
A project has seven activities: A, B, C, D, E, F, and G. Activities A, B, and D can start anytime. Activity A takes 3 weeks, Activity B takes 5 weeks, and Activity D takes 11 weeks. Activities A and B must be completed before Activity C can start. Activity C requires 6 weeks to complete. Activities B, C, and D must be completed before Activity E can start. Activity E requires 2 weeks. Activity F takes 4 weeks and can start as soon as Activity C is completed. Activity E must be completed before Activity G starts. Activity G requires 3 weeks. Activities F and G must be completed for the project to be completed. Which activities have float available? A. Activity A has two weeks float, activity F has one week. B. Activity F has one week float. C. There is no float available in the project. D. Activity A has eight weeks float. |
A
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31
An activity-on-node (AON) network diagram shows the following activities on two critical paths; Start, D, E, J, L, End and Start, D, E, G, I, L, End. Each activity is at least three days in duration, except for activity L, which is one day in duration. If you are directed to reduce the project by one day, which activities are MOST likely to change? A. Activity L B. Activity E or activity J C. Activity G or activity I D. Activity D or activity E |
D
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32
A project manager has increased project costs by US $100,000, but completed the project four weeks earlier than planned. What activity is BEST described here? A. Resource leveling B. Schedule compression C. Critical chain D. Adjusting leads and lags |
B
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33
The project manager has performed schedule network analysis, compressed the schedule, and completed a Monte Carlo analysis. What time management activity should be done NEXT? A. Update resource requirements B. Recommend corrective actions C. Estimate Activity Durations D. Create a milestone list |
A
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34
If project time and cost are not as important as the number of resources used each month, which of the following is the BEST thing to do? A. Perform a Monte Carlo analysis. B. Fast track the project. C. Perform resource leveling. D. Analyze the life cycle costs. |
C
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35
A team member from research and development tells you that her work is too creative to provide you with a fixed single estimate for the activity. You both decide to use the average labor hours per installation from past projects to predict the future. This is an example of which of the following? A. Parametric estimating B. Three-point estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Monte Carlo analysis |
A
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36
In attempting to complete the project faster, the project manager looks at the cost associated with crashing each activity. The BEST approach to crashing would also include looking at the: A. Risk impact of crashing each activity. B. Customer's opinion of which activities to crash. C. Boss's opinion of which activities to crash and in which order. D. Project life cycle phase in which the activity is due to occur. |
A
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37
Based on the chart, while completing the project, a team member tells you that the team forgot something during planning. Activity F needs the results of activity E before it can begin. Taking this new dependency into account, what would be the effect on the project? A. It would increase the critical path. B. Communication would be more complex. C. There would be no effect. D. It would delay activity F. |
B
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38
Using the chart, what is the lowest cost of crashing this project to save four weeks? A. $18,000 B. $6,000 C. $7,000 D. $9,000 |
B
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39
Based on the network diagram in the chart, the resource working on activity G is replaced with another resource with 50 percent of the productivity of the previous resource. How long will this project take? A. 44 B. 51 C. 52 D. 36 |
C
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40
Instead of celebrating the end of the project, the stakeholders are breathing a sigh of relief. None of them were confident the project would meet the end date. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons this project had difficulty? A. Lack of a payback period B. Lack of milestones C. Lack of a communications management plan D. Lack of a staffing management plan |
A
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41
A project manager for a small construction company has a project that was budgeted for US $130,000 over a six-week period. According to her schedule, the project should have cost US $60,000 to date. However, it has cost US $90,000 to date. The project is also behind schedule, because the original estimates were not accurate. Who has the PRIMARY responsibility to solve this problem? A. Project manager B. Senior management C. Project sponsor D. Manager of the project management office |
A
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42
While reviewing project performance, the project manager determines that the schedule variance is -500. What is the BEST thing to do? A. Let the sponsor know. B. Determine the cost variance. C. Look for activities that can be done in parallel. D. Move resources from the project to one that is not failing. |
B
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43
The sponsor has informed you that the resources for your project will be cut. The sponsor wants to know how long the project will take if only nine resources each month are committed to your project. What is this activity called? A. Crashing B. Floating C. Leveling D. Fast tracking |
C
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44
A project has experienced significant delays due to equipment problems, staff attrition, and slow client reviews. The project is 40 percent complete and has used 60 percent of the available calendar time. What is the FIRST thing you should do? A. Rebaseline the schedule to reflect the new date. B. Analyze the critical path activities for potential to fast track or crash the schedule. C. Document the lack of progress and associated issues to management. D. Identify activities that required more time than planned. |
D
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45
To accommodate a new project in your department, you need to move resources from one project to another. Because your department is currently working at capacity, moving resources will inevitably delay the project from which you move the resources. It would cause the LEAST negative impact if you move resources from which of the following projects? A. Project A with a benefit cost ratio of 0.8, no project charter, and four resources B. Project B with a net present value of $60,000, 12 resources, and variable costs between US $1,000 and $2,000 per month C. Project C with an opportunity cost of US $300,000, no project control plan, and an internal rate of return of 12 percent D. Project D with indirect costs of US $20,000 and 13 resources |
A
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46
Who has the cost risk in a fixed price (FP) contract? A. The team B. The buyer C. The seller D. Management |
C
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47
The project management office is worried about the quality of the company's various projects. They want to know which projects are having problems and which ones are doing well. If the PMO receives the following information, which project should they be the MOST concerned about? A. Project A with a benefit cost ratio of 2.3 B. Project B with a benefit cost ratio of 1.3 C. Project C with a benefit cost ratio of negative 2.3 D. Project D with a benefit cost ratio of negative 1.3 |
C
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48
Earned value measurement is an example of: A. Performance reporting. B. Planning control. C. Ishikawa diagrams. D. Integrating the project components into a whole. |
A
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49
A project manager and team from a firm that designs railroad equipment are tasked to design a machine to load stone onto railroad cars. The design allows for two percent spillage, amounting to over two tons of spilled rock per day. In which of the following does the project manager document quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvements for this project? A. Quality management plan B. Quality policy C. Control charts D. Project management plan |
A
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50
All of the following are inputs to the quality process EXCEPT: A. Organizational process assets. B. Checklists. C. Quality policy. D. The project scope statement. |
B
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51
A quality management plan is created during which of the following? A. Project Executing B. Plan Quality C. Perform Quality Assurance D. Perform Quality Control |
B
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52
Which of the following is an example of a tool used in Plan Quality? A. Fishbone diagram B. Quality audit C. Cause and effect diagram D. Benchmarking |
D
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53
You are in the middle of a major new facility construction project. The structural steel is in place and the heating conduits are going into place when a senior manager informs you that he is worried that the project will not meet the quality standards. What should you do in this situation? A. Assure senior management that during the Plan Quality process it was determined that the project would meet the quality standards. B. Analogously estimate future results. C. Form a quality assurance team. D. Check the results from the last quality management plan. |
C
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54
Management wants to be sure that the project is following defined quality standards. Which of the following should they look at? A. Risk management plan B. WBS C. Statement of work D. Quality audit |
D
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55
All of the following are tools of Perform Quality Control EXCEPT: A. Cost of quality. B. Inspection. C. Control charts. D. Flowcharting. |
A
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56
Which of the following helps a project manager determine possible causes of problems on a project? A. The 50/50 rule B. A fishbone diagram C. A control chart D. A Pareto chart |
B
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57
If two events cannot both occur in a single trial, they are: A. False events. B. Mutually exclusive. C. Statistically independent. D. Just-in-time. |
B
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58
The customer's expectations for quality are shown on a control chart as the: A. Mean. B. Specification limits. C. Rule of seven. D. Upper and lower control limits. |
B
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59
Co-location can help with: A. Bringing customers together. B. Building the team. C. Decreasing project rental costs. D. Decreasing project time. |
B
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60
A project involves arranging for the closing of the company office where the team works and relocating everyone to a new city. The BEST thing the project manager can do is: A. Spend time carefully creating the work breakdown structure. B. Have a strong quality control plan. C. Decrease the fringe benefits. D. Carefully consider the reward system for the project. |
D
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61
A team member is not performing well on the project because she is inexperienced in system development work. There is no one else available who is better qualified to do the work. What is the BEST solution for the project manager? A. Consult with the functional manager to determine project completion incentives for the team member. B. Obtain a new resource more skilled in development work. C. Arrange for the team member to get training. D. Allocate some of the project schedule reserve. |
C
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62
The management theory that all people can direct their own efforts is: A. Theory Y. B. Herzberg's theory. C. Maslow's hierarchy. D. Theory X. |
A
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63
A project team member has been having a big disagreement with another team member for over two months when the other team members become involved. The issues are complex, but you have specific experience in the area and know what needs to be done. The BEST choice would be to: A. Make the decision yourself. B. Strive for fair resolution of the issue. C. Ask the other team members to stay out of the issue. D. Bring the team together and work out the issue to a win-win solution. |
B
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64
While creating the agenda for a status meeting with the team, a project manager receives input from one team member that an item should be added. Another team member says the team is not ready to resolve the item during the meeting. After much discussion, the project manager decides to put the item on the agenda as an initial discussion item only. Which conflict resolution technique is the project manager using? A. Compromise B. Smoothing C. Forcing D. Withdrawal |
A
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65
As the project manager, you are preparing your methods for quality management. You are looking for a method that can demonstrate the relationship between events and their resulting effects. You want to use a method to depict the events that cause a negative effect on quality. Which of the following is the BEST choice for accomplishing your objective? A. Histogram B. Pareto chart C. Ishikawa diagram D. Control chart |
C
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66
Formal written correspondence with the customer is required when: A. Defects are detected. B. The customer requests additional work not covered under contract. C. The project has a schedule slippage that includes changes to the critical path. D. The project has cost overruns. |
B
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67
Extensive use of ___ communication is MOST likely to aid in solving complex problems. A. Verbal B. Written C. Formal D. Nonverbal |
B
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68
Which of the following techniques incorporates a form of risk assessment? A. Arrow diagramming method B. Network diagramming C. Critical path method D. Three-point estimating |
D
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69
A project manager is creating a risk response plan. However, every time a risk response is suggested, another risk is identified that is caused by the response. Which of the following is the BEST thing for the project manager to do? A. Document the new risks and continue the Plan Risk Responses process. B. Make sure the project work is better understood. C. Spend more time making sure the risk responses are clearly defined. D. Get more people involved in the Identify Risks process since risks have been missed. |
A
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70
If a risk has a 20 percent chance of happening in a given month, and the project is expected to last five months, what is the probability that this risk event will occur during the fourth month of the project? A. Less than 1 percent B. 20 percent C. 60 percent D. 80 percent |
B
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71
What is the purpose of a decision tree? A. It demonstrates the path of events in a project. B. It calculates the probability of an outcome. C. It determines what events may take place. D. It takes into account future events for today's choices. |
D
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72
Executing the risk response plan in order to react to risk events throughout the project is called: A. Contingency planning. B. Monitoring and control. C. Mitigation. D. Life cycle costing. |
B
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73
What is the difference between management reserves and contingency reserves? A. Contingency reserves address known knowns, whereas management reserves address known unknowns. B. Contingency and management reserves both address known unknowns and could be considered the same. C. Contingency reserves address known unknowns, whereas management reserves address unknown unknowns. D. Contingency reserves are managed by senior management, whereas management reserves are managed by the project manager. |
C
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74
A project manager is asked to select a contract type for a new software development project that has complete, detailed requirements. Which is the BEST contract to choose? A. Cost reimbursable (CR) B. Fixed price (FP) C. Time and material (T&M) D. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) |
B
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75
The project manager and project sponsor are discussing the project costs and whether it is better to have their own company do part of the project or hire another company to do the work. If they asked for your opinion, you might say it would be better to do the work yourself if: A. There is a lot of proprietary data. B. You have the expertise, but you do not have the available manpower. C. You do not need control over the work. D. Your company resources are limited. |
A
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76
While project work is being done, conflicts can arise between the procurement officer and the project manager because the procurement officer: A. Is the only one who can change the contract. B. Works for a different department. C. Needs to obtain the project manager's approval to make project changes. D. Has a different approach to creating a contract. |
A
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77
You are negotiating with a seller. Time is of the essence but you have a limited budget, and the seller knows this. What is your BEST negotiating strategy under these circumstances? A. Focus the negotiation on seller's profit margin in order to decrease the project cost. B. Negotiate to get the work done even sooner than necessary in order to add a reserve. C. Negotiate identified risks. D. Arrange to reschedule the negotiation until you can acquire information of which the seller is not aware. |
C
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78
You receive 25 new computers from the seller, but were expecting only 20. In looking at the contract, you see that it says "seller to provide twenty (25) computers." What should you do FIRST? A. Issue a change order through the contract manager. B. Return the five extra computers. C. Make payment for the 25 computers. D. Call the seller and ask for clarification. |
B
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79
A project manager you are mentoring comes to you for help because he is about to face his first procurement audit. You might explain that he should NOT worry about such an audit because it: A. Identifies successes and failures that warrant transfer to other procurements. B. Makes sure the contract is being followed. C. Makes sure costs are in line with the project. D. Makes sure the seller is following the contract. |
A
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80
All of the following are typical concerns of matrixed team members EXCEPT: A. Wondering who will handle their evaluations. B. Serving multiple bosses. C. Developing commitment. D. Computing fringe benefits when working on multiple projects. |
D
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81
The seller tells you that your activities have resulted in an increase in their costs. You should: A. Recommend a change to the project costs. B. Have a meeting with management to find out what to do. C. Ask the seller for supporting information. D. Deny any wrongdoing. |
C
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82
Which of the following is CORRECT? A. The critical path helps prove how long the project will take. B. There can be only one critical path. C. The network diagram will change every time the end date changes. D. A project can never have negative float. |
A
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83
Which of the following is CORRECT about quality improvements? A. They are a tool of Perform Quality Assurance and an output of Verify Scope. B. They require the preparation of change requests or the recommendation of corrective actions. C. They occur only through experience of the project manager, team, and sponsor. D. They are a product of cooperation between the customer and the project manager. |
B
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84
A problem occurs on an activity with free float and the project manager has extended its duration. What is MOST likely to be affected? A. Project duration B. Resource schedules C. Project scope management plan D. The latest start for the successor activity |
B
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85
Which of the following is NOT a reason to measure variances from the baseline? A. To catch deviations early B. To allow early corrective action C. To determine if there are any wild fluctuations D. To create a project control system |
D
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86
A team member notifies the project manager that the activities comprising a work package are no longer appropriate. It would be BEST for the project manager to be in what part of the project management process? A. Corrective action B. Integrated change control C. Monitoring and controlling D. Project closing |
C
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87
During project executing, a project team member informs the project manager that a work package has not met the quality metric, and that she believes it is not possible to meet it. The project manager meets with all parties concerned to analyze the situation. Which part of the quality management process is the project manager involved in? A. Perform Quality Assurance B. Project Control C. Perform Quality Control D. Plan Quality |
A
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88
The project manager notices that project activities being completed by one department are all taking slightly longer than planned. To date, none of the activities/work packages have been on the critical path, nor have they affected the critical chain planning that has occurred. The project manager is bothered by the problem, since four of the next five critical path activities are being completed by this department. After making three calls, the project manager is finally able to converse with the department manager to determine what is going on. The conversation is slow, because both speak different native languages and they are trying to converse in French, a shared language. To make communication easier, the project manager frequently asks the department manager to repeat back what has been said. The department manager communicates that his staff is following a company policy that requires two levels of testing. During the conversation, the department manager also makes a comment that leads the project manager to believe that the policy may include excessive work. This is the fourth time the project manager has heard such a comment. What is the BEST thing to do? A. Create a better communications management plan that requires only one language to be the universal language on the project and have translators readily available on a moment's notice. B. Contact someone else in the department who speaks the project manager's native language better to confirm the department manager's opinion. C. Find out if the upcoming activities should be re estimated. D. Work on increasing the effectiveness of the performing organization by recommending continuous improvement of the policy in question. |
D
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89
The sponsor is worried about the seller deriving extra profit on the cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) contract. Each month the sponsor requires the project manager to submit CPI calculations and an analysis of the cost to complete. The project manager explains to the sponsor that extra profits should NOT be a worry on this project because: A. The team is making sure the seller does not cut scope. B. All costs invoiced are being audited. C. There can only be a maximum 10 percent increase if there is an unexpected cost overrun. D. The fee is only received by the seller when the project is completed. |
B
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90
Which of the following is the LEAST effective way to influence the factors that create changes to the cost baseline? A. Review the project scope with the functional manager responsible for the greatest number of requested changes. B. Explain to those requesting changes the negative impact of change to the project. C. Eliminate the scope causing the most changes. D. Notify all stakeholders that no more changes will be allowed. |
D
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91
If a project manager is using observation and conversation to help control the project, she must be involved in which process? A. Develop Project Team B. Distribute Information C. Manage Stakeholder Expectations D. Manage Project Team |
D
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92
Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate thing to do during the planning process group? A. Update corporate processes and procedures based on lessons learned. B. Evaluate the effectiveness of risk responses. C. Recommend changes and defect repair. D. Work with the customer to determine acceptance criteria. |
D
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93
Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate thing to do during the monitoring and controlling process group? A. Implement recognition and reward systems. B. Obtain sign-off of the product of the project. C. Issue performance reports. D. Keep everyone focused on completing the project to the charter. |
C
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94
The widget production project is well underway. The requirements are clear that each widget must weigh between 0.320 and 0.325 ounces. The first day of test production resulted in 1247 widgets. Of the widgets inspected, 47 percent fell within the acceptable weight range. This is an example of: A. Control limits. B. Quality assurance. C. Control charting. D. Corrective action. |
A
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95
In which of the following contract types does the buyer have the most cost risk? A. Cost plus percentage of costs (CPPC) B. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) C. Cost plus award fee (CPAF) D. Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF) |
A
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96
What is the difference between expected monetary value and net present value? A. Expected value is the estimated value of the work actually accomplished and net present value is the value of the work to be done. B. Expected value is the value it takes to recover your investment and net present value is the value of money. C. Expected value is the probability times impact of an opportunity and net present value is the benefits less costs over many time periods. D. Expected value is the estimated value of risk response plans and net present value helps determine the value of investments. |
C
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97
A company attorney, newly hired by the company, walks into the project manager's office and tells her that he is ready to work with her on the procurement process. The project manager has little experience with procurement, so she is excited to have the assistance. With which of the following would it be BEST for the project manager to ask the attorney for help? A. Claims administration, audit results, and updating organizational process assets B. Contract change control system, payments, and change requests C. Recommended corrective actions, performance reporting, and records management system D. Procurement documentation, project management plan updates, and procurement management plan updates |
A
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98
A project manager discovers an urgent need for outsourced resources on the project. He knows he has the money to cover the cost of these resources. He goes to the procurement manager and explains the situation, insisting a contract be drawn up today so he can obtain resources and circumvent the standard procedure. Is this the correct process to follow? A. Yes, of course. For urgent needs, it is not necessary to follow the organization?s procedure regarding procurement. B. Yes. Urgent needs from projects should always be dealt with immediately, as directed by the project manager. C. No. The procurement manager has a process to follow when creating contracts that helps protect the company and its projects. D. No. The procurement manager should be checking in with the project manager to see if he is in need of a contract, rather than making the project manager come and ask for one. |
C
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99
Which of the following is the BEST thing to do at a bidder conference? A. Answer sellers' questions B. Meet the sellers' teams C. Make sure the sellers have all the procurement documents D. Make sure the sellers ask all their questions |
D
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100
To-complete performance index (TCPI) is represented by which of the following? A. BAC - EV/BAC - AC B. A measure of the value of work completed compared to the actual cost or progress C. A measure of progress achieved compared to progress planned D. AC + (BAC - EV) |
A
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101
The inputs of the Performance Reporting process include all of the following except for which one? A. Performance reviews B. Work performance information C. Forecasted completion D. Performance measurements |
A
Performance reviews are not an input of the Performance Reporting process. The remaining inputs of this process are quality control measurements, project management plan, approved change requests, and deliverables. |
|
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102
You are a project manager for Pizza Direct, which is a retail pizza delivery store. Your company is competing with another retail store for the option of opening two new stores in a foreign country. You know, but have not yet informed your company, that you are going to go to work for the competitor, which happens to be bidding for this same opportunity. What is the most appropriate response? A. You decide to participate in the initial meetings with the foreign business partners because any information you gain now will help you when you make the move to the new company. B. You inform the foreign business partners that you're going to be working with a new company and that you know the deal they'll receive from the competing company is better than the one this company is proposing. C. You decline to participate in the initial meetings with the foreign business partners because of a conflict of interest. D. You've not yet received an official offer from the competing company for your new job opportunity, so you choose to participate in the initial meetings with the foreign business partners. |
C
The most appropriate response is to decline to participate because of a conflict of interest. |
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103
The most effective team motivator is: A. understanding the importance of the project B. the satisfaction of meeting a challenge C. All of the other alternatives apply. D. the visibility of the team's contribution E. the individual's professional challenge |
D
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104
Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in _______ . A. Conduct Procurements B. Close Procurements C. Plan Procurements D. Administer Procurements |
B
Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in Close Procurements. |
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105
Continually measuring and monitoring the actual cost versus the budget is done to _____. A. None of the other alternatives apply . B. analyze the reasons for variances C. establish the variances D. identify the problems E. All of the other alternatives apply. |
E
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106
You are a project manager for Giraffe Enterprises. You've recently taken over for a project manager who lied about his PMI certification and was subsequently fired. Unfortunately, he did a poor job of scope definition. Which of the following could happen if you don't correct this? A. The project costs could increase, there might be rework, and schedule delays might result. B. The project management plan's process for verification and acceptance of the deliverables needs to be updated as a result of the poor scope definition. C. The poor scope definition will adversely affect the creation of the work breakdown structure, and costs will increase. D. The stakeholders will require overtime from the project team to keep the project on schedule. |
A
Option A might seem like a correct answer, but option D is more correct. There isn't enough information to determine whether stakeholders will require overtime. We do know that poor scope definition might lead to cost increases, rework, schedule delays, and poor morale. |
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107
You are a project manager working in a foreign country. You observe that some of your project team members are having a difficult time adjusting to the new culture. You provided them with training on cultural differences and the customs of this country before arriving, but they still seem uncomfortable and disoriented. Which of the following statements is true? A. This condition is known as culture shock. B. This is the result of jet lag and travel fatigue. C. This is the result of working with teams of people from two different countries. D. This condition is known as globalculturalism. |
A
When people work in unfamiliar environments, culture shock can occur. Training and researching information about the country you'll be working in can help counteract this. |
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108
Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM): A. Defines what project member is responsible for each activity B. Defines responsibilities for each WBS component C. Defines all people associated with each activity D. Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities |
D
The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) details the different tasks for the people listed in the matrix chart. |
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109
The erection of foundation formwork before the placement of foundation concrete would be an example of a _____ dependency. A. Soft logic B. Subcontracted C. Mandatory D. Discretionary E. External |
C
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110
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next? A. Control Scope B. Create WBS C. Value analysis D. Verify Scope |
B
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope. |
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111
Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM): A. Defines what project member is responsible for each activity B. Defines all people associated with each activity C. Defines responsibilities for each WBS component D. All of the other alternatives apply |
D
The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) details the different tasks for the people listed in the matrix chart. |
|
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112
Giving a part of project work to a contractor is an example of: A. risk assumption B. risk assignment C. risk delegation D. risk deflection E. risk mitigation |
D
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113
Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days, what is the PERT weighted average? A. 6.1 B. 6.3 C. 6 D. 4 |
C
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114
Management reserves are normally defined as a % of the total budget. As a project progresses, the project manager wants the $ value of management reserve to _____, whereas the customer wants the management reserve to _____. A. Increase, increase. B. Increase, decrease. C. Remain the same, return to customer. D. Decrease, increase. E. Decrease, decrease. |
C
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115
The project manager has, as a prime responsibility, to assure proper integration of activities. In which organizational form does the project manager probably have the easiest time in integrating work? A. Matrix B. Pure project C. Coordinator D. Classical E. Expediter |
B
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116
Formal written correspondence is mandated in which of the following situations: A. Client requests additional work not covered under contract B. None of the other alternatives apply C. Both 1) Client requests additional work not covered under contract, and 2) Project manager calls a meeting. D. Project manager calls a meeting E. Product undergoes casual in-house testing |
A
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117
Smoothing out resource requirements from period to period is called resource _____. A. None of the other alternatives apply. B. Leveling. C. Quantification D. Partitioning E. Allocation. |
B
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118
You are a project manager for Cinema Snicker Productions. Your company specializes in producing comedy films for the big screen. Your latest project has just been completed and accepted. You've been given your next project, which starts right away. Which of the following statements is true? A. This project ended due to integration because it was completed and accepted. B. This project ended due to extinction because it was completed and accepted. C. This project ended due to integration because it was completed and accepted and the project manager moved on to a new project. D. This project ended due to addition because it was completed and accepted and archived into the company's catalog of available films. |
B
Extinction is the best type of project end because it means the project was completed successfully and accepted by the sponsor or customer. |
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119
Which is a valid response to negative risks? A. mitigation B. Enhance C. Exploit D. Share |
A
Risk mitigation is a response to negative risks and not positive risks. Positive risks may be responded by - "Exploit", "Enhance", "Share", "Accept". |
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120
Project leadership requires that the project manager pay attention simultaneously to the: A. Time, cost and performance deliverables B. Tasks to be performed and needs of the team C. Quantity and quality of the work to be performed D. All of the other alternatives apply E. Efficiency and effectiveness of the team |
D
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121
A quality control manager decides to increase his daily sample size from three to six. The size of the control band will: A. not determinable from given data B. None of the other alternatives apply . C. decrease D. remain unchanged E. increase |
C
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122
What is one of the most important skills a project manager can have? A. Negotiation skills B. Communication skills C. Influencing skills D. Problem-solving skills |
B
Negotiation, influencing, and problem-solving skills are all important for a project manager to possess. However, good communication skills are the most important skills a project manager can have. |
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123
The critical path in a schedule network is the path that: A. Takes the longest time to complete B. Allows some flexibility in scheduling a start time. C. Is not affected by schedule slippage D. Must be done before any other tasks E. All of the other alternatives apply. |
A
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124
In a matrix organizational form, which factor(s) make it difficult for a project manager to provide a valid input into the employee's performance review? A. All of the other alternatives apply B. Employees spend only a short amount of time assigned to the project C. Not working directly with the assigned functional employees D. Not being knowledgeable enough to evaluate employees on technical judgment E. Both 1) Not working directly with the assigned functional employees, and 2) Employees spend only a short amount of time assigned to the project. |
A
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125
You are a project manager for Pizza Direct, which is a retail pizza delivery store. Your company is competing with another retail store for the option of opening two new stores in a foreign country. You have been invited to dinner with the prospective foreign business partners and their spouses upon your arrival. You know that all of the following statements are generally true except for which one? A. You should respect the cultural differences you'll encounter when working with your prospective foreign business partners. B. You should build an atmosphere of mutual trust and cooperation. C. You should spend time building relationships with your prospective foreign business partners before getting down to business. D. You should explain your company's rules, standards, and operating policies at your first meeting with the prospective foreign business partners. |
D
Your first meeting with foreign partners should be spent getting to know them on a personal basis. Many cultures like to spend time building relationships first and then talking business. Since you've been invited to dinner upon your arrival and the dinner includes the spouses of your prospective partners, chances are they want to spend some time getting to know you personally first. The discussion of the company's rules, standards, and operating policies should occur at the second or third meeting. |
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126
Reserve Analysis a technique not used in: A. Estimate Costs B. Estimating Activity Duration C. Control Costs D. Determine Budget |
C
Reserve Analysis: Many cost estimators include reserves, also called contingency allowances, as costs in many schedule activity cost estimates. Reserve Analysis a technique not used in Control Costs. |
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127
A Project with a total funding of $70,000 finished with a BAC value of $60,000. What term can best describe the difference of $10,000? A. Management Contingency Reserve B. Cost Variance C. Schedule Variance D. Management Overhead |
A
The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is Management Contingency Reserve. BAC represents the revised Cost baseline for the project. So Management Contingency Reserve is true. |
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128
The positive value of conflict is underestimated. Properly managed, conflict is a valuable tool, particularly when A. A diversion is needed B. Conflict may cause a loss of status or position power C. Conflictive situations are in their early stages and emotional involvement is low D. Conflictive situations are in their late stages and emotional involvement is high E. |
C
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129
You are the project manager for a new website for the local zoo. You need to perform Qualitative Risk Analysis. When you've completed this process, you'll produce all of the following as part of the risk register update output except which one? A. Probability of achieving time and cost estimates B. Watch list of low-priority risks C. Priority list of risks D. Risks grouped by categories |
A
Probability of achieving time and cost estimates is an update that is produced from the Quantitative Risk Analysis process. |
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130
A clear definition of the user's needs serves as the direct basis for the: A. Selection of personnel. B. Termination decision. C. Work breakdown structure. D. Functional requirements. E. Project cost estimate. |
D
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131
A summary WBS is usually developed in the A. close-out phase B. All of the other alternatives apply phases C. implementation phase D. planning phase E. Conceptual phase |
E
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132
Many companies self insure against some risk. Problems which can arise from self-insurance include: A. confusion of business risks with insurable risks. B. Both 1) failure to reserve funds to handle worst case scenarios (low probability events) resulting in severe financial damage to the company, and 2) confusion of business risks with insurable risks. C. stiff competition from insurance companies D. All of the other alternatives apply. E. failure to reserve funds to handle worst case scenarios (low probability events) resulting in severe financial damage to the company |
B
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133
You are a contract project manager working with the State of Bliss. Your latest project involves rewriting the Department of Revenue's income tax system. As project manager, you have taken all the appropriate actions regarding confidentiality of data. One of the key stakeholders is a huge movie buff, and she has the power to promote you into a better position at the conclusion of this project. She's reviewing some report data that just happens to include confidential information regarding one of her favorite movie superstars. What is the most appropriate response? A. Do nothing, because she has the proper level of access rights to the data and this information showed up unintentionally. B. Request that she immediately return the information, citing conflict of interest and violation of confidential company data. C. Request that she immediately return the information until you can confirm that she has the proper level of access rights to the data. D. Report her to the management team. |
A
As project manager, it's your responsibility to make sure the people you will be sharing data with have the proper permissions to see the data; this question indicated that you did that. In this case, D is not correct because it implies that you did not verify ahead of time that the stake-holder had the proper level of approvals to use the data. |
|
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134
Resource reallocation from non critical to critical activities is an example of which Project Scheduling technique: A. Critical Path Method B. Schedule Compression C. Resource Leveling D. What if Analysis |
C
Resource Leveling: Allocate scare resources to critical path activities first. |
|
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135
Which of the following statements is in agreement with McGregor's concepts concerning Theory X and Theory Y managers? A. All of the other alternatives apply B. Theory X managers tend to be autocratic whereas Theory Y managers are more likely to delegate responsibility C. Both 1) Theory X managers view subordinates as being lazy, irresponsible, and resistant to change, and 2) Theory Y managers view subordinates as being imaginative, creative, and willing to accept responsibility D. Theory Y managers view subordinates as being imaginative, creative, and willing to accept responsibility E. Theory X managers view subordinates as being lazy, irresponsible, and resistant to change |
A
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136
Management by objectives assumes that the team A. Both 1) is receptive to an unstructured environment, and 2) possesses a self-fulfillment philosophy B. possesses a self-fulfillment philosophy C. All of the other alternatives apply D. is receptive to an unstructured environment. E. does not require close supervision |
B
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137
An activity that consumes no time or resources and shows only that a dependency exists between two activities is called: A. A milestone B. A dummy activity C. Both 1) A milestone and 2) A dummy activity D. A hammock |
B
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138
A _____ estimate prepared from layouts, sketches and flowsheets, should be accurate within (-10, +25%). A. Parametric B. Bottom up. C. Budget D. Top down. E. Definitive. |
C
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139
What is the standard deviation for the estimates in the above problem? A. 2 B. 0.5 C. 1.5 D. 0.6 |
D
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140
Which of the following is most closely associated with pure risk: A. profit and loss B. personnel turnover C. market fluctuations D. insurance E. Both 1) profit and loss and 2) market fluctuations. |
D
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141
Your company, Kick That Ball Sports, has appointed you project manager for its new Cricket product line introduction. This is a national effort, and all the retail stores across the country need to have the new products on the shelves before the media advertising blitz begins. The product line involves three new products, two of which will be introduced together and a third one that will follow within two years. Product number three will be elaborated in more detail closer to the product's release date, while the first two products will be elaborated in great detail now. The scope management plan has just been completed. Which of the following is true? (Choose the best response.) A. The WBS template from a previous project, a tool and technique of the Create WBS process, was used to create the WBS for this project. The WBS encompasses the major deliverables for the project. B. Only the deliverables associated with the work of the project should be listed on the WBS. Since product number three isn't being released until a later date it should not yet be included on the WBS. C. The WBS encompasses the full scope of work for the project and the technique in the question is called rolling wave planning. D. The WBS should be created next, and it encompasses the full scope of work for the project. Only the work of the project is listed on the WBS. |
C
There isn't enough information in the question to know whether "The WBS template from a previous project, a tool and technique of the Create WBS process, was used to create the WBS for this project. The WBS encompasses the major deliverables for the project." is correct, although it could be. "The WBS should be created next, and it encompasses the full scope of work for the project. Only the work of the project is listed on the WBS." is not correct because the next process after the scope management plan is created is the Scope Definition process. The WBS details the entire scope of the project and includes all deliverables. It is an output of the Create WBS process and the technique of elaborating some deliverables at a later date is called rolling wave planning. |
|
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142
The risk of accepting a lot of poor quality, in acceptance sampling, is referred to as: A. type I error B. producer's risk C. consumer's risk D. buyer's risk E. consumer's risk and type I error |
C
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143
Parametric cost estimating involves A. using a statistical model to estimate costs B. calculating the individual estimates of work packages C. defining the perimeters of the life-cycle D. using the WBS to do bottom up estimates E. Both 1) using the WBS to do bottom up estimate, and 2) calculating the individual estimates of work packages |
A
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144
You are a project manager for Picture Shades, Inc. It manufactures window shades that have replicas of Renaissance-era paintings on the inside for hotel chains. Picture Shades is taking its product to the home market, and you're managing the new project. It will offer its products at retail stores as well as on its website. You're developing the project schedule for this under-taking and have determined the critical path. Which of the following statements is true? A. You calculated the early and late start dates, the early and late finish dates, and float times for all activities. B. You calculated the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely duration times and the float times for all activities. C. You calculated the activity dependency and the optimistic and pessimistic activity duration estimates. D. You calculated the most likely start date and most likely finish dates, float time, and weighted average estimates. |
A
The CPM calculates a single early and late start date and a single early and late finish date for each activity. Once these dates are known, float time is calculated for each activity to determine the critical path. The other answers contain elements of PERT calculations. |
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145
Your project team has identified several potential risks on your current project that could have a significant impact if they occurred. The team examined the impact of the risks by keeping all the uncertain elements at their baseline values. What type of diagram will the team use to display this information? A. Process flowchart B. Tornado diagram C. Influence diagram D. Fishbone diagram |
B
The question describes sensitivity analysis, which is a tool and technique of the Quantitative Risk Analysis process. Tornado diagrams are often used to display sensitivity analysis data. |
|
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146
Response Planning is the responsibility of the functional areas and considers A. deflection. B. contingency planning. C. unforeseen occurrences. D. All of the other alternatives apply. E. mitigation. |
D
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147
Your project sponsor has requested a cost estimate for the project on which you're working. This project is similar in scope to a project you worked on last year. She would like to get the cost estimates as soon as possible. Accuracy is not her primary concern right now. She needs a ballpark figure by tomorrow. You decide to use ___________________. A. parametric modeling techniques B. analogous estimating techniques C. bottom-up estimating techniques D. computerized modeling techniques |
B
Analogous-or top-down-estimating techniques are a form of expert judgment. Since this project is similar to another recent project, you can use the cost estimates from the previous project to help you quickly determine estimates for the current project. |
|
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148
For communication to occur, there must be: A. All of the other alternatives apply B. a communication process C. Two or more people involved D. the transmittal of information E. The transmittal of information and a communication process |
A
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149
Your company has asked you to be the project manager for the product introduction of its new DeskTop Rock media system. You recently published the project scope statement. Which of the following is not contained in the project scope statement? A. Requested changes B. Project configuration management requirements C. Constraints D. Project specifications |
A
Requested changes are an output of the Scope Definition process. They are not part of the project scope statement. |
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150
You are working on a project that is similar in scope to a project performed last year by your company. You might consider which of the following? A. Using the previous project's alternatives identification as a template B. Reusing the previous project's product description when writing the scope statement C. Using the previous project's WBS as a template D. Reusing the previous project's cost-benefit analysis as justification for this project |
C
WBSs from previous projects can be used as templates on projects that are producing similar products, services, or results. Some companies write WBS templates to be used for projects of similar scope. |
|
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151
What are the performance measurements for the Schedule Control process? A. SV (EV - PV) and SPI (EV \u00F7 PV) B. SV (PV - EV) and SPI (PV \u00F7 EV) C. SV (EV - BAC) and SPI (EV \u00F7 BAC) D. SV (EV - AC) and SPI (EV \u00F7 AC) |
A
Schedule variance is (EV - PV) and schedule performance index is (EV \u00F7 PV). |
|
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152
The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions is: A. Project verification B. Project scope C. Project control D. Product scope |
B
Project Scope: The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions. |
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153
The project manager is assigned in the? A. Management Plan B. SOW C. Charter (contract) D. Project Plan |
C
Project Manager should be assigned in the early phase of the project otherwise project may get delay. |
|
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154
Parametric Estimating is done as a part of which process: A. Estimate Activity Durations B. Sequence Activities C. Develop Schedule D. Estimate Activity Resources |
A
Tools and Techniques for Estimate Activity Durations are: Analogous estimates , Parametric Estimating, Three-Point Estimates and Reserve Analysis. |
|
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155
Make payment to seller is done in _______ . A. Plan Procurements B. Conduct Procurements C. Administer Procurements D. Close Procurements |
C
Make payment to seller is done in Administer Procurements. |
|
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156
You have accumulated project information throughout the project and need to distribute some important information you just received. Which of the following is not an information distribution method? A. Electronic mail B. Videoconferencing C. Voicemail D. Electronic databases |
D
Electronic databases are a type of information gathering and retrieval system, not a distribution method. |
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157
The following reports are normally developed during the project closure phase? A. None of the other alternatives apply B. Communications Management Plan and Lessons Learned C. Records Archive, Closure Report, & Specifications Document D. Records Archive, Closure Report, lessons learned & Formal Acceptance Report E. Communications Management Plan and Closure report |
D
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158
Which one of the following is not an acquisition method? A. negotiation B. invitation C. purchase D. advertising E. all are acquisition methods |
D
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159
Communication in both project and non-project-driven organizations should occur in directions. A. four B. one C. two D. three E. five |
E
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160
In which of the following is the cost of risk hidden by the contractor? A. Fixed Price Plus Incentive B. Firm Fixed Price Contract and Fixed Price Plus Incentive C. Firm Fixed Price Contract D. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost E. Cost Plus Fixed Price |
D
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161
Objectives can be described as all of the following except for which one? Choose the least correct answer. A. The monetary units used to express the cost criteria for the project B. The functionality and specific conditions that must be met in order to satisfy the project, contract, standard, or specification C. The quantifiable results used to measure project success that should include schedule, cost, and quality criteria D. The purpose for undertaking the project |
B
According to the PMBOK Guide, functionality and specific conditions that must be met in order to satisfy the project, contract, standard, or specification describe the criteria for requirements, not objectives. |
|
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162
All of the following statements are true regarding the RBS except for which one? A. The RBS is similar to the WBS in that the lowest levels of both are easily assigned to a responsible party or owner. B. The RBS is contained in the risk management plan. C. The lowest level of the RBS can be used as a checklist, which is a tool and technique of the Risk Identification process. D. It describes risk categories, which are a systematic way to identify risks and provide a foundation for understanding for everyone involved on the project. |
A
The RBS describes risk categories, and the lowest level can be used as a checklist to help identify risks. Risk owners are not assigned from the RBS; they're assigned during the Risk Response Planning process. |
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163
You are the project manager for Lucky Stars nightclubs. They specialize in live country and western band performances. Your newest project is in the Planning process group. You've published the scope statement and scope management plan. The document that describes who will receive copies of this information as well as future project information, how it should be distributed, and who will prepare it is which of the following? A. Scope management plan B. Project charter C. Communications management plan D. Information distribution plan |
C
The communications management plan documents what information will be distributed, how it will be distributed, to whom, by whom, and the timing of the distribution. |
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164
With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The mean is _____. A. 25.0 B. 22.5 C. 27.5 D. 30.0 |
D
mean = (20+30+40)/3= 30 |
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165
Sally is a project manager working on a project that will require a specially engineered machine. Only three manufacturers can make the machine to the specifications Sally needs. The price of this machine is particularly critical to this project. The budget is limited, and there's no chance of securing additional funds if the bids for the machine come in higher than budgeted. She's developing the evaluation criteria for the bidders' responses and knows all of the following are true except for which one? A. Sally will review the project management plan, including the risk register, as inputs to this process. B. Sally will base the evaluation criteria on price alone since the budget is a constraint. C. Sally will update the contract statement of work with any new information. D. Sally will use standard contract forms provided by her procurement department to write the contract for this machine. |
B
Evaluation criteria can be based on price alone when there are many vendors who can readily supply the good or services. The question states that only three vendors make the machine, which means evaluation criteria should be based on more than price. |
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166
Failure costs are also known as which of the following? A. Internal costs B. Prevention costs C. Cost of keeping defects out of the hands of customers D. Cost of poor quality |
D
Failure costs are associated with the cost of quality and are also known as cost of poor quality. |
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167
During the opening rounds of contract negotiation, the other party uses a fait accompli tactic. Which of the following statements is true about fait accompli tactics? A. One party claims the issue under discussion was documented and accepted as part of Scope Verification. B. One party claims the issue under discussion has already been decided and can't be changed. C. One party claims to accept the offer of the other party, provided a contract change request is submitted describing the offer in detail. D. One party agrees to accept the offer of the other party but secretly knows they will bring the issue back up at a later time. |
B
Fait accompli is a tactic used during contract negotiations where one party convinces the other that the particular issue is no longer relevant or cannot be changed. Option B is not correct because Scope Verification does not generally occur during contract negotiations since the work of the project has not yet been performed. |
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168
The most rapid Estimate Costs technique is: A. Analogous estimating B. Template estimating C. Computerized estimating D. Square foot estimating |
C
Computerized estimating rapid Estimate Costs technique |
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169
Management styles associated with production environments, such as assembly lines commonly include: A. assumption that workers lack ambition and dislike responsibility B. All of the other alternatives apply. C. a directing style of leadership. D. a lack of confidence in their workers E. a Theory X style of leadership |
B
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170
The person in the organization that authorizes the commencement of a project is the ______________? A. Project Admin B. Sponsor C. Project Manager D. Senior Manager |
B
The project manager executes the project but does not authorize the project. Sponsor authorize the project. |
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171
Constraints do not include: A. Expected staff assignments B. Collective bargaining C. Organizational structure of the performing organization D. Impacts of weather |
D
Impacts of weather |
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172
Job continuity would be an example of _____ in Maslow's hierarchy of needs. A. Self-actualization B. Physiological C. Safety D. Belonging E. Esteem |
C
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173
The estimated cost to complete (ETC) is _____. A. BCWP/ACWP B. the forecasted and final cost - cost to date C. None of the other alternatives apply . D. Total estimate - ACWP E. (ACWP-BCWP)/BCWP * 100 |
B
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174
Formal written communication is mandated for which of the following? A. Both 1) scope changes not part of the original project, and 2) taking exception to a specification. B. scope changes not part of the original project C. procurement of raw materials D. All of the other alternatives apply. E. taking exception to a specification |
D
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175
Risk mitigation includes all but which of the following: A. performing contingent planning B. Obtaining insurance against loss C. Developing system (policies, procedures, responsibilities) D. identification of project risks. E. developing planning alternatives |
D
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176
Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can be used to: A. See how others have solved problems B. "Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives" C. See what mistakes others have made D. All of the other alternatives apply |
D
All of the other alternatives apply |
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177
In which type of organization(s) is the project manager's role most likely part-time? A. Functional B. Weak Matrix C. Balanced Matrix D. Both 1) Functional and 2) Weak Matrix |
D
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178
A(n) _____ is defined as a specified accomplishment in a particular instant in time which does not consume time or resources. A. Event. B. Activity C. Correlation D. Event constrained within planned effort. E. Constant |
A
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179
Trend Analysis is best described as: A. Examining project performance over time B. Calculating Earned Value C. Calculating Cost Variance D. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time |
A
Trend Analysis is Examining project performance time by time |
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180
Overlapping activities on a project, such as design and construction, is referred to as: A. Process improvement. B. Synchronous manufacturing C. Fast tracking D. Parallel management. E. Risk conversion. |
C
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181
All the techniques described below can be used to keep a meeting focused except: A. Rephrase unclear ideas presented by group members B. Encourage pursuit of interesting new ideas C. Summarize discussion periodically D. Recall agenda items/purpose of meeting E. All are acceptable techniques |
B
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182
Resource leveling _____. A. Attempts to reduce resource requirements within a constraint on project duration B. Smoothes out resource requirements by rescheduling activities within their float time. C. Allocates resources to activities to find shortest schedule within fixed resource limits. D. Smooths out resource requirements by substituting activities with unassigned resources. E. 1) Smoothes out resource requirements by rescheduling activities within their float time, or 2) Attempts to reduce resource requirements within a constraint on project duration |
E
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183
The highest degrees of project risk and uncertainty are associated with the following phase of the project: A. Both 1) conceptual, and 2)post project evaluation B. cut-over C. conceptual D. execution E. post project evaluation |
C
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184
You are a project manager for an engineering company. Your company won the bid to add ramp- metering lights to several on-ramps along a stretch of highway at the south end of the city. You subcontracted a portion of the project to another company. The subcontractor's work involves digging the holes and setting the lamp poles in concrete. The subcontractor's performance is not meeting the contract requirements. Which of the following is not a valid option? A. You document the poor performance in written form and send the correspondence to the subcontractor. B. You terminate the contract for poor performance and submit a change request through Contract Administration. C. You agree to meet with the subcontractor to see whether a satisfactory solution can be reached. D. You submit a change request through Contract Administration demanding that the subcontractor comply with the terms of the contract. |
D
The contract change control system describes the processes you'll use to make changes to the contract, not as a means of communication. The changes might include contract term changes, date changes, and termination of a contract. |
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185
Job descriptions are examples of ______communications. A. horizontal B. downward C. diagonal D. upward E. None of the other alternatives apply |
E
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186
You are in a meeting with someone who just ate a slice of garlic bread. Your are distracted by his pungent breath. Which of the following communication barriers describe these distractions? A. None of the other alternatives apply B. Selective Perception C. Sensory Limitations D. Varying Alertness of Perception E. Sign Detection |
E
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187
Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except: A. Analysis of alternatives B. Decision making C. Team building D. Convergent thinking E. Uninhibited verbalization |
D
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188
In crashing a task, you would focus on: A. Accelerate performance by minimizing cost. B. As many tasks as possible and accelerate performance by minimizing cost. C. Non critical tasks. D. Accelerating performance of tasks on critical path. E. As many tasks as possible. |
D
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189
You have been assigned to a project in which the objectives are to expand three miles of the north-to-south highway through your city by two lanes in each direction. You are in charge of the demolition phase of this project, and you report to the project manager in charge of this project. You have been hired on contract and will be released at the completion of the demolition phase. What type of organizational structure does this represent? A. Balanced matrix organization B. Functional organization C. Projectized organization D. Weak matrix organization |
C
Projectized organizations are focused on the project itself. One issue with this type of structure is determining what to do with project team members when they are not actively involved on the project. One alternative is to release them when they are no longer needed. |
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190
You are a project manager of ABC organization. You are estimating the project in initiation phase. What level of accuracy you can expect? A. -75 percent to +75 percent B. -25 percent to +25 percent C. -50 percent to +50 percent D. -50 percent to +100 percent |
D
In the project initiation phase estimation is rough therefore it can fluctuate -50 percent to +100 percent. |
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191
Root Cause Analysis related to ________. A. Process Analysis B. Performance Measurements C. All of the other alternatives apply D. Quality Audits |
A
Root Cause Analysis relates to Process Analysis. |
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192
Range estimating in determining cost risk probabilities requires _____ . A. an amount of financial exposure. B. risks and opportunities ranked in order of bottom line importance C. All of the other alternatives apply. D. contingency requirements for expected level of confidence E. probability of cost overrun occurrences |
C
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193
When working in a matrix environment, all of the following are true regarding the Manage Project Team process except for which one? A. Communication methods and issue logs are used to create performance appraisals, provide feedback, and track issues. B. Managing project teams in a matrix environment is often a critical success factor for the project. C. Loyalty issues might arise when managing projects in a matrix environment. D. It's the project manager's responsibility to make certain this dual reporting relationship is managed effectively. |
A
Communication methods are not a tool and technique of the Manage Project Team process. |
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194
Who are the audience of project charter? A. The senior Project Manager B. The project team C. stakeholders D. The project manager |
C
The project sponsor creates and issues the project charter and the audience are the stakeholders. |
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195
Communication always makes use of. A. words B. All of the other alternatives apply. C. language D. gestures E. symbols |
B
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196
The major difference between PERT and CPM networks is: A. PERT is measured in days whereas CPM uses weeks or months. B. PERT addresses only time whereas CPM also includes cost and resource availability. C. PERT requires three time estimates whereas CPM requires one time estimate. D. PERT is used for construction projects whereas CPM is used for R & D. E. PERT requires computer solutions whereas CPM is a manual technique. |
C
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197
Risk event probability is defined as: A. the total number of possible events divided into the expectations or frequency of the risk event B. the fraction of the total project tasks which may be affected by the risk event C. the number of times the risk event may occur D. Both 1) the total number of possible events divided into the expectations or frequency of the risk event and 2) the number of times the risk event may occur. E. the total number of possible events divided into the consequences of the risk event. |
A
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198
You've been assigned as a project manager on a research and development project for a new dental procedure. You're working in the Scope Planning process. What is the purpose of the project scope management plan? A. The project scope management plan describes and documents a scope baseline to help make future project decisions. B. The project scope management plan decomposes project deliverables into smaller units of work. C. The project scope management plan describes how project scope will be developed and how changes will be managed. D. The project scope management plan describes how cost and time estimates will be developed for project scope changes. |
C
The scope management plan outlines how project scope will be managed and how changes will be incorporated into the project. |
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199
What are you likely to see as a project progresses in a schedule with must fix dates and little or no slack? A. Idle resources B. Negative float C. Lots of free float D. Positive float |
A
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200
The ability to achieve cost savings is inversely proportional to _____. A. empowerment to the P.M. B. productivity C. the estimated costs to complete D. the earned value achieved to date E. None of the other alternatives apply . |
D
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201
The strong matrix versus a weak matrix. A. strong matrix is more difficult to manage. B. the balance of power has shifted away from the PM. C. All of the other alternatives apply. D. functional managers no longer has control over the technical processes. E. team members are more likely to be assigned to the project office in a strong matrix |
E
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202
According to Herzberg, which of the following is a motivational factor? A. Working conditions B. Achievement C. Vacation time D. Pay E. Hygiene needs |
B
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203
The scope of a project can be expected to change if: A. The project manager must provide cost estimates without having a design concept B. All of the other alternatives apply are possible based upon the situation C. The project manager is assigned after the project is defined, and the cost and schedule are approved D. A clear objective is not provided E. Oversimplification (underestimating) of the nature of the work occurs |
B
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204
Work authorization forms are needed in order to: A. Authorize line organizations to charge against the project B. Develop a structured methodology for release of funds C. Establish an audit trail D. All of the other alternatives apply E. 1) Authorize line organizations to charge against the project and 2)Develop a structured methodology for release of funds |
D
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205
Cost management includes processes that are required to maintain financial control of projects. These processes may include: A. economic evaluation B. cost estimating and cost forecasting C. cost estimating D. cost forecasting E. All of the other alternatives apply. |
E
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206
Communication plays a major role in: A. Organizing B. Controlling C. All of the other alternatives apply D. Directing E. Planning |
C
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207
A Project with a total funding of $70,000 finished with a BAC value of $60,000. What term can best describe the difference of $10,000? A. Management Overhead B. Management Contingency Reserve C. Cost Variance D. Schedule Variance |
B
The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is Management Contingency Reserve. BAC represents the revised Cost baseline for the project. So Management Contingency Reserve is true. |
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208
You are a project manager for an agricultural supply company. You have just completed and obtained sign-off on the project scope statement for your new Natural Bug Busters project. A key stakeholder has informed you that a deliverable is missing from the project scope statement. This deliverable is a critical success factor. Which of the following actions should you take? A. Modify the scope statement to reflect the new deliverable. B. Modify the scope statement after an approved change request has been received from the stakeholder. C. Inform the stakeholder that work not stated in the scope statement is excluded from the project. D. Inform the stakeholder that this deliverable must be included in phase two of this project since sign-off has already been obtained. |
B
The project scope statement will change throughout the project as change requests are received and approved. Project managers must be certain to discover all deliverables before publishing the project scope statement to prevent situations like the one described in this question. |
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209
Control chart theory is based on the differentiation of the causes of variations in quality. Variations may be produced by assignable causes. All of the following are examples of assignable causes except: A. None of the other alternatives apply (all are examples) B. differences among materials. C. differences among machines. D. differences among workers. E. differences in each of these factors over time. |
A
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210
The basic elements of communication include: A. Reading, writing and listening B. Communicator, encoding, message, medium, decoding, receiver, and feedback C. All of the other alternatives apply D. Clarity of speech and good listening habits E. Listening, talking and sign language. |
B
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211
Life seems to be going very well for your close friend, a fellow PMP. She has taken a trip to France, bought a new car, and stocked her wine cellar with a half dozen expensive bottles of wine, all within the last six months. After a few cocktails one evening, she tells you her secret. The vendor she's working with on the $4 billion project she's managing has given her all of these items as gifts. Which of the following should you do? (Choose the best answer.) A. You tell your friend these gifts probably aren't appropriate and leave it at that. B. Your friend doesn't see a problem with accepting these gifts at all. You know this is a conflict of interest situation and should be reported as a PMP Code of Professional Conduct violation. C. You and your friend have a long conversation about the gifts, and she decides to return them (with the exception of the trip) and not accept any more gifts in the future. D. You're happy for your friend and say nothing. |
B
This is a conflict of interest situation, and you should report it as a violation of the PMP Code of Professional Conduct. |
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212
All of the following are tools and techniques of the Contract Administration process except for which one? A. Contract change control system, buyer-conducted performance review, and inspections and audits B. Records management system and information technology C. Contract performance information gathering and contract reporting systems D. Performance reporting, payment system, and claims administration |
C
The tools and techniques of the Contract Administration process are contract change control system, buyer-conducted performance review, inspections and audits, performance reporting, payment system, claims administration, records management system, and information technology. |
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213
Company expenses such as auditing costs, supervision, office supplies, building rent and maintenance are elements of the: A. Contracts and administration costing system. B. Fringe benefits packages. C. None of the other alternatives apply . D. Capital budgeting process. E. Overhead rates. |
E
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214
You are the project manger for Xylophone Phonics. This company produces children's software programs that teach basic reading and math skills. You are ready to assign project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. Which project Planning process are you working on? A. Human Resource Acquisition B. Acquire Staff C. Human Resource Planning D. Resource Planning |
C
The Human Resource Planning process identifies project resources, documents roles and responsibilities of project team members, and documents reporting relationships. |
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215
The process of Manage Stakeholder Expectations is part of which process? A. Executing B. Monitoring and Control C. Planning D. QA |
A
Manage Stakeholder Expectations is part of Monitoring and Control process. |
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216
Collect Requirements is: A. Developing a plan from major stakeholders B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions C. Planning project milestones D. Formalizing acceptance of the project scope |
B
Collect Requirements: Process of progressively elaborating and documenting the project work that produces the product of the project |
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217
Which is not one of the triple constraint of a project? A. Cost B. Time C. Resources D. Scope |
C
Projects triple constraints are 1) Scope, 2)Time and 3)Cost |
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218
What is one of the advantages of a functional organization? A. All employees report to two or more managers, but project team members show loyalty to functional managers. B. All employees report to one manager and have a clear chain of command. C. Teams are co-located. D. The organization is focused on projects and project work. |
B
Advantages for employees in a functional organization are that they have only one supervisor and a clear chain of command exists. |
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219
The Japanese Quality Control (QC) Circle movement motivated its participants in many ways. Which of the following represents the most important motivation for the QC circle participants? A. strengthening of relationships between co-workers B. recognition among co-workers C. self-improvement D. improving the performance of the company E. financial incentives |
D
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220
The methods and techniques for determining the economic costs, the environmental impact, the economic returns, and the probability for success are called: A. Bills of materials. B. Pert charts. C. Managerial reserves. D. None of the other alternatives apply E. Feasibility studies. |
E
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221
Which of the following statements is true regarding schedule variances? A. Schedule variances never impact the schedule. B. Schedule variances sometimes impact the schedule. C. Schedule variances impact scope, which impacts the schedule. D. Schedule variances always impact the schedule. |
B
Schedule variances will sometimes-but not always-impact the schedule. Changes to non-critical path tasks will not likely impact the schedule, but changes to critical path tasks will always impact the schedule. |
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222
Which is not an example of formal communication? A. Contract B. email C. Project status report D. Status meeting |
B
Communication via email is not considered a formal communication. |
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223
You know that PV = 470, AC = 430, EV = 480, EAC = 500, and BAC = 525. What is VAC? A. 25 B. 30 C. 20 D. 70 |
A
VAC is calculated this way: VAC = BAC - EAC. Therefore, 525 - 500 = 25. |
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224
In general, attempts to smooth out period to period resources will _____ the scheduled time and _____ project costs. A. Increase, increase B. Decrease, decrease. C. Increase, decrease. D. Increase, increase or decrease. E. Decrease, increase. |
A
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225
Bar charts are most appropriate for: A. Showing slack time. B. Comparing actual to planned performance to each activity. C. All of the other alternatives apply. D. Showing critical path dependencies. E. Showing which activities can be rearranged in parallel. |
B
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226
All of the following may hinder a person's ability to transmit/receive a message except: A. Preoccupation B. Assuming C. Unfamiliarity with topic D. Noise E. Withholding information |
C
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227
The Communications Management Plan should contain the following: A. Selection of appropriate media to meet specific needs B. Communications policy C. All of the other alternatives apply D. Communications media E. Reporting channels |
C
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228
A project manager believes that the best way to manage is to form a good, harmonious working relationship with the team, and high performance will follow. The project manager could be defined as a _____ manager. A. 1,9 B. 9,1 C. 1,1 D. 9,9 E. 5,5 |
A
Section: (none) Explanation/Reference: Four types of project leader that are considered best suited to different project circumstances are, imaginative Explorer (9,9), assertive Driver (9,1), catalyst Coordinator (5,5) and Professional Administrator (1,9) are placed in four quadrants of Focus (X) and Approach (Y) axis of General Personality Characteristics Grid. These values of (9,9), (9,1), (1,9) and (5,5) are Blake-Mouton Grid descriptions. (Refer to http://www.maxwideman.com/papers/profiles/general.htm) (1,9) represents Administrator who believes in forming a good, harmonious working relationship with the team. Administrator recognizes the need for stability, typically in order to optimize productivity through maximizing repetition to the extent possible on a project and to get the work finished. Often, requisite information must be assembled and carefully analyzed, with thought given to the trade-offs and how conflicts and problems can be resolved and disposed of in advance. Work must be carefully scheduled and procedurized if potential gains are to be realized and "all the pieces are to be carefully put in place".So, Answer A (1,9) the Administrator manager. |
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229
Which involves estimating the cost of individual work items: A. Analogous estimating B. Bottom up estimating C. Computerized D. Square foot |
B
Bottom-up estimating: Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total , more accurate |
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230
You are a project manager for the Swirling Seas Cruises food division. You're considering two different projects regarding food services on the cruise lines. The initial cost of Project Fish'n for Chips will be $800,000, with expected cash inflows of $300,000 per quarter. Project Picnic's payback period is six months. Which project should you recommend? A. ProjectFish'n for Chips, because the costs on Project Picnic are unknown. B. Project Picnic, because ProjectFish'n for Chips' payback period is two months longer than Project Picnic's. C. Project Picnic, because ProjectFish'n for Chips' payback period is four months longer than Project Picnic's. D. ProjectFish'n for Chips, because its payback period is two months shorter than Project Picnic's. |
B
The payback period for Project Fish'n for Chips is eight months. This project will receive $300,000 every three months, or $100,000 per month. The $800,000 will be paid back in eight months. |
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231
A(n) _____ system is designed to ensure the timely availability of nonhuman resources, and includes the cost in procurement, shipping/freight, storage and loss. A. Procurement. B. All of the other alternatives apply. C. Inventory control. D. Materials management. E. Inventory control and Procurement. |
D
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232
Mathematical models using linear programming, dynamic, or algorithm models are considered: A. form of expert judgment B. project closing method C. Project selection criteria D. Project selection methods |
D
< li >Mathematical models are one of the methods described in the project selection methods tool and technique. < li >These types of models are in use only in certain types of projects and are not going to be used for simpler projects. |
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233
The purpose of configuration management is to: A. control change during the production only B. control change throughout the project C. inform the project manager of changes D. generate engineering change proposals E. insure drawings are updated |
B
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234
The project charter is developed by: A. the customer B. senior management and the project manager C. senior management D. None of the other alternatives apply . E. the project manager |
B
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235
Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can be used to: A. See what mistakes others have made B. All of the other alternatives apply C. See how others have solved problems D. Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives E. Both 1) See what mistakes others have made, and 2) See how others have solved problems |
B
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236
You are a contract project manager for a wholesale flower distribution company. Your project is to develop a website for the company that allows retailers to place their flower orders online. You will also provide a separate link for individual purchases that are ordered, packaged, and mailed to the consumer directly from the grower's site. This project involves coordinating the parent company, growers, and distributors. You are preparing a performance review and have the following measurements at hand: PV = 300, AC = 200, and EV = 250. What is the CPI of this project? A. 0.83 B. 0.80 C. 1.25 D. 1.5 |
C
CPI is calculated as follows: EV \u00F7 AC. In this case, 250 \u00F7 200 = 1.25. |
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237
A work breakdown structure is most useful for: A. determining potential delays B. developing a cost estimate C. scheduling the start of tasks D. identifying individual tasks for a project E. A and C |
E
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238
You are the project manager for a top-secret software project for an agency of the United States government. Your mission-should you choose to accept it-is to complete the project using internal resources. The reason is that finding contractors with top-secret clearances takes quite a bit of time, and waiting for clearances would jeopardize the implementation date. Your programmers are 80 percent of the way through the programming and testing work when your agency appoints a new executive director. Slowly but surely your programmers are taken off this project and reassigned to the executive director's hot new project. Which of the following type of project ending is this? A. Extinction B. Starvation C. Addition D. Integration |
D
Integration occurs when resources, equipment, or property are reassigned or redeployed back to the organization or to another project. |
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239
Define Activities is typically performed by which of the following: A. Project Manager who created the WBS B. Management C. Project Team Members responsible for the work package D. Project Stakeholder |
C
Define Activities is typically performed by Project Team Members. identify the activities that need to be done to complete the project. |
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240
Which of the following is closest to Juran's definition of Quality: A. conformance to requirements. B. fitness for use. C. customer focus. D. continuous improvement. E. All of the other alternatives apply. |
B
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241
Which of the following MUST NOT performed in project initiation process? A. identify the requirements. B. identify business need. C. create project scope statement. D. create project charter. |
C
project scope statement created during project planning phase. |
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242
You are a project manager for a software manufacturing firm. The project you've just finished created a new software product that is expected to become a number-one seller. All prerelease of software is handled through the marketing department. A friend of yours is a certified software instructor. They have asked you for a copy of the software prior to the beta release so they can get familiar with it. What is the most appropriate response? A. Since your friend is certified to teach your company's brand of software, provide them with a copy of the software. B. Decline the request since you stand to gain from this transaction by receiving free training. C. Ask them to sign a nondisclosure agreement before releasing a copy of the software. D. Decline the request because the software is the intellectual property of the company. |
D
The most appropriate response is to deny the request. Software is considered intellectual property and should not be used for personal gain or given to others without prior consent from the organization. This question states that the release of the beta software is handled through the marketing department, so you should not give your friend a copy of the software outside of this process. |
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243
Resource leveling will often affect the project by making it: A. Shorter. B. More responsive to customer needs. C. Longer and more responsive to customer needs. D. Shorter and more responsive to customer needs E. Longer |
E
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244
Going from Level 2 to Level 4 in the work breakdown structure will result in A. None of the other alternatives apply B. A greater likelihood that something will fall through the cracks C. Less estimating accuracy D. Lower status reporting costs E. Better control of the project |
A
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245
The role of the _____ can be invaluable in problem solving. A. dominator B. devils advocate C. recognition seeker or dominator D. topic jumper E. recognition seeker |
B
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246
Which of the following must not performed in the project initiation process? A. Evaluate historical information B. List down business need C. List down stakeholders D. Create scope statement |
D
Scope statement generally created in planning phase. All others are done in initiation phase. |
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247
You have assembled your thoughts into a message. As you pass this information to a second party, you are giving this person your: A. Input and Data B. Feedback C. Data D. Output E. Input |
D
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248
The quality management plan documents how the project team will implement the quality policy. It must address all of the following except which one? A. Continuous process improvement B. Quality assurance C. Quality control D. Quality checklists |
D
Quality checklists are an output of the Quality Planning process. |
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249
Which quality management tool would be used to determine potential causes of a production problem? A. run chart. B. scatter diagram. C. histogram. D. control chart. E. Ishikawa diagram. |
E
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250
A project may be defined as _____ A. an integrated approach to managing projects B. a coordinated undertaking of interrelated activities. C. a group of activities directed by a project manger over a life cycle D. All of the other alternatives apply. E. an undertaking with a defined starting point and defined objectives |
E
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251
You are a project manager for Dutch Harbor Consulting. Your latest project involves the upgrade of an organization's operating system on 236 servers. You performed this project under contract. You are in the Closing process and know that product verification is for what purpose? A. To verify that all the work was completed correctly and satisfactorily B. To evaluate project goals and ensure that the product of the project meets the requirements C. To verify the goals of the project and ensure that the product of the project is complete D. To evaluate all the work of the project and compare the results to project scope |
A
Product verification is performed by the buyer and examines all the work of the project and verifies that the work was completed correctly and satisfactorily. |
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252
Which of the following is not a cost of non-conformance? A. maintenance and calibration B. warranty repairs C. All of the other alternatives apply. D. scrap E. rework |
A
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253
In which of the following types of contracts is it most important for the contractor to maintain control of cost, schedule and scope changes. A. cost plus incentive fee B. Cost plus incentive fee and firm fixed price C. firm fixed price D. cost plus fixed fee E. unit price |
C
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254
You are working with XYZ organization. Your senior manager imposed new delivery date which is earlier than mentioned project deliverables date in scope statement. To whom you are most accountable? A. customer B. team member C. sponsor D. senior manager |
A
The project manager must accountable to customer first. |
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255
The LEAST effective form of communication for complex situations is: A. formal B. verbal - face to face and formal C. informal D. written E. verbal - face to face |
B
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256
If you know expected value is 500 and the standard deviation is 12, you can say with approximately a 95 percent confidence rating which of the following? A. The activity will take from 464 to 536 days. B. The activity will take from 494 to 506 days. C. The activity will take from 476 to 524 days. D. The activity will take from 488 to 512 days. |
C
There is a 95 percent probability that the work will finish within plus or minus two standard deviations. The expected value is 500, and the standard deviation times 2 is 24, so the activity will take from 476 to 524 days. |
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257
You are working on a project that was proceeding well until a manufacturing glitch occurred that requires corrective action. It turns out the glitch was an unintentional enhancement to the product, and the marketing people are absolutely crazy about its potential. The corrective action is canceled, and you continue to produce the product with the newly discovered enhancement. As the project manager, you know that a change has occurred to the project scope. Which of the following statements is true? A. Performance measurement baselines might be affected by scope changes. B. Project scope change uses workarounds to correct unexpected problems with scope change. C. Project scope change uses inspection to determine whether change has occurred. D. Project scope changes do not require CCB approval. |
A
A project scope change affects the performance measurement baselines, which might include schedule baselines and cost baselines. |
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258
You are managing an internal project where a vice president from the user group is acting as the sponsor. You have just been informed by your team that the critical path has slipped by three weeks. You should: A. See the sponsor after you have evaluated alternatives, recommendations, and performed an impact analysis B. Inform your senior management of the problem and tell them that you will get back to them after you assessed the situation C. Look for someone to blame before you see the sponsor D. Do nothing until the slippage occurs E. Immediately inform the sponsor and ask for advice |
A
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259
Parametric estimates are based on variables such as: A. Project objectives and manpower allocations. B. Physical characteristics and historical data. C. Precise measurements and multiple inputs. D. The WBS and similar projects. E. Detailed planning and cost restraints. |
B
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260
All of the following are true regarding Communications Planning except for which one? A. Communications requirements analysis, communications technology, and PMIS are tools and techniques of this process. B. It's the only output of the Communications Planning process. C. It's tightly linked with enterprise environmental factors and organizational influences, and lessons learned and historical information are two inputs that should get a lot of attention during this process. D. It should be completed as early in the project phases as possible. |
A
Communications requirements analysis and communications technology are the tools and techniques of the Communications Planning process. |
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261
The Delphi Method is well-suited for: A. Decision-making B. All of the other alternatives apply C. Decision-making and Forecasting D. Forecasting E. Overhead rate estimating |
C
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262
A non-critical path activity is completed in half the time. Then, A. All of the other alternatives apply. B. The slack in the path containing this activity will increase. C. The total cost for this activity has decreased. D. The critical path is also reduced. E. Manpower from this activity can be assigned to other activities. |
B
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263
Advantages of the functional (hierarchical) form of organization include _____ and creation of technical competence. A. B. Single voice to customers C. High information processing capability D. Ease of horizontal coordination E. Clearly defined authority |
E
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264
During your project meeting, a problem was discussed, and a resolution to the problem was reached. During the meeting, the participants started wondering why they thought the problem was such a big issue. Sometime after the meeting, you received an email from one of the meeting participants saying they've changed their mind about the solution reached in the meeting and need to resurface the problem. The solution reached during the initial project meeting is a result of which of the following conflict resolution techniques? A. Forcing B. Confrontation C. Storming D. Smoothing |
D
The smoothing technique does not usually result in a permanent solution. The problem is downplayed to make it seem less important than it is, which makes the problem tend to resurface later. |
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265
Which of the following would most likely increase the accuracy of estimating the project cost? A. Using historical data. B. Pricing out the work at lower levels in the work breakdown structure. C. Both 1) Pricing out the work at lower levels in the work breakdown structure, and 2) Talking to people who have worked on similar projects. D. Talking to people who have worked on similar projects. E. 1) Pricing out the work at lower levels in the work breakdown structure, and 2) Talking to people who have worked on similar projects, and 3) Using historical data. |
E
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266
You are a project manager of Software Product Company. After hired a person you got to know that many of this person's ideas were developed by the competing company. Are you going to implement the same ideas? A. Accept the new ideas. B. Ask to sign NDA. C. Ignore the ideas because it may be violation of code of conduct. D. Tell the person that he should not mention that the ideas came from another company. |
A
Unless the employee signed the NDA with his or her previous organization, there is no obligation for him or her not to share knowledge that was gained while working for the competitor. |
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267
Risk Event Status is defined as _____ . A. Both 1) the severity of the consequences, and 2)how likely the event is to occur with risk. B. (Cost + Benefit + Business Risk) / Insurable Risk. C. how likely the event is to occur with risk. D. Risk Probability x Amount At Stake. E. the severity of the consequences. |
D
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268
Which statement is TRUE about Present Value(PV)? A. The difference in benefit received between a chosen project and a project that was not chosen B. The interest rate that makes the net present value of all cash flow equal zero C. The value today of future cash flow D. The present value of cash inflow less the present value of cash outflow |
C
Present Value(PV): The value today of future cash flow. The higher the PV, the better. |
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269
All of the following are tools and techniques of the Performance Reporting process except which one? A. Performance measurements B. Information presentation tools C. Time reporting systems D. Cost reporting systems |
A
The tools and techniques of the Performance Reporting process are information presentation tools, performance information gathering and compilation, status review meetings, time reporting systems, and cost reporting systems. |
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270
Most project (and non-project) managers prefer _____ communications. A. Lateral B. Oral C. Downward D. Written E. Upward |
B
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271
Employee unions would most likely satisfy which level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs? A. Empowerment B. Self-actualization C. Belonging D. Esteem E. Safety |
C
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272
A project manager believes that modifying the scope of the project may provide added value for the customer. The project manager should: A. Change the project's objectives B. Call a meeting of the configuration control board C. Postpone the modification until a separate enhancement project is funded after this project is completed according to the original baseline D. Change the scope baseline E. Prepare a variance report |
C
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273
What are the Scope Definition process tools and techniques? A. Product analysis, alternatives identification, expert judgment, and stakeholder analysis B. Alternatives identification, stakeholder analysis, and expert judgment C. Product analysis, cost benefit analysis, alternatives identification, and expert judgment D. Cost benefit analysis, templates, and expert judgment |
A
The tools and techniques of the Scope Definition process include product analysis, alternatives identification, expert judgment, and stakeholder analysis. |
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274
All of the following statements about acceptance sampling are true except: A. Acceptance sampling plans do not directly control the quality of a series of lots; they instead specify the risk of accepting lots of given quality. B. Acceptance sampling plans are never effective at rejecting nonconforming units as 100 percent inspection, even when the inspection process is very tedious. C. Acceptance sampling plans are not very effective for inspecting small lots of custom-made products. D. Acceptance sampling plans are beneficial when the cost of inspection is high and the resulting loss of passing nonconforming units is not great. E. Acceptance sampling plans are necessary when destructive inspections are required. |
B
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275
Who is responsible for issuing the project charter? A. The project sponsor B. The senior Project Manager C. The project team D. The project manager |
A
The project sponsor creates and issues the project charter. |
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276
The use of quality circles: A. provides a quick fix for most quality problems. B. is particularly effective in overcoming labor/management conflicts. C. 1) Has proven ineffective in bothJapan and the U.S. and 2) is particularly effective in overcoming labor/management conflicts. D. has proven ineffective in bothJapan and the U.S. E. allows workers the opportunity to generate solutions for chronic quality problems. |
E
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277
You are a project manager working on gathering requirements and establishing estimates for the project. Which process group are you in? A. Monitoring and Controlling B. Initiating C. Executing D. Planning |
D
The Planning process is where requirements are fleshed out, stakeholders are identified, and estimates on project costs and time are made. |
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278
You have been assigned to a project that will allow job seekers to fill out applications and submit them via the company website. You report to the VP of human resources. You are also responsible for screening applications for the information technology division and setting up interviews. The project coordinator has asked for the latest version of your changes to the online application page for his review. Which organizational structure do you work in? A. Functional organization B. Balanced matrix organization C. Weak matrix organization D. Projectized organization |
C
Functional managers who have lots of authority and power working with project coordinators who have minimal authority and power characterizes a weak matrix organization. Project managers in weak matrix organizations are sometimes called project coordinators, project leaders, or project expeditors. |
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279
Planning activities such that predetermined resource availability pools are not exceeded is called: A. Manpower planning. B. Manpower leveling. C. Resource leveling. D. Manpower contingency planning. E. Resource limited planning. |
E
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280
As project manager, you wish to impose a standard method by which subordinates calculate project costs. Which level of communication should be required for this effort? A. All of the other alternatives apply. B. Face-to-face C. Written D. Non-verbal E. Telephone |
C
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281
A line manager who is asked to wear two hats and function as a project manager at the same time is likely to exercise: A. All of the other alternatives apply] B. Influence C. Power D. Authority and Power E. Authority |
A
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282
By which process may an unsuccessful supplier seek remedy for unjust awards? A. None of the other alternatives apply . B. Contract dispute C. Bid protest D. Coffective action E. Stop work order |
C
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283
The project charter: A. Establishes that organizational structure with the project. B. Expresses upper management commitment to the project. C. Provides that authority by which the project will be run. D. Specifies overall objectives and timeframe of the project. E. All of the other alternatives apply. |
E
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284
If you are the project manager for a new project. You have collected the necessary input information and delivered the project charter to the stakeholders. What should you do next? A. Develop the preliminary project scope statement. B. Get the project charter signed. C. Start to create project plan D. Start the initial project planning process. |
B
After delivered the project charter to the stakeholders, First thing you have to do get the project charter signed.. Project charter is the only authorized document to start project. |
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285
You are a project manager working on a software development project. You've developed the risk management plan, identified risks, and determined risk responses for the risks. One of the risks you identified occurs, and you implement the response for that risk. Then, another risk occurs as a result of the response you implemented. What type of risk is this called? A. Residual risk B. Mitigated risk C. Secondary risk D. Trigger risk |
C
Secondary risks occur as a result of the implementation of a response to another risk. |
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286
A project manager is assigned to a project which phase of the project? A. Closing B. Initiation C. Estimation D. Planning |
B
In the Initiation phase, the sponsor releases resources to get the project done, and the project manager is chosen. |
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287
Which describes how cost variances will be managed? A. Cost management plan B. Cost baseline C. Cost estimate D. Chart of accounts |
A
Cost management plan describes how cost variances will be managed. |
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288
History has shown that project managers can be trained in a combination of ways. Which method is usually preferred by most companies? A. None of the other alternatives apply B. Formal education and special course (degreed programs) C. Experiential learning, on-the-job D. Professional activities, seminars E. Individual readings |
C
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289
Who is responsible for decide project management process for a particular project? A. Sponsor B. Project Manager C. Stakeholders D. Senior management |
B
Project Manager is responsible for decide project management process for a particular project. |
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290
The most common form of written project communication is A. Bulletin boards B. All of the other alternatives apply C. Publications D. Letters and memos E. Reports |
D
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291
Which performance measurement tells you what the projected total cost of the project will be at completion? A. ETC B. CPI C. EAC D. SPI |
C
Estimate at completion (EAC) estimates the total cost of the project at completion based on the performance of the project to date. |
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292
Your project team consists of 12 people in the same building you're located in, 4 people from the West Coast office, 2 people from the Kansas City office, and 6 people from the London office. Your office works different hours than all the other offices. Additionally, not all of the resources in your building are available at the same times during the day. Three of the 12 team members work swing shift hours. You use tools like web conferencing and email to distribute information to the team. Which of the following is true? A. This question describes resource availability from the Develop Project Team process and information distribution methods from the Information Distribution process. B. This question describes the staffing management plan from the Acquire Project Team process and communication skills from the Information Distribution process. C. This question describes project staff assignments from the Develop Project Team process and communication skills from the Information Distribution process. D. This question describes virtual teams from the Acquire Project Team process and information distribution methods from the Information Distribution process. |
D
Virtual teams are teams that don't necessarily work in the same location or have the same hours but all share the goals of the project and have a role on the project. The web conferencing and email references describe the information distribution methods tool and technique of the Information Distribution process. |
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293
You are a project manager for a documentary film company. In light of a recent regional tragedy, the company president wants to get a new documentary on the rescue efforts of the heroic rescue teams to air as soon as possible. She's looking to you to make this documentary the best that has ever been produced in the history of this company. She guarantees you free rein to use whatever resources you need to get this project done quickly. However, the best photographer in the company is currently working on another assignment. Which of the following is true? A. The primary constraint is time because the president wants the film done quickly. She told you to get it to air as soon as possible. B. The primary constraint is quality because the president wants this to be the best film ever produced by this company. She's given you free rein to use whatever resources needed to get the job done. C. The schedule is the primary constraint. Even though the president has given you free rein on resource use, you assume she didn't mean those actively assigned to projects. The photographer won't be finished for another three weeks on his current assignment, so schedule adjustments will have to be made. D. Resources are the primary constraint. Even though the president has given you free rein on resource use, you assume she didn't mean those actively assigned to projects. |
B
The primary constraint is quality. If you made the assumption as stated in "Resources are the primary constraint. Even though the president has given you free rein on resource use, you assume she didn't mean those actively assigned to projects.", you assumed incorrectly. Clarify these assumptions with your stakeholders and project sponsors. This applies to "The schedule is the primary constraint. Even though the president has given you free rein on resource use, you assume she didn't mean those actively assigned to projects. The photographer won't be finished for another three weeks on his current assignment, so schedule adjustments will have to be made." as well. |
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294
Which may be employed to shorten a schedule without changing the scope of the task? A. Alter to task priorities. B. Releasing resources earlier from tasks which were scheduled with a late start. C. Fast tracking or Crashing D. Fast tracking. E. Crashing |
D
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295
Surveys have shown that the primary skill needed to be a project manager is communication skill. The typical project manager spends approximately ______percent of his or her time communicating. A. 40-50 B. 50-60 C. 90-95 D. 75-90 E. 60-75 |
D
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296
A computer tape which contains historical project information is called ____ tape. A. Database B. Archive. C. Lessons learned. D. Baseline. E. Life cycle summary. |
B
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297
Power games, withholding information, and hidden agendas are examples of-. A. mixed messages B. indirect communication C. noise D. communication barriers E. All of the other alternatives apply |
D
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298
Your team is split between two buildings on either side of town. As a result, the team isn't very cohesive because the members don't know each other very well. The team is still in the storming stage because of the separation issues. Which of the following should you consider? A. Training B. Co-location C. Corrective action D. Conflict resolution |
B
Co-location would bring your team members together in the same location and allow them to function more efficiently as a team. At a minimum, team members meeting in a common room, such as a war room, for all team meetings would bring the team closer together. |
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299
Risk event is the description of what may happen to the _____ of the project. A. Budget B. harm C. Schedule D. Manager |
B
Risk event is the description of what may happen to the harm of the project. |
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300
Which of the following is NOT part of stakeholder's management? A. Identify stakeholder's need B. make sure all the stakeholders are in project plan C. Identify stakeholders D. make sure all the stakeholders are in communication plan |
B
Stakeholders are NOT in project plan. Topic 2, Volume B |
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301
On what is project baseline development established? A. Approved product requirements B. Estimated project cost and schedule C. Actual project cost and schedule D. Revised project cost and schedule |
B
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302
Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following? A. Work breakdown structure B. Organizational breakdown structure C. Resource breakdown structure D. Bill of materials |
A
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303
What is the definition of project plan execution? A. Integrating all planned activities. B. Performing the activities included in the plan. C. Developing and maintaining the plan. D. Execution of deliverables. |
B
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304
What is a tool to improve team performance? A. Staffing plan B. External feedback C. Performance reports D. Co-Location |
D
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305
Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan? A. Product B. Cost benefit C. Stakeholder D. Research |
C
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306
Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner. What is an output from information distribution? A. Earned value analysis B. Trend analysis C. Project records D. Performance reviews |
C
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307
Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating? A. Control chart B. Earned value C. Variance D. Trend |
D
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308
You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is effective and current? A. Perform periodic project performance reviews. B. Identify quality project standards. C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards D. Complete the quality control checklist. |
A
The document control plan is an outline or guide on how physical or virtual documents will be managed throughout the life of the project. It provides a road map for tracking documents and for adding, archiving, and removing new documentation from the process. |
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309
Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom? A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones B. Force of nature, such as a flood C. Risk threshold target D. Crashing front loading or fast tracking |
A
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310
During what process is the quality policy determined? A. Initiating B. Executing C. Planning D. Controlling |
C
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311
What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing? A. Responsibility assignment matrix B. Work breakdown structure update C. Project network diagram D. Mandatory dependencies list |
C
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312
Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following? A. Acceptance of the work deliverables. B. Accuracy of the work deliverables. C. Approval of the scope statement. D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure. |
A
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313
Which of the following is an example of contract administration? A. Negotiating the contract B. Authorizing contractor work C. Developing the statement of work D. Establishing evaluation criteria |
B
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314
Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented? A. Customers B. Project sponsors C. Project management team D. Insurance claims department |
C
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315
A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete, and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance? A. -$700 B. -$200 C. +$200 D. +$500 |
B
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316
How is quality control performed? A. By identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them. B. By monitoring specific project results in compliance with relevant quality standards and determining corrective actions as needed. C. By ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes. D. By applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards. |
B
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317
As part of a mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a forecast of total project cost. You should calculate the forecast using which of the following methods? A. BAC B. EAC C. ETC D. WBS |
B
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318
How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value technique? A. EV less AC B. AC less PV C. EV less PV D. AC less EV |
C
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319
The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide should: A. Always be applied uniformly B. Be selected as appropriate by the sponsor C. Be selected as appropriate by the project team D. Be applied based on ISO guidelines. |
C
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320
Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will be performing them? A. Project sponsor and project manager B. Project sponsor and functional manager C. Project manager and project team D. Project team and functional manager |
C
The project management processes are presented as discrete elements with well- defined interfaces. However, in practice they overlap and interact in ways that are not completely detailed here. Most experienced project management practitioners recognize there is more than one way to manage a project. The specifics for a project are defined as objectives that must be accomplished based on complexity, risk, size, time frame, project team\u2019s experience, access to resources, amount of historical information, the organization\u2019s project management maturity, and industry and application area. The required Process Groups and their constituent processes are guides to apply appropriate project management knowledge and skills during the project. In addition, the application of the project management processes to a project is iterative and many processes are repeated and revised during the project. The project manager and the project team are responsible for determining what processes from the Process Groups will be employed, by whom, and the degree of rigor that will be applied to the execution of those processes to achieve the desired project objective. |
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321
Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all processes needed to meet its requirements? A. Perform Quality Control B. Quality Policy C. Perform Quality Assurance D. Quality Planning |
C
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322
Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group? A. Cost Control B. Quality Planning C. Quantitative Risk Analysis D. Cost Budgeting |
A
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323
The Define Scope process is in which of the following process groups? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Monitoring & Controlling D. Executing |
B
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324
Which activity is an input to the select sellers process? A. Organizational process assets B. Resource availability C. Change control process D. Team performance assessment |
A
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325
What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle? A. Pareto B. Ishikawa C. Shewart-Deming D. Delphi |
C
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326
Which of the following methods is a project selection technique? A. Flowcharting B. Earned value C. Cost-benefit analysis D. Pareto analysis |
C
Selection MethodsThere are various project selection methods practiced by the modern business organizations. These methods have different features and characteristics. Therefore, each selection method is best for different organizations. Although there are many differences between these project selection methods, usually the underlying concepts and principles are the same. Following is an illustration of two of such methods (Benefit Measurement and Constrained Optimization methods). As the value of one project would need to be compared against the other projects, you could use the benefit measurement methods. This could include various techniques, of which the following are the most common. \u2022 You and your team could come up with certain criteria that you want your ideal project objectives to meet. You could then give each project scores based on how they rate in each of these criteria, and then choose the project with the highest score. \u2022 When it comes to the Discounted Cash flow method, the future value of a project is ascertained by considering the present value and the interest earned on the money. The higher the present value of the project, the better it would be for your organization. \u2022 The rate of return received from the money is what is known as the IRR. Here again, you need to be looking for a high rate of return from the project. The mathematical approach is commonly used for larger projects. The constrained optimization methods require several calculations in order to decide on whether or not a project should be rejected. Cost-benefit analysis is used by several organizations to assist them to make their selections. Going by this method, you would have to consider all the positive aspects of the project, which is the benefits, and then deduct the negative aspects (or the costs) from the benefits. Based on the results you receive for different projects, you could choose which option would be the most viable and financially rewarding. These benefits and costs need to be carefully considered and quantified in order to arrive at a proper conclusion. Questions that you may want to consider asking are in the selection process are: 1. Would this decision help me to increase organizational value in the long run? 2. How long will the equipment last for? 3. Would I be able to cut down on costs as I go along? In addition to these methods, you could also consider Choosing based on opportunity cost - When choosing any project, you would need to keep in mind the profits that you would make if you do decide to go ahead with the project. Profit optimization is therefore the ultimate goal. You need to consider the difference between the profits of the project you are primarily interested in, and the next best alternative. |
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327
While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation? A. Utilize the change control process. B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect. C. Leave the defect in and work around it. D. Fast-track the remaining development. |
A
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328
Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan? A. Expert Judgment B. Project Management Methodology C. Project Management Information D. Project Selection Methods |
A
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329
Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process? A. Requested changes, forecasts, recommended corrective actions B. Forecasts, resources plan, bottom up estimating C. Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts D. Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints |
A
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330
Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project initiation through project closure? A. Resource leveling B. Parametric measuring C. Pareto chart D. Earned value |
D
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331
An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is: A. Organizational Structure B. Organizational Process Assets C. Organizational Matrix D. Organizational Breakdown Structures |
B
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332
The product scope description is used to: A. Gain stakeholders' support for the project. B. Document the characteristics of the product. C. Describe the project in great detail. D. Formally authorize the project. |
B
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333
What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS? A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources |
D
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334
Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope? A. Cost-Benefit Analysis B. Variance Analysis C. Reserve Analysis D. Stakeholder Analysis |
B
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335
Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization? A. WBS B. CPI C. OBS D. BOM |
C
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336
Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation? A. Project Quality Plan B. Project Schedule Network C. Project Management Software D. Project Scope Management Plan |
D
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337
Which of the following are inputs to Activity Definition? A. Project Scope Statement and Work Breakdown Structure B. Activity list and Arrow Diagram C. Change Requests Lists and Organizational Process Assets D. Project Management Plan and Resource Availability |
A
Activity definition refers to the process of parsing a project into a number of individual tasks which must be completed before the deliverables can be considered completed. Activity definitions rely on a number of specific input processes. These include enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets, the project scope statement, the work breakdown structure, the WBS dictionary, the project management plan (which consists of the project scope management plan and the schedule management plan). Through use of these inputs, the activities that will need to ultimately be completed in order to compete all of the project objectives can be readily defined, and the activity definition can be further accomplished through the utilization of a number of tools and techniques including decomposition, templates, rolling wave planning, expert judgment, and planning components. The four ultimate outputs of the activity definition process are the activity list, the resulting activity attributes, all requested changes, and any milestones. This term is defined in the 3rd edition of the PMBOK but not in the 4th. |
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338
Activity resource requirements and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what Project Time Management process? A. Schedule Control B. Activity Definition C. Schedule Development D. Activity Resource Estimating |
D
Activity Resource Estimate Assumptions and Breakdown StructuresIn the Estimate Activity Resources process, the key output is activity resource requirements. These requirements describe the types and quantities of resources needed for each project activity.Once you know what resources you need, you can begin to estimate the time each activity will take to complete. In this way, the activity resource requirements list generated by the Estimate Activity Resources process become inputs for the Estimate Activity Durations process. Activity resource requirements listThe activity resource requirements list identifies, for tracking purposes, the activity's code in the work breakdown structure, as well as its name. Vital to generating the project schedule, it details the resources that you've estimated you need to complete the activity, and addresses. Resource description \u2013 The Resource description column lists each type of resource that is required for the activity. This includes human resources, materials, and facilities. Number required \u2013 The Number required column identifies the quantity required of each resource. This value can be specified in any measurement unit, such as hours, days, or physical number of units required. Resource assumptions \u2013 Resource assumptions are important factors to consider when devising the project schedule. Any relevant assumptions about the resource can be included, for example resource availability, skills, or quality. Resource availability \u2013 The Resource availability column specifies when each resource can be used. This is vital information for putting together the project schedule. Resource dependencies \u2013 The Resource dependencies column identifies factors that may affect the availability of resources. It's important to identify dependencies when devising the project schedule because any change in an activity that has a dependency can affect the project timeline.The final row of the activity resource requirements list identifies the total resources needed for the activity. The resource totals are important in project scheduling as a base from which to calculate the duration of the activity. Resource Assumptions - It's important to record resource assumptions, as they can help during different stages of a project. Select each project stage to find out how resource assumptions can help. Monitoring \u2013 Recorded assumptions can affect performance monitoring. For example, if a particular task seems to be taking too long, looking at the assumptions can help you identify the problem. Controlling \u2013 Recorded assumptions can also help you control performance. Having used the assumptions to identify a problem, you can now make performance adjustments so that the project can run more efficiently. Closing \u2013 Recorded assumptions can provide insights during post-project assessments at the closing stage. For example, if you had made incorrect assumptions about staff capabilities, looking at the assumptions helps you understand what went wrong. This can then be recorded in the lessons learned file for the project.Failure to record assumptions can also have an impact during the Monitor and Control Project Work process. Resource breakdown structuresAlong with the activity resource requirements list, there's one more main output of the Estimate Activity Resources process \u2013 the resource breakdown structure.The resource breakdown structure provides a hierarchical diagram of the resources required for a project. This structure is visually simple, showing resource information at a glance breaks resources into categories and resource types helps you to organize a project schedule and report on resource utilization information. Although they look similar, a resource breakdown structure is not the same as a work breakdown structure. A work breakdown structure, or WBS, decomposes a project into manageable units of work. Elements in a WBS include project phases, tasks, sub-tasks, and work packages. These represent all the activities in a project. Project document updatesThe Estimate Activity Resources process concludes with project document updates \u2013 the final output of the process. Initially, various project documents are used as inputs for the process. Now that resource estimation is complete, new information may have come to light. For this reason, you may need to update documents so they reflect the latest project information. In the process of estimating resource requirements and creating the resource breakdown structure, it's often necessary to add or delete schedule activities that appear in the activity list.The activity changes have a subsequent effect on activity attributes and resource calendars. Because project activities have changed, you need to document those changes by updating the descriptions of activities and the availability of relevant resources. The first output of the Estimate Activity Resources process is an activity resource requirements list. It's important to record any assumptions you've made about resources in this list, for use in monitoring and controlling project work, and in post-project assessments. A second output of the process is the resource breakdown structure. This is a hierarchical diagram that shows the resources required for the project in a visually simple way. It groups resources by category, and can be used for organizing and reporting on resources. The final output of the process is updates to relevant project documents, such as the activity list, activity attributes, and resource calendars. |
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339
Project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to what Project Time Management process? A. Activity Sequencing B. Activity Resource Estimating C. Schedule Development D. Schedule Control |
C
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340
Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration? A. Critical path B. Rolling Wave C. PDM D. Parametric |
D
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341
Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes? A. Analogous Estimating B. Expert Judgment C. Optimistic Estimates D. Reserve Analysis |
D
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342
Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical? A. Applying calendars B. Resource Leveling C. Resource Planning D. Resource Conflict Management |
B
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343
Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the communication of SV, SPI or any performance status to stakeholders? A. Performance organizations B. Schedule baselines C. Performance measurements D. Change requests |
C
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344
Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process? A. Performance Measure B. Baseline Schedule C. Schedule Comparison D. Variance Analysis |
D
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345
Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes? A. Cost Control B. Cost Budgeting C. Cost Estimating D. Cost Planning |
B
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346
Analogous Cost Estimating relies on which of the following techniques? A. Expert Judgment B. Project Management Software C. Vendor Bid Analysis D. Reserve Analysis |
A
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347
The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000 Plan cost = $45,000 Earned value = $40,000 What is the cost performance index? A. 0.80 B. 0.89 C. 1.13 D. 1.25 |
A
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348
The PV is $1000, EV is $2000 and AC is $1500. What is CPI? A. 1.33 B. 2.00 C. 0.75 D. 0.5 |
A
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349
At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV? A. Positive B. Zero C. Negative D. Greater than one |
B
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350
Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI? A. EV B. SPI C. PV D. ETC |
A
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351
Based on the following metrics: EV=$20,000, AC=$22,000 and PV=$28,000, what is the project CV? A. -$8,000 B. -$2,000 C. $2,000 D. $8,000 |
B
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352
What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate? A. Cost right at the estimated value B. Cost under the estimated value C. Cost right at the actual value D. Cost over the estimated value |
B
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353
Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity? A. Schedule Analysis B. Checklist Analysis C. Assumption Analysis D. Cost-Benefit Analysis |
D
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354
Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is: A. Cause and effect diagram B. Control Chart C. Flowchart D. Histogram |
A
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355
Which type of control tool identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance? A. Cause and effect diagram B. Control Charts C. Pareto Chart D. Histogram |
B
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356
Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 Principle? A. Ishikawa diagram B. Control Chart C. Run Chart D. Pareto Chart |
D
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357
Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan? A. Team performance assessment B. Roles and responsibilities C. Staffing management plan D. Enterprise environmental factors |
D
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358
Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process? A. Risk register B. Risk data quality assessment C. Risk categorization D. Risk urgency |
A
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359
Which technique is commonly used for the Quantitative Risk Analysis activity? A. Brainstorming B. Strategies for Opportunities C. Decision Tree Analysis D. Risk Data Quality Assessment |
C
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360
Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives? A. Exploit B. Share C. Enhance D. Transfer |
D
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361
Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities? A. Mitigate B. Transfer C. Exploit D. Avoid |
C
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362
A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement? A. Plan contracting B. Request seller responses C. Select sellers D. Plan purchase and acquisition |
C
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363
Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories? A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials B. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price C. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive |
A
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364
Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique? A. Contract plan B. Procurement plan C. Closure process D. Procurement audits |
D
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365
Which of the following is a project constraint? A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected. B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge. C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment. D. The product is needed in 250 days. |
D
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366
A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what? A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages B. Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment C. Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives D. Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects |
D
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367
Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration"? A. Changing project specifications continuously B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses |
D
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368
What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)? A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations' or the client's overall business objectives. B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly. C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues. D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages. |
A
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369
A project manager is responsible for managing which of the following at the project level? A. Methodology B. Standards C. Constraints D. Interdependencies |
C
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370
Company A is launching a new communications satellite system. Resource B was assigned combined projects of design, construction, integration, and launch of the satellite. Resource B's role is that of a: A. Project manager B. Portfolio manager C. Work breakdown manager D. Program manager |
D
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371
Which of the following defines a characteristic of a project? A. Repetitive B. Unique C. No outcome D. Permanent |
B
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372
Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling and Closing are called: A. process groups. B. phase gates. C. knowledge areas. D. project phases. |
A
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373
Which of the following is the definition of a project? A. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a temporary business process or product B. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result C. Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs D. Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs |
B
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374
The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) should be considered as a: A. guide to project management processes, tools and techniques. B. methodology for managing projects. C. guide for project, portfolio and program management. D. standard for project, portfolio and program management. |
A
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375
Which of the following is a Process Group? A. Scoping B. Budgeting C. Closing D. Quality |
C
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376
In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty? A. Functional B. Projectized C. Matrix D. Balanced |
A
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377
Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances? A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases. B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases. C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases. D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases. |
B
Explanations: Stakeholders and changes versus time in the Project Life Cycle There are lots of common features regarding project life cycles: \u2022 Most stages of the project follow one after the other and in many cases could be described in technical way. \u2022 Expenditures and personnel engaged in the task are quite cheap at the beginning of the project, rise in the middle phase and fall significantly in the final stage. The Picture below shows exactly the described model. \u2022 At the beginning of the project - in initial stage the risk of failure and not to meet your goals is very high. When this crucial period is over the project comes into an intermediate phase where the situation is more stable and predictable. \u2022 Stakeholders have a big influence for the project's product in many technical aspects, costs etc. at the beginning of its life cycle. However their impact become lower within duration of the project and cost of changes and other corrections - which are low in initial phase rise considerably as the project continues. The Picture below demonstrates clearly this situation. In our opinion lots of project life cycles have many similar characteristics but few of them are the same. For example some projects can consist of five stages, others with ten or more? Depend on complexity and duration of the project. One institution's hardware testing can have one individual testing stage whereas another organization can have more phases for this task like: general and detailed testing, error correction, compatibility with different computers etc. Separate life cycles can also cover these subprojects for instance: one team of engineers can analysis and look for any defects of the product and the other team can simultaneously check compatibility with other devices. In conclusion we recommend you to deal with every project separately and especially at big and complex enterprises treat every phase as subproject with an individual life cycle. |
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378
Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as? A. Complete project phase B. Project life C. The project life cycle D. Project cycle |
C
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379
In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget? A. Functional manager B. Project manager C. Program manager D. Project management office |
B
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380
At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest A. Final phase of the project B. Start of the project C. End of the project D. Midpoint of the project |
B
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381
When do stakeholders have the greatest influence? A. At the start of the project B. At the end of the project C. During execution D. Stakeholders have constant influence |
A
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382
Which of the following provides a comprehensive and consistent method of controlling the project and ensuring its success? A. Stakeholder management B. Monitoring and controlling C. Project governance D. Project management methodology |
C
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383
Company A is delivering a product in three parts. The contract allows for the parts to be delivered either one after the other or at the same time. Which type of project phasing will allow for the most flexibility in delivering the full product when product requirements are subject to rapid change? A. Sequencing the delivery phases one after the other B. Overlapping the delivery phases C. Delivering the products iteratively D. Delivering all of the product at the same time |
C
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384
In which type of organization does a project manager have a moderate-to-high resource availability? A. Functional B. Weak C. Balanced D. Strong |
D
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385
Which stakeholder is responsible for managing related projects in a coordinated way? A. Sponsor B. Portfolio manager C. Program manager D. Project manager |
C
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386
In which of the following organizational structures does the project manager have full authority on a project? A. Functional B. Strong matrix C. Balanced matrix D. Projectized |
D
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387
What are three basic types of project phase-to-phase relationships? A. Sequential, Overlapping, Non-overlapping B. Sequential, Iterative, Overlapping C. Sequential, Non-overlapping, Iterative D. Iterative, Overlapping, Non-overlapping |
B
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388
Which is a true statement regarding project governance? A. Project governance approach must be described in the project management plan. B. Project governance is independent of the organization or program sponsoring it. C. Once a project has begun, it is not necessary to formally initiate each project phase. D. Review of project performance and key deliverables is not required for each project phase. |
A
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389
A project manager has limited authority in which type of organizational structure? A. Weak matrix B. Functional C. Balanced matrix D. Projectized |
A
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390
Which of the following is an input to direct and manage project execution? A. Requested changes B. Approved preventive action C. Work performance information D. Implemented defect repair |
B
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391
Who selects the appropriate processes for a project? A. Project stakeholders B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder C. Project manager and project team D. Project manager and project sponsor |
C
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392
A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs? A. Project manager is appointed B. Stakeholders approve the project C. Project charter is approved D. Project sponsor approves the project |
C
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393
How is the process of collecting requirements defined? A. Defining and documenting project sponsors' needs to meet the project objectives B. Defining and documenting stakeholders' needs to meet the project objectives C. Defining and documenting the project teams' needs to meet the project objectives D. Defining and documenting the project needs to meet the project objectives |
B
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394
Monitor and control project work is a process of which of the following knowledge areas? A. Project risk management B. Project scope management C. Project time management D. Project integration management |
D
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395
Which process group can be performed outside the project's scope of control? A. Planning B. Monitoring and Control C. Closing D. Initiating |
D
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396
The procurement document is an input to which of the following processes? A. Develop Project Management Plan B. Develop Schedule C. Identify Stakeholders D. Determine Budget |
C
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397
Which of the following is involved in the initiation process group? A. Develop Project Management Plan B. Identify Stakeholders C. Plan Communications D. Collect Requirements |
B
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398
Which of the following is defined by a project's life cycle and varies by application area? A. Product B. Product-oriented processes C. Project management process groups D. Project-oriented processes |
B
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399
How many knowledge areas are there according to PMBOK Guide? A. 5 B. 8 C. 9 D. 12 |
C
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400
Which of the following must be taken into account for every process, even if they are not explicitly listed as inputs in the process specifications? A. Organizational processes and procedures and enterprise environmental factors B. Organizational processes and procedures and corporate knowledge base C. Organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors D. Corporate knowledge base and enterprise environmental factors |
C
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401
Perform quality assurance belongs to which of the following process groups? A. Planning B. Executing C. Monitoring and Control D. Closing |
B
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402
A project team is in which of the following processes when they finalize all activities across all of the management process groups to formally complete the project? A. Closing B. Executing C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Planning |
A
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403
Which process group defines the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve? A. Initiating B. Executing C. Planning D. Monitoring and Controlling |
C
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404
How many process groups are there according to the PMBOK Guide? A. 5 B. 9 C. 10 D. 12 |
A
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405
The Monitoring and Controlling process group contains which of the following processes? A. Plan Quality B. Perform Quality Assurance C. Perform Quality Control D. Identify Stakeholders |
C
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406
Which process group establishes the total scope of a project? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Executing |
B
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407
Who must accept the end product for a project to be considered closed? A. Project team B. Project manager C. Project management office D. Customer or sponsor |
D
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408
Manage Project Team belongs to which knowledge area? A. Project Integration Management B. Project Time Management C. Project Procurement Management D. Project Human Resource Management |
D
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409
Where are product requirements and characteristics documented? A. Product scope description B. Project charter C. Preliminary project scope statement D. Communications management plan |
A
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410
What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed? A. Organizational process assets B. Enterprise environmental factors C. Project management processes D. Project scope management plan |
A
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411
Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution Process? A. Approved corrective actions B. Approved contract documentation C. Work performance information D. Rejected change requests |
A
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412
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary? A. Scope plan B. Product scope C. Scope management plan D. Scope baseline |
D
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413
What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project? A. Build vs. buy B. Expert judgment C. Alternatives identification D. Product analysis |
C
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414
The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document? A. Schedule management plan B. Project management plan C. Quality management plan D. Resource management plan |
B
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415
What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type? A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) B. Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) D. Project Breakdown Structure (PBS) |
B
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416
What causes replanning of the project scope? A. Requested changes B. Project scope statement changes C. Variance analysis D. Approved change requests |
D
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417
Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work? A. WBS directory B. Activity list C. WBS D. Project schedule |
C
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418
What is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables? A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) B. Work Performance Information C. Work Package D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) |
D
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419
What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions? A. Project boundaries B. Project constraints C. Project assumptions D. Project objectives |
A
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420
What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria? A. Decomposition B. Benchmarking C. Inspection D. Checklist analysis |
C
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421
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope? A. Project document updates B. Project management plan C. Scope baseline D. Product analysis |
A
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422
What is an output of Control Scope? A. Accepted deliverables B. Work performance measurements C. Requirements documentation D. Work performance information |
B
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423
The decomposition technique is used to do which of the following? A. Subdivide the estimated costs of individual activities B. Subdivide project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components C. Relate the work packages to the performing organizational units D. Shorten the project schedule duration and the amount of resources needed |
B
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424
A project manager needs the project team to make a group decision. Which of the following is a method that can be used to reach a group decision? A. Expert judgment B. Majority C. SWOT analysis D. Brainstorming |
B
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425
Decomposition is a tool and technique used in which of the following? A. Define Scope and Define Activities B. Collect Requirements and Estimate Activity Resources C. Create WBS and Define Activities D. Create WBS and Estimate Activity Duration |
C
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426
Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Collect Requirements process? A. Group decision making techniques B. Project management information system C. Alternative identification D. Communication requirement analysis |
A
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427
Which of the following is an input to Collect Requirements? A. Stakeholder register B. Requirements documentation C. Prototypes D. Organizational process assets |
A
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428
The use of group creativity techniques as a tool and technique is done in which of the following processes? A. Plan Quality B. Collect Requirements C. Define Scope D. Perform Quality Control |
B
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429
Which is an input to the Collect Requirements process? A. Requirement documentation B. Organizational process assets C. Requirements management plan D. Stakeholder register |
D
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430
Which of the following can be used to track the requirements throughout the project life cycle? A. Requirements traceability matrix B. Scope management plan C. Project charter D. Work breakdown structure |
A
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431
Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique? A. Delphi technique B. Unanimity C. Observation D. Presentation technique |
A
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432
Which process includes facilitated workshops as a tool and technique? A. Collect Requirements B. Plan Communications C. Develop Project Team D. Report Performance |
A
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433
Which of the following is a tool or technique used to verify scope? A. Product analysis B. Ishikawa diagram C. Inspection D. Requirements traceability matrix |
C
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434
Inspection is a tool and technique for which of the following processes? A. Create WBS B. Define Scope C. Control Scope D. Verify Scope |
D
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435
What is the lowest level in the WBS at which the cost and activity durations for the work can be reliably estimated and managed? A. Work product B. Work package C. Project deliverable D. Scope baseline |
B
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436
Many organizations categorize requirements into which of the following two categories? A. Project and Product B. Staffing and Budget C. Stakeholder and Customer D. Business and Technical |
A
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437
Plurality is a type of which of the following? A. Group creativity techniques B. Group decision making techniques C. Facilitated workshops D. Prototypes |
B
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438
Which of the following events would result in a baseline update? A. Your project is behind schedule and you want your baseline to reflect estimated actual completion. B. Your customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget. C. One of the risks identified in the Risk Management Plan occurs resulting in a schedule delay. D. One of your key project team resources has left your team and no replacement is available. |
B
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439
Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially? A. Crashing B. Fast tracking C. Leads and lags adjustment D. Parallel task development |
B
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440
Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources? A. Human resource planning B. Fast tracking C. Critical chain method D. Rolling wave planning |
C
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441
Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date? A. Critical path method B. Variance analysis C. Schedule compression D. Schedule comparison bar charts |
A
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442
What is the minimum a project schedule must include? A. Variance analysis B. A planned start date and a planned finish date for each schedule activity C. A critical path diagram D. Critical chain analysis |
B
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443
What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance? A. Cost aggregation B. Trend analysis C. Forecasting D. Variance analysis |
D
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444
Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)? EV = $500 PV= $750 AC= $1000 BAC= $1200 A. 0.67 B. 1.50 C. 0.75 D. 0.50 |
A
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445
Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating? A. Marketplace conditions and commercial databases B. Marketplace conditions and company structure C. Commercial databases and company structure D. Existing human resources and market place conditions |
A
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446
Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages? A. Cost baseline B. Cost forecasting C. Cost variance D. Cost budgeting |
D
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447
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000 A. 1.00 B. 0.40 C. 0.50 D. 0.80 |
D
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448
The project manager calculated a schedule performance index of 0.8 and a cost performance index of 1.1 for the project. What is the actual status of this project? A. Behind schedule and over budget B. Behind schedule and under budget C. Ahead of schedule and under budget D. Ahead of schedule and over budget |
B
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449
EAC (estimate at complete) is typically based on actual cost (AC) for work completed plus an ETC (estimate to complete) the remaining work. Which of the following is a valid formula for calculating EAC? A. EAC = AC + [(BAC-EV) / (Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI)] B. EAC = BAC - AC C. EAC = 1 - CPI D. EAC = EV + [1 - (Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI) / BAC] |
A
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450
Which of the following equations is used to calculate schedule variance? A. EV/PV B. PV/EV C. EV-PV D. PV-EV |
C
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451
Which tool and technique uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate estimates? A. Analogous estimating B. Three-point estimates C. Parametric estimating D. Bottom-up estimating |
C
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452
Which of the following equations is used to calculate cost variance? A. EV-AC B. AC-EV C. AC+EV D. AC/EV |
A
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453
Given the following values, what is the calculated expected activity cost (CE) when using PERT? CO = $7,000 CM = $10,500 CP = $11,000 A. $ 4,750 B. $ 9,500 C. $10,000 D. $11,500 |
C
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454
What is the expected activity cost for a project having a most likely cost of $140, a best case scenario of $115, and a worst case scenario of $165? A. $115 B. $138 C. $140 D. $165 |
C
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455
What does a SPI value greater than 1.0 indicate? A. More work was completed than planned B. Less work was completed than planned C. Cost overrun for completed work has occurred D. Cost underrun for completed work has occurred |
A
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456
Total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements are derived from: A. funding limit reconciliation B. scope baseline C. activity cost estimates. D. cost baseline. |
D
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457
What is the status of the project whose data is shown in the following S-curve? A. Under budget and ahead of schedule B. Over budget and behind schedule C. Over budget and ahead of schedule D. Under budget and behind schedule |
B
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458
If the earned value (EV) is $1000, actual cost (AC) is $800, and planned value (PV) is $1500, what would be the cost performance index (CPI)? A. 0.66 B. 0.8 C. 1.25 D. 1.5 |
C
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459
Control Charts, Flowcharting, Histograms, Pareto Charts, Scatter Diagrams are tools and techniques of what process? A. Perform Quality Control B. Perform Quality Assurance C. Quality Planning D. Performance Reporting |
A
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460
Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes and procedures? A. Scope audits B. Scope reviews C. Quality audits D. Control chart |
C
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461
What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate? A. Control chart B. Flowchart C. Run chart D. Pareto chart |
B
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|
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462
Which tool and technique of quality planning involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance? A. Histogram B. Quality audits C. Benchmarking D. Performance measurement analysis |
C
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463
In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information? A. Scope Management B. Time Management C. Communications Management D. Quality Management |
D
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464
What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements? A. Quality metrics B. Less rework C. Quality control measurements D. Benchmarking |
B
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465
What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production? A. Failure modes and effects analysis B. Design of experiments C. Quality checklist D. Risk analysis |
B
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466
What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics? A. Scope B. Quality C. Specification D. Grade |
D
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467
Which of the following provides a basis for assessing project performance? A. Profitability and impact matrix B. Expert judgment C. Benchmarking D. Risk categorization |
C
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468
Regardless of style, what information is shown in a process flowchart? A. Actions, decision points, and process drivers B. Activities, decision points, and the order of processing C. Activities, process drivers, and the order of processing D. Actions, decision points, and activities |
B
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469
Which quality assurance tool and technique confirms the implementation of approved change requests, corrective actions, defect repairs, and preventive actions? A. Quality checklists B. Quality metrics C. Quality audits D. Process analysis |
C
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470
Which tool or technique uses the 80/20 principle? A. Pareto chart B. Cause and effect diagrams C. Control charts D. Flowcharting |
A
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471
What is a cost of nonconformance? A. Rework B. Inspections C. Training D. Testing |
A
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472
What is included in a control chart? A. Baseline B. Planned value C. Upper specification limit D. Expenditure |
C
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473
What tool and technique includes all costs incurred over the life of a product by investment in preventing nonconformance to requirements? A. Cost of quality B. Measure of design C. Statistical control D. Systematic analysis |
A
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474
In a control chart, the consecutive measurements are 11, 13, 09, 07, 08, 09, 09, 09, 08, and 12. For the entire process, the goal is 10 and the standard deviation is 1. For this data set, it is correct to say that the process: A. is under control. B. is out of control. C. has an increasing trend. D. has a decreasing trend. |
B
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475
In which tool and technique is it possible to find a correlation between dependent and independent variables? A. Fishbone diagram B. Control chart C. Run chart D. Scatter diagram |
D
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476
A project manager arranges for project specific training for the new team members. Under which category does this cost fall? A. Appraisal B. Internal failure C. External failure D. Prevention |
D
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477
Which of the following describes the purpose of the quality control process? A. To identify quality requirements of the project B. To identify ineffective processes and eliminate them C. To assess performance and recommend necessary changes D. To ensure quality standards are used |
C
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478
What is an objective of the Developing Project Team Process? A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness B. Ground rules for interaction C. Enhanced resource availability D. Functional managers become more involved. |
A
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479
Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team? A. Negotiation B. Roles and responsibilities C. Recognition and rewards D. Prizing and promoting |
C
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480
When managing a project team, what helps to reduce the amount of conflict? A. Clear role definition B. Negotiation C. Risk response planning D. Team member replacement |
A
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481
Conflict should be best addressed in which manner? A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach B. Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach C. Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach D. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach |
A
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482
What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships? A. Role dependencies chart B. Reporting flow diagram C. Project organization chart D. Project team structure diagram |
C
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483
Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor? A. Functional manager B. Project manager C. Functional manager supported by the project manager D. Project management office |
B
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484
What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave? A. Organizational chart B. Organizational theory C. Organizational structure D. Organizational behavior |
B
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485
In which of the following team development stages does the team meet and learn about the project and their formal roles and responsibilities? A. Forming B. Storming C. Norming D. Performing |
A
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486
Which of the following is a technique for resolving conflict? A. Collaborating B. Issue log C. Leadership D. Motivation |
A
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487
Which of the following is a conflict resolving technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference? A. Withdrawing/Avoiding B. Forcing C. Collaborating D. Smoothing/Accommodating |
D
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488
In which of the team development stages are the teams interdependent and work through issues smoothly and effectively? A. Norming B. Forming C. Storming D. Performing |
D
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489
The resource calendars document is an output of which process? A. Estimate Activity Resources B. Acquire Project Team C. Develop Schedule D. Develop Project Team |
B
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|
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490
In which of the following team development stages does the team begin to work together, develop trust, and adjust to the work habits and behavior? A. Norming B. Forming C. Storming D. Performing |
A
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491
Project team members begin to address the project work and technical decisions. The project team is in which of the following stages of team development? A. Storming B. Forming C. Norming D. Performing |
A
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492
Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their ability to perform as a team is called which of the following? A. Team training B. Co-location C. Team location D. Organization training |
B
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|
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493
Emphasizing areas of agreement rather than areas of difference is part which of the following conflict management techniques? A. Smoothing B. Compromising C. Avoiding D. Forcing |
A
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|
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494
Which knowledge area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information? A. Project Integration Management B. Project Communications Management C. Project Information Management System (PIMS) D. Project Scope Management |
B
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495
Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner? A. Contract management B. Performance reporting C. Project status reports D. Information distribution |
D
The project management term or phrase that is used for the purposes of representing the project management process that focuses on taking the facts and happenings in regards to a particular project and disseminating this information to all of the relevant parties, with a particular focus on providing information to those who have a financial stake in the ultimate outcomes of the project. These methods of information dissemination can come in means including regularly scheduled conferences and or meetings, regularly scheduled conference calls in which some or all members of the project team participate, informal written communications such as periodic updates via email and of other short form, less formal means of communications, as well as formal reports that may or may not have been requisite to the completion of the project. Information distribution is essential to assuring that the financial stakeholders are fully aware of the progress throughout as it helps to assure no surprises arise at the time that deliverables are expected to be final. This term is defined in the 3rd edition of the PMBOK but not in the 4th. |
|
|
496
Forecasts, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and organizational process asset updates are all outputs of which process? A. Risk response planning B. Risk monitoring and control C. Performance reporting D. Manage stakeholders |
C
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|
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497
Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan? A. An organizational chart B. Glossary of common terminology C. Organizational process assets D. Enterprise environmental factors |
B
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|
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498
Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information? A. Project Risk Management B. Project Integration Management C. Project Communications Management D. Project Quality Management |
C
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|
499
Approved change requests, approved corrective actions, and updates to organizational process assets are all outputs of which project management process? A. Risk response planning B. Manage stakeholders C. Scope definition D. Performance reporting |
B
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|
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500
What is a technique used in the performance reporting process? A. Expert judgment B. Project management methodology C. Stakeholder analysis D. Status review meetings |
D
Performance Reporting is the process for "collecting and distributing performance information" like "status reporting, progress measurement, and forecasting" (comp. PMBOK3, p. 221): On the base of the collected performance information concerning scope, schedule, cost and quality this process generates the reports which are distributed to the stakeholders (comp. PMBOK3, p. 231). Basicly one can determine four types of reports: \u2022 Forcast reports for describing future trends \u2022 Progess reports for describing trends from past to presence \u2022 Status reports for describing actual status \u2022 Variance reports for describing differences between the planned baseline and the real data |
|
|
501
What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels? A. 7 B. 8 C. 14 D. 16 |
B
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502
What information does the stakeholder register contain? A. Communication model B. Identification information C. Communication method D. Identification plan |
B
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|
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503
Stakeholder analysis identifies what information and relates it to the purpose of the project? A. Requirements, influence, and functional department B. Interest, requirements, and functional role C. Requirements, expectations, and influence D. Interest, expectations, and influence |
D
|
|
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504
Which of the following is a tool and technique to the Manage Stakeholder Expectations process? A. Issue log B. Change register C. Stakeholder register D. Interpersonal skills |
D
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|
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505
When using the Delphi technique for gathering information, what forecasting method is being used? A. Time series method B. Casual method C. Econometric method D. Judgmental method |
D
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506
Which of the following is one of the key components of the basic communications model? A. Push B. Decode C. Pull D. Duration |
B
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|
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507
Which of the following is a tool or technique for distribute information? A. Project management plan B. Report performance C. Communications requirements analysis D. Communication methods |
D
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|
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508
A project manager convenes a meeting to determine why the time to produce one product according to specifications has increased from one day to three days over the past month. Which tool or technique is used in this case? A. Expert judgment B. Quality assurance C. Quality control D. Variance analysis |
D
|
|
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509
There are seven members on the project team not counting the project manager and the sponsor. How many communication channels are there? A. 21 B. 28 C. 36 D. 42 |
C
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|
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510
ABC project is at risk for failing to achieve a major project objective due to unresolved stakeholder issues. Team member morale is low. Who is primarily responsible for the project being at risk? A. Team members who have low morale B. Sponsor who is not actively supporting the project C. Project manager who is responsible for managing stakeholder expectations D. Stakeholders who have unrealistic expectations |
C
|
|
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511
When communicating with large audiences, which communication method works most effectively? A. Push B. Interactive C. Parallel D. Pull |
D
|
|
|
512
What are assigned risk ratings based upon? A. Root cause analysis B. Assessed probability and impact C. Expert judgment D. Risk Identification |
B
|
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513
Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact? A. Qualitative risk analysis B. Quantitative risk analysis C. Risk management planning D. Risk response planning |
A
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|
|
514
Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action? A. Probability and impact matrix B. Contingency analysis report C. Risk urgency assessment D. Rolling wave plan |
C
|
|
|
515
Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis? A. Sensitivity analysis B. Probability and impact matrix C. Risk data quality assessment D. Risk categorization |
A
|
|
|
516
When does risk monitoring and control occur? A. At project initiation B. During work performance analysis C. Throughout the life of the project D. At project milestones |
C
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|
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517
A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process? A. Risk monitoring and controlling B. Risk response planning C. Qualitative risk analysis D. Quantitative risk analysis |
C
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|
|
518
Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires that different levels of the risk's probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what? A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS) B. Risk probability and impact C. Qualitative risk analysis D. Risk response planning |
B
|
|
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519
What is one of the objectives of project risk management? A. Decrease the probability and impact of event on project objectives. B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place. C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events. D. Removal of project risk. |
C
|
|
|
520
Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party? A. Mitigate B. Transfer C. Share D. Avoid |
C
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|
|
521
Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what? A. Transference B. Avoidance C. Exploring D. Mitigation |
A
|
|
|
522
What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives? A. Expert judgment B. Risk registry C. Risk response planning D. Interviewing |
D
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|
|
523
What defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired? A. Procurement management plan B. Evaluation criteria C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) D. Contract Statement of Work (SOW) |
D
|
|
|
524
Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract? A. Purchase requisition B. Purchase order C. Verbal agreement D. Request for quote |
B
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525
Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement Management? A. Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellers B. Plan purchases and acquisitions, request seller responses, select sellers, schedule control C. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, request seller responses, select sellers D. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, contract approval, select sellers |
A
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|
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526
Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements Process? A. Risk assessment analysis B. Make or buy analysis C. Contract value analysis D. Cost impact analysis |
B
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|
|
527
A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract? A. Cost-reimbursable B. Time and material C. Fixed price or lump-sum D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee |
C
|
|
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528
What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses? A. Procurement documents B. Expert judgment C. Bidder conferences D. Contract types |
C
|
|
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529
A contract change control system defines which of the following? A. Process by which the procurement is being satisfied B. Process by which the procurement can be modified C. Process by which the procurement can be obtained D. Process by which the procurement can be disposed |
B
|
|
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530
In what type of contract is the seller reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and receives a predetermined fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives as set forth in the contract? A. Cost-plus-fixed-fee B. Cost-plus-incentive-fee C. Firm-fixed-price D. Fixed-price-incentive-fee |
B
|
|
|
531
Who decides buyer and seller roles in a teaming agreement? A. Executive management B. Project members C. Project manager D. Contract administrator |
A
|
|
|
532
In which of the following contract types is a price ceiling set and any additional costs above the price ceiling becomes the responsibility of the performing organization? A. Firm-Fixed-Price Contracts (FFP) B. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contracts (FPIF) C. Cost-Reimbursable Contracts D. Time and Materials Contracts (T&M) |
B
|
|
|
533
The degree of risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the: A. contract type. B. sponsors. C. project manager. D. stakeholders. |
A
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|
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534
Company A bought a well-defined project deliverable from Company B. Company A will pay a fixed total price plus a percentage premium for the schedule target achieved. For which type of contract have they subscribed? A. Fixed-price-incentive-fee contracts (FPIF) B. Firm-fixed-price-contracts (FFP) C. Fixed price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA) D. Time and material contracts (T&M) |
A
|
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535
Negotiated Settlements are an example of a technique used in which Project Procurement Management Process? A. Plan Procurements B. Conduct Procurements C. Administer Procurements D. Close Procurements |
D
|
|
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536
Which project management process ensures the seller's performance meets procurement requirements and that the buyer performs according to the terms of the legal contract? A. Plan Procurements B. Perform Quality Assurance C. Administer Procurements D. Conduct Procurements |
C
|
|
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537
Which contract type is typically used whenever the seller's performance period spans a considerable period of years? A. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee contracts (FPIF) B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment contracts (FP-EPA) C. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contracts (CPFF) D. Time and Material contracts (T&M) |
B
|
|
|
538
The project management information system is used as tools and techniques in which of the following processes? A. Develop Project Charter B. Develop Project Management Plan C. Direct and Manage Project Execution D. Monitor and Control Project Work |
C
|
|
|
539
Final product transition is an output of which process? A. Direct and Manage Project Execution B. Close Project or Phase C. Perform Integrated Change Control D. Monitor and Control Project Work |
B
|
|
|
540
Which of the following provides a standardized, effective, and efficient way to centrally manage approved changes and baselines within a project? A. Project management information system B. Configuration management system C. Change control board D. Project management plan |
B
|
|
|
541
The approval of which of the following indicates formal initiation of the project? A. Procurement management plan B. Project management plan C. Project scope document D. Project charter |
D
|
|
|
542
Which one of the following is true regarding the change control board? A. Describes how changes are managed. B. Approves or rejects change requests. C. Needs updated project management plans to approve or reject a change. D. Describes how changes are documented. |
B
|
|
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543
Which document is a narrative description of products or services to be delivered by the project? A. Project charter B. Contract C. Business case D. Project statement of work |
D
|
|
|
544
Reviewing, tracking, and regulating the process to meet performance objectives defined in the project management plan are part of which process? A. Monitor and Control Project Work B. Direct and Manage Project Execution C. Monitor and Control Risk D. Perform Integrated Change Control |
A
|
|
|
545
Which document contains initial requirements that satisfy stakeholders' needs and expectations? A. Project charter B. Project management plan C. Project statement of work D. Project scope statement |
A
|
|
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546
The decision to approve or reject a particular change request is made in which of the following processes? A. Perform Integrated Change Control B. Monitor and Control Project Work C. Develop Project Management Plan D. Direct and Manage Project Execution |
A
|
|
|
547
Who authorizes a project? A. Sponsor B. Project manager C. Project team D. Buyer |
A
|
|
|
548
Providing forecasts to update current cost and schedule information is a part of which process? A. Perform Integrated Change Control B. Direct and Manage Project Execution C. Monitor and Control Risks D. Monitor and Control Project Work |
D
|
|
|
549
A business case is an input to which of the following processes? A. Collect Requirements B. Define Scope C. Develop Project Charter D. Develop Project Management Plan |
C
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|
|
550
What should be covered in an implementation when the change is approved? A. Functional requirement B. Status report C. Customer need D. Defect repair |
D
|
|
|
551
The Project Integration Management knowledge area includes which of the following set of processes? A. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Perform Integrated Change Control B. Define Project Scope, Create WBS, Close Project or Phase C. Develop Project Charter, Develop Human Resource Plan, Estimate Costs D. Identify Stakeholders, Plan Communications, Develop Project Management Plan |
A
|
|
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552
What document should be reviewed by a project manager before finalizing the project closure? A. Customer acceptance B. Statement of work C. Product report D. User manual |
A
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553
Which of the following is a tool and technique for activity duration estimating? A. Parametric estimating B. Monte Carlo analysis C. Top-down estimating D. Bottom-up estimating |
A
Explanations: An estimating technique that uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables (for example, square footage in construction, lines of code in software development) to calculate an estimate for activity parameters, such as scope, cost, budget, and duration. This technique can produce higher levels of accuracy depending upon the sophistication and the underlying data built into the model. An example for the cost parameter is multiplying the planned quantity of work to be performed by the historical cost per unit to obtain the estimated cost. |
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554
Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships among schedule activities? A. Schedule development B. Activity sequencing C. Create WBS D. Applying leads and lags |
B
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555
What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level? A. Finish-to-start planning B. Rolling wave planning C. Short term planning D. Dependency determination |
B
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556
When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model? A. Before constraints have been identified B. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method C. After it has been analyzed by the critical path method D. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path |
C
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557
Which is the duration of the project? A. 63 B. 65 C. 66 D. 70 |
D
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558
Which tool and technique is used to sequence activities? A. Decomposition B. Project management software C. Applying lead and lags D. Expert judgment |
C
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559
What tool or technique of Estimate Activity Durations uses parameters such as duration, budget, size, weight, and complexity from a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measure for a future project? A. Bottom-up estimating B. Analogous estimating C. Parametric estimating D. Three-point estimates |
B
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560
Which schedule format usually shows both the project network logic and the project's critical path schedule activities with activity date information? A. Schedule table B. Schedule network diagram C. Bar chart D. Milestone chart |
B
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561
Which is the total float for the activity G? A. 0 B. 3 C. 5 D. 10 |
C
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562
Which of these are logical dependencies in a precedence diagram method? A. End-to-end B. Finish-to-end C. Start-to-end D. Start-to-start |
D
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563
In the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely estimate for an activity to complete is 100 days, the optimistic estimate is 60 days, and the pessimistic estimate is 200 days, what is the expected duration in which the activity will be completed? A. 90 days B. 100 days C. 110 days D. 660 days |
C
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564
Which of the following techniques uses historical information to estimate the activity duration? A. Three-point estimating B. Organizational process asset C. Analogous estimating D. Reserve analysis |
C
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565
What is a specific advantage of analogous estimating in comparison with other cost estimate techniques? A. Uses contingency reserves B. Less costly and time consuming C. Can be applied to segments of work D. More accurate |
B
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566
Which of the following is an output of the Estimate Activity Resources process? A. Alternative analysis B. Bottom-up estimating C. Resource breakdown structure D. Enterprise environmental factors |
C
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567
In the precedence diagramming method, which of the following is a logical relationship for the activities? A. Finish-to-start B. Applying leads and lags C. Activity-on-node D. Dependency determination |
A
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568
During the initial stages of the project, what do activity attributes include? A. Activity name, dependencies, assumptions B. Activity ID, WBS ID, activity name C. Activity ID, assumptions, constraints D. Activity name, WBS ID, activity description |
B
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569
Which of the following is one of the tools and techniques for the Define Activities process? A. Rolling wave planning B. Dependency determination C. Schedule network template D. Applying leads and lags |
A
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570
Which of the following is a tool and technique to develop the schedule? A. What-if scenario analysis B. Benchmarking C. Variance analysis D. SWOT analysis |
A
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571
Rolling wave planning is used as a tool and a technique in which of the following processes? A. Estimate Activity Durations B. Define Activities C. Develop Schedule D. Sequence Activities |
B
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572
Draw the precedence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the question. Use AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships. What is the critical path duration for the given schedule network? A. 22 B. 23 C. 24 D. 25 |
D
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573
Draw the precedence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the question. Use AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships. What is the total float on path BEG? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 |
C
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574
If the Schedule Variance (SV) =$55, and the Planned Value (PV) =$11, what is the Earned Value (EV)? A. $0.2 B. $5 C. $44 D. $66 |
D
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575
What is the status of a project if the Cost Performance Index is 1.25 and the Schedule Performance Index is 0.75? A. Under budget and behind schedule B. Over budget and ahead of schedule C. Under budget and ahead of schedule D. Over budget and behind schedule |
A
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576 CORRECT TEXT
Which of the following will be required to perform simulation for schedule risk analysis? |
Activity list and activity attributes
A: Schedule network diagram and duration estimates A: Schedule data and activity resource requirements A: Milestone list and resource breakdown structure A: B |
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577
The risk register contains which of the following? A. Identified risks and potential responses B. Identified risks and updates to scope baseline C. Risk management plan D. Risk related contract decisions |
A
A Risk Register is a Risk Management tool commonly used in Project Management and organizational risk assessments. It acts as a central repository for all risks identified by the project or organization and, for each risk, includes information such as risk probability, impact, counter-measures, risk owner and so on. It can sometimes be referred to as a Risk Log |
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578
Which of the following is an input to identify risk? A. Organizational process assets B. Scope management plan C. Communication management plan D. Expert judgment |
A
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579
Which analysis helps to determine the risks that have the most potential for impacting the project? A. Expected monetary value analysis B. Sensitivity analysis C. Modeling and simulation D. Expert judgment |
B
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580
Which of the following risk management processes uses brainstorming as a technique? A. Identify Risks B. Monitor and Control Risks C. Plan Risk Management D. Plan Risk Responses |
A
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581
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which of the following processes? A. Monitor and Control Risks B. Qualitative Risk Analysis C. Quantitative Risk Analysis D. Plan Risk Responses |
A
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582
What is risk tolerance? A. Ability to manage risks B. Willingness to accept varying degrees of risks C. Ability to mitigate risks D. Willingness to develop a risk management plan |
B
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583
Expected Monetary Value (EMV) analysis is commonly used in: A. probability distribution. B. decision tree diagram. C. sensitivity analysis. D. modeling and simulation. |
B
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584
Which of the following is a strategy for positive risks? A. Avoid B. Transfer C. Accept D. Mitigate |
C
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585
An Ishikawa or fishbone diagram is used for which of the following? A. Identifying causes of risks B. Identifying frequency of occurrence of risks C. Developing a resource plan D. Developing schedule |
A
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586
Which analysis uses beta and triangular distributions as a tool and technique? A. Quantitative risk analysis B. Qualitative risk analysis C. Perform quality assurance D. Perform quality control |
A
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587
What should a project manager do with low-priority risks? A. Ignore low-priority risks B. Monitor periodically with other low-priority risks C. Create a mitigation plan for the low-priority risks D. Increase the contingency reserve |
B
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588
Which of the following is a technique for Identify Risks? A. Risk categorization B. SWOT analysis C. Risk register categorization D. Risk probability and impact assessment |
B
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589
The project manager decides to conduct a meeting with the team and management after a new risk has been identified. After the meeting, the decision is to allow the risk to occur. This is an example of which type of risk response strategy? A. Mitigate B. Accept C. Avoid D. Transfer |
B
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590
The project team reviews identified risks and the risk response strategy. For one of the risks, the team realizes that the implementation of the risk response would generate another risk. This new risk is which of the following types of risk? A. Secondary B. Primary C. Residual D. Tertiary |
A
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591
What is the first step in preparing the risk register? A. Qualitative risk analysis B. Quantitative risk analysis C. Risk response planning D. Risk identification |
D
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592
What is Project Portfolio Management? A. Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects. B. Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing and controlling. C. Management of all projects undertaken by a company. D. Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives. |
D
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593
When is a project finished? A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure C. When the project objectives have been met D. After resources have been released |
C
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594
Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management knowledge area? A. Time management B. Cost management C. Scope management D. Human resources management |
A
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595
What characteristic do project and operational work share in common? A. Performed by systems B. Constrained by limited resources C. Repetitiveness D. Uniqueness |
B
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596
What are the components of the "triple constraint"? A. Scope, time, requirements B. Resources, time, cost C. Scope, management, cost D. Scope, time, cost |
D
The Project Management Triangle (called also Triple Constraint) is a model of the constraints of project management. It is often used to illustrate that project management success is measured by the project team's ability to manage the project, so that the expected results are produced while managing time and cost. Like any human undertaking, projects need to be performed and delivered under certain constraints. Traditionally, these constraints have been listed as "scope," "time," and "cost". These are also referred to as the "Project Management Triangle," (also known as the "Iron Triangle") where each side represents a constraint. One side of the triangle cannot be changed without affecting the others. A further refinement of the constraints separates product "quality" or "performance" from scope, and turns quality into a fourth constraint. |
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597
Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge? A. Recognized by every project manager B. Constantly evolving C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project |
B
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598
What do composite organizations involve? A. Functional and project managers B. Functional managers only C. Project managers only D. Technical managers and project managers |
A
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599
Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles? A. Staffing level is highest at the start. B. The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start. C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start. D. The cost of changes is highest at the start. |
B
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600
What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time? A. Increases B. Decreases C. Stays the same. D. Has no bearing. |
B
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601
To which process is work performance information an input? A. Contract administration B. Direction and management of project execution C. Create WBS D. Qualitative risk analysis |
A
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602
Which of the following is an output of the Information Distribution Process? A. Project calendar B. Communication management plan C. Requested changes D. Communication requirement plan |
C
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603
Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements? A. Develop project management plan B. Develop project charter C. Develop preliminary project scope statement D. Scope planning |
B
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604
Which process group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget? A. Monitoring & Controlling B. Executing C. Planning D. Initiating |
B
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605
What process determines which risks might affect the project? A. Qualitative risk analysis B. Identify Risks C. Plan Risk Management D. Quantitative risk analysis |
B
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606
Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process? A. Develop preliminary project scope statement. B. Close Project or Phase. C. Develop project charter. D. Create WBS. |
B
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607
Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what? A. Project management information system B. Work performance information C. Work breakdown structure D. Variance analysis |
B
Work Performance Information Part of the executed project management plan includes the routine collection of work performance information. The information gathered is important, and is useful as input data for quality control measures and programs. It is also useful when audits, quality reviews, and process analyses are conducted. This is especially true of work performance information collected which includes technical performance measures, project deliverables status, required corrective actions, and performance reports. Pertinent work performance Information is essential to the project management plan and includes, but is not limited to: \u2022 Status information on schedule progress. \u2022 Whether deliverables have been completed, or not. \u2022 Start and finish status of schedule activities. \u2022 Quality standards expectation results. \u2022 Authorized costs vs. costs incurred to date. \u2022 Estimated completion time for scheduled activities in progress. \u2022 Percentage of physical completion of in-progress schedule activities. \u2022 Experience based knowledge acquired, documented, and posted to knowledge base. \u2022 Details of resource utilization. Gathering and analysis of work performance information is essential to the project management plan and should be considered a priority. Work performance information contributes to the efficient use of resources, identifies potential trouble spots and problems, and serves as an effective project management tool. This term is defined in the 3rd and the 4th edition of the PMBOK. |
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608
Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work? A. Work performance information B. Project management information system (PMIS) C. Activity duration estimates D. Scheduled network analysis |
B
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609
Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process? A. Performance report B. Work breakdown structure C. Requested changes D. Project scope statement |
D
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610
When are deliverables accepted or not accepted? A. When the project is initiated. B. As an output of the scope verification process. C. When the project is closing. D. In the contract closure process. |
B
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611
During which process would you obtain stakeholders' formal acceptance of the completed project scope? A. Quality control B. Scope verification C. Scope control D. Close project |
B
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612
The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique? A. Alternatives identification B. Scope decomposition C. Expert judgment D. Product analysis |
C
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613
What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category? A. Risk register B. Risk breakdown structure (RBS) C. Risk management plan D. Risk category |
B
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614
Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition? A. Templates, forms and standards B. Change requests C. Stakeholder analysis D. Project assumptions |
C
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615
What is the total float of the critical path? A. Can be any number B. Zero or positive C. Zero or negative D. Depends on the calendar |
C
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616
Which of the following is the correct network diagram for the table? A. Begin - A - C - D - E - End - B - D B. Begin - A - B - C - D - E - End C. Begin - A - B - D - E - End A - C - D D. Begin - A - C - D - E - End - B - C |
A
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617
Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account? A. Network reserve analysis B. Critical chain method C. Lead and lag adjustment D. Critical path method |
B
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618
Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking? A. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased. B. The critical path will have positive total float. C. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager. D. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations. |
A
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619
Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project? A. Analogous B. Parametric C. Bottom-up D. Top-down |
A
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620
Your project has an EV of 100 work-days, an AC of 120 work-days, and a PV of 80 work-days. What should be your concern? A. There is a cost under run. B. There is a cost overrun. C. May not meet deadline. D. The project is 20 days behind schedule. |
B
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621
Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members? A. Work breakdown structure B. Network diagrams C. Staffing management plan D. Responsibility matrix |
D
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622
When can pre-assignment of project team members occur? A. When the project uses capital expenditures. B. When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources. C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses. D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal. |
D
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623
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks? A. Risk identification B. Qualitative risk analysis C. Risk management planning D. Quantitative risk analysis |
B
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624
In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool and technique? A. Qualitative risk analysis B. Risk monitoring and control C. Monitor and control project work D. Risk response planning |
B
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625
A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other type of plan? A. Resource plan B. Project management plan C. Cost control plan D. Expected monetary value plan |
B
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