Pharmacology Test #3

Front 1

The bacterial enzymes that inactivate penicillins and cephalosporins are?
a) mef efflux proteins
b) DNA gyrases
c) erm methylases
d) Beta lactamases
e) Topoisomerases

Back 1

Beta-lactamases

Front 2

Among the enzymes responsible for synthesizing bacterial cell walls are?
a) Transpeptidases and carboxypeptidases
b) Ligases
c) Phospholipases
d) Esterases
e) Methyl formylases

Back 2

Transpeptidases and carboxypeptidases

Front 3

Imipenen is a unique Beta-lactam because it?
a) has a very short half life
b) serves to inactivate both penicillin binding proteins and beta-lactamases
c) Acts on aminoglycoside transferases
d) Interferes with DNA segregation
e) Inhibits DNA gyrase, in addition to inhibiting beta-lactamase activity

Back 3

Serves to inactivate both penicillin binding proteins and beta-lactamases

Front 4

A know side effect of tetracyclines is that they
a) Stain the enamel of teeth
b) Causes nail discoloration
c) Interferes with mental functions by inhibiting GABA transmission
d) Causes heart arrhythmias
e) Promote constipation

Back 4

Stain the enamel of teeth

Front 5

While in general quinolones are safe antibiotics, a recognized side effect is?
a) Prolongation of the QT interval in the heart
b) tinnitus
c) ataxia
d) incontinence
e) constipation

Back 5

Prolonged QT interval of the heart

Front 6

Pill dysphagia is seen with
a) tetracycline
b) nitrofurantoin
c) trimethoprim
d) erythomycin
e) sulfamethoxazole

Back 6

Tetracycline

Front 7

Interference with folate synthesis in seen with
a) clindamycin
b) tetracycline
c) chloramphenicol
d) sulfamethoxazole

Back 7

Sulfamethoxazole

Front 8

Which of the following antibiotic classes interfere with bacterial protein synthesis?
a) Metronidazole
b) Quinolones
c) Penicillin
d) Macrolides

Back 8

Macrolides

Front 9

The most likely antibiotic to cause prolongation of the prothrombin time when patients are taking coumadin are
a) tetracycline
b) chloramphenicol
c) trimethoprim
d) rifampin

Back 9

rifampin

Front 10

Which of the following drugs is NOT used to treat Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
a) Isoniazid
b) Rifampin
c) Ethambutol
d) Streptomycin
e) Quinolones

Back 10

Quinolones

Front 11

A known side effect of isoniazid is
a) tinnitus
b) arthralgias
c) hepatitis
d) peripheral neuropathy
e) Parkinson;s syndrome/disease

Back 11

Hepatits

Front 12

Which of the following drugs should NOT be used to treat influenza in the first 36 hours?
a) Amantadine
b) Rimantadine
c) Erythromycin
d) Zanamivir (Relenza)

Back 12

Erythromycin

Front 13

All of the following are drugs used to treat HIV infections EXCEPT
a) AZT
b) DDI
c) 3TC
d) Amantadine

Back 13

Amantadine

Front 14

Which of the following drugs has NO antiinflammatory properties?
a) Aspirin
b) Rofecoxib (Vioxx)
c) Ibuprofen
d) Acetaminophen
e) Cortisol/Prednisone

Back 14

Acetaminophen

Front 15

Prophylactic use of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole in HIV protects against
a) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
b) Pneumococcal pneumonia
c) influenza
d) Respiratory syncytial virus pneumonia

Back 15

Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

Front 16

The mechanism of action of AZT is best described by which of the following?
A.Molecular rearrangements within DNA
B.DNA translocation
C.DNA inversion
D.DNA chain termination

Back 16

DNA chain termination

Front 17

Which of the following is the drug of first choice in treating trigeminal neuralgia?
A.Phenobarbital
B.Buspirone
C.Disulfiram
D.Carbamazepine
E.Naltrexone

Back 17

Carbamazepine

Front 18

The following receptors are all ligand-gated ion channels EXCEPT
A.GABAA receptor.
B.dopamine D2 receptor.
C.nicotinic acetylcholine receptor.
D.5HT3 receptor.
E.NMDA (Glutamate receptor).

Back 18

Dopamine D2 receptor

Front 19

Bacteria can rapidly evolve to develop resistance to antibiotics by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT
A.inactivation of enzymes that metabolize antibiotics.
B.altering the structure of the target of the antibiotic.
C.expressing efflux pumps for the antibiotic.
D.altering porin channels.
E.secretion of antitoxins.

Back 19

Inactivation of enzymes that metabolize antibiotics

Front 20

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in women of child-bearing age?
A.Aspirin
B.Prednisone
C.Misoprostol
D.Ibuprofen
E.Acetaminophen

Back 20

Misoprostol

Front 21

A patient who has been taking large quantities of aspirin might show increased postoperative bleeding because aspirin inhibits
A.synthesis of thromboxane and prevents platelet aggregation.
B.synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet disaggregation.
C.synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets.
D.thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network.
E.intestinal absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting factors.

Back 21

Synthesis of thromboxane and prevent platelet aggregation

Front 22

Which of the following pharmacologic actions is NOT produced by prostaglandins?
A.Pyrexia
B.Uterine contraction
C.Decreased gastric acid secretion
D.Increased renal vasoconstriction
E.Decreased sensitivity to pain

Back 22

Increased renal vasoconstriction
(I think this might be wrong)

Front 23

All of the following agents useful for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis can be used simultaneously with anakinra EXCEPT
A.aspirin.
B.celecoxib (Celebrex).
C.infliximab (Etanercept).
D.methotrexate.
E.prednisone.

Back 23

Infliximab (Etanercept)

Front 24

The most prominent acute toxic effect associated with acetaminophen use is
A.hemorrhage.
B.renal nephropathy.
C.hepatic necrosis.
D.gastric ulceration.
E.respiratory alkalosis.

Back 24

Hepatic Necrosis

Front 25

Tetracycline antibiotics are considered “broad-spectrum” antibiotics because they are effective against all of the following EXCEPT
A.most Gram-positive bacteria growing aerobically
B.most Gram-negative bacteria growing anaerobically
C.mycobacteria
D.fungal pathogens

Back 25

Fungal Pathogens

Front 26

All of the following statements concerning cephalosporins are correct EXCEPT
A.they are effective inhibitors of cell wall synthesis.
B.most oral anaerobic bacteria are insensitive to cephalosporins.
C.they contain a modified beta-lactam ring.
D.they are related to penicillins.

Back 26

Most oral anaerbic bacteria are insensitive to cephalosporins

Front 27

Which of the following classes of antibiotics can cause ototoxicity at high doses?
A.Tetracyclines
B.Vancomycin
C.Aminoglycosides
D.Penicillins
E.Erythromycin

Back 27

Aminoglycosides

Front 28

All of the following statements concerning prostanoid synthesis via the COX-1 isoform of cyclooxygenase are correct EXCEPT
A.COX-1 expression is constitutive.
B.arachidonic acid is the primary substrate of COX-1.
C.COX-1 is expressed primarily in macrophages, monocytes and the vascular endothelium.
D.the downstream prostanoid synthases are soluble cytosolic enzymes.
E.aspirin and ibuprofen selectivity inhibit COX-1 versus COX-2.

Back 28

COX-1 is expressed primarily in macrophages, monocytes and the vascular endothelium

Front 29

Compared to local anesthesia, general anesthesia has all of the following advantages EXCEPT
A.amnesia regarding the surgery/trauma.
B.cardiovascular toxicity is more easily avoided.
C.patient cooperation is not completely essential.
D.the patient is unconscious.
E.titration of the level of anesthesia is easier.

Back 29

Cardiovascular toxicity is more easily avoided

Front 30

For volatile anesthetics, the rapidity of onset of anesthesia is determined primarily by
A.lipid solubility.
B.metabolism by blood pseudocholinesterases.
C.solubility in muscle.
D.the blood:gas partition coefficient.
E.the rate of liver metabolism

Back 30

The blood:gas partition coefficient

Front 31

All of the following are potential adverse effects of general anesthetics EXCEPT
A.coma.
B.fulminant hepatic necrosis with halothane.
C.malignant hyperthermia.
D.peripheral pain sensitization with volatile anesthetics.
E.pneumothorax with nitrous oxide.

Back 31

Peripheral paine sensitization with volatile anesthetics

Front 32

Compared to most other parenteral anesthetics, midazolam has the desirable property of producing
A.a block of peripheral pain sensitization.
B.amnesia.
C.analgesia.
D.decreased salivation.
E.lack of hallucination upon recovery.

Back 32

Amnesia

Front 33

Symptoms of hyperthyroidism include all of the following EXCEPT
A.muscle wasting.
B.nervousness.
C.poor cold resistance.
D.tachycardia.
E.tremor.

Back 33

Poor cold resistance

Front 34

A certain pharmacology professor has a root canal performed by student dentists. To alleviate the extreme pain caused by the prolonged daylong procedure, he washes down 25 tablets of Tylenol™ with half a bottle of Johnny Walker Black Label. Which organ or tissue will most likely be adversely affected by the acetaminophen?
A.Brain
B.Gums
C.Kidney
D.Liver
E.Teeth

Back 34

Liver

Front 35

Analgesic agents are primarily distinguished from anesthetic agents in that:
A.Analgesics are administered orally and anesthetics by intravenous injection.
B.Analgesics are more selective for inhibition of the sensation of pain, relative to other sensory modalities.
C.Analgesics have a lower therapeutic index than anesthetics.
D.Analgesics primarily act directly at synapses in the spinal cord, whereas anesthetics act in the brain.
E.Anesthetics are more selective for inhibition of Adelta and C fibers than analgesics.

Back 35

Analgesics are more selective for inhibition of the sensation of pain, relative to other sensory modalities

Front 36

Which of the following drugs is directed against a target in fungal cell walls?
A. Amphotericin B
B. Caspofungin
C. Flucytosine
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
E. Voriconazole

Back 36

Caspofungin

Front 37

Which of the following drugs should always be administered in addition to a second antifungal agent?
A. Amphotericin B
B. Caspofungin
C. Flucytosine
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
E. Voriconazole

Back 37

Flucytosine

Front 38

Which of the following antifungal drugs at a therapeutic dose is most likely to cause abnormal vision, skin rashes and intrahepatic cholestasis?
A. Amphotericin B
B. Caspofungin
C. Fluconazole
D. Itraconazole
E. Voriconazole

Back 38

Voriconazole

Front 39

Which of the following is most effective in treating infections with Pneumocystis carinii?
A. Amphotericin B
B. Caspofungin
C. Flucytosine
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
E. Voriconazole

Back 39

Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole

Front 40

Which of the following causes the most interactions with drugs metabolized by cytochromes P450 3A4?
A. Amphotericin B
B. Caspofungin
C. Itraconazole
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
E. Voriconazole

Back 40

Itraconazole

Front 41

Antifungal triazoles work by
A. binding to ergosterol in fungal membranes.
B. inhibiting a fungal cytochrome P450.
C. inhibiting cytosolic ergosterol biosynthesis.
D. inhibiting fungal cell wall biosynthesis.
E. interfering with fungal DNA biosynthesis.

Back 41

Inhibiting fungal cytochrome P450

Front 42

A known side effect of tetracyclines is that it
A. causes nail discoloration.
B. causes prolongation of the QT interval.
C. interferes with mental functions by inhibiting GABA transmission.
D. stains the enamel of teeth.

Back 42

Stains the enamel of teeth

Front 43

Which of the following agents is an opiod antitussive with minimal problems of dependence or addiction?

A. Codeine
B. Dextromethorphan
C. Guaifenesin
D. Hydrocodone
E. Oxycodone

Back 43

Dextromorphan

Front 44

All of the following terms have a distinct medical meaning or definition EXCEPT
A. opioid.
B. opiate.
C. dependence.
D. addiction.
E. narcotic.

Back 44

Narcotic

Front 45

All of the following effects can be produced by administration of an opioid EXCEPT
A.suppression of cough reflex.
B.elevation of mood.
C.constriction of pupils.
D.inhibition of vomiting.
E.stimulation of release of histamine from mast cells.

Back 45

Inhibition of vomiting

Front 46

Which of the following agents is LEAST likely to produce either physical dependence or addiction?

A.Codeine
B.Morphine
C.Oxycodone
D.Hydrocodone
E.Tramadol

Back 46

Tramadol

Front 47

Local anesthetics produce anesthesia primarily through phasic (or frequency-dependent) blockade of

A. Mg2+ channels.
B. Na+ channels.
C. K+ channels.
D. Ca2+ channels.
E. Cl- channels.

Back 47

Na+ Channels

Front 48

All of the following agents can bind to and inactivate Na+ channels EXCEPT
A.local anesthetics.
B.general anesthetics.
C.dihydropyridine class Ca2+ channel antagonists.
D.frog toxins.
E.beta-adrenergic antagonists.

Back 48

beta-adrenergic antagonists

Front 49

All of the following agents or conditions can affect local anesthetic potency and/or efficacy EXCEPT

A. vasoconstrictors.
B. alkalinization of blood or tissue.
C. pregnancy.
D. site of injection.
E. protein binding.

Back 49

Protein Binding

Front 50

All of the following are signs of CNS toxicity from local anesthetics EXCEPT
A. vertigo.
B. flushing (of the skin).
C. tinnitus.
D. circum-oral numbness.
E. garrulousness.

Back 50

Flushing of the Skin

Front 51

Compared to local anesthesia, general anesthesia has all of the following advantages EXCEPT
A.patient cooperation is not completely essential.
B.the patient is unconscious.
C.amnesia regarding the surgery/trauma.
D.titration of the level of anesthesia is easier.
E.cardiovascular toxicity is more easily avoided.

Back 51

Cardiovascular toxicity is more easily avoided

Front 52

For volatile anesthetics, the rapidity of onset of anesthesia is determined primarily by
A.lipid solubility.
B.the rate of liver metabolism.
C.the blood:gas partition coefficient.
D.solubility in muscle.
E.metabolism by blood pseudocholinesterases

Back 52

The blood:gas partition coefficient

Front 53

All of the following are potential adverse effects of general anesthetics EXCEPT

A.pneumothorax with nitrous oxide.
B.malignant hyperthermia.
C.fulminant hepatic necrosis with halothane.
D.coma.
E.peripheral pain sensitization with volatile anesthetics.

Back 53

Peripheral pain sensitization with volatile anesthetics

Front 54

Compared to most other parenteral anesthetics, midazolam has the desirable property of producing
A.loss of consciousness.
B.analgesia.
C.decreased salivation.
D.amnesia.
E.lack of hallucination upon recovery.

Back 54

Amnesia

Front 55

Which of the following drugs is highly likely to cause skin rash and allergic reactions when applied topically?

A. Antibiotic ointments
B. Benzocaine
C. Lubriderm
D. Selenium sulfide
E. Hydrocortisone

Back 55

Benzocaine

Front 56

Which of the following drugs or groups of drugs are responsible for the most accidental overdoses?

A. Heroin and similar “narcotics”
B. Alcohol
C. OTC drugs such as analgesics and antihistamines
D. OTC vitamins

Back 56

OTC drugs such as analgesics and antihistamines

Front 57

All of the following bind to opioid receptors EXCEPT

A. endorphins.
B. enkephalins.
C. naloxone.
D. triptans.
E. dynorphins.

Back 57

Triptans

Front 58

If a patient takes 25 tablets of tylenol and washes it down with a bottle of johnny walker, which of the following should be administered as a antidote?
a) N-acetycysteine
b) Naloxone
c) Morphine
d) Ethanol
e) Pralidoxime

Back 58

N-acetycysteine
Actually I think this is Naloxone

Front 59

The bacterial enzymes that inactivate penicillins and cephalosporins are?
a) beta lactamases
b) DNA gyrases
c) erm methylases
d) mef efflux proteins

Back 59

beta lactamases

Front 60

Among the enzymes responsible for synthesizing bacterial cell walls are?
a) transpeptidases and carboxypeptidases
b) ligases
c) esterases
d) methyl formylases

Back 60

Transpeptidases and carboxypeptidases

Front 61

Imipenem is a unique beta lactam because it?
a) has a very short half life
b) serves to inactivated penicillins binding proteins and beta lactamases
c) acts on aminoglycoside transferases
d) interferes with DNA segregation

Back 61

Serves to inactivate penicillins binding proteins and beta lactamases

Front 62

A known side effect of tetracyclines is that it?

Back 62

stains the enamel of teeth
(y'all better know this one by now!!)

Front 63

While in general quinolones are safe antibiotics, a recognized side effect is?
a) prolongation of the QT interval
b) tinnitus
c) ataxia
d) incontinence

Back 63

Prolongation of the QT interval

Front 64

Pill dysphagia is seen with
a) tetracycline
b) nitrofurantoin
c) trimethoprim
d) sulfamethoxazole

Back 64

Tetracycline

Front 65

Interferance with folate synthesis is seen with?
a) clindamycin
b) tetracycline
c) chloramphenicol
d) sulfamethoxazole

Back 65

Sulfamethoxazole

Front 66

Which of the following antibiotics interfere with bacterial protein synthesis?
a) metronidazole
b) quinolones
c) penicillin
d) macrolides

Back 66

Macrolides

Front 67

The most likely antibiotic to cause prolongation of the prothrombin time when patients are taking coumadin are?
a) tetracycline
b) chloramphenicol
c) trimethoprim
d) rifampin

Back 67

Rifampin

Front 68

Which of the following drugs is NOT used to treat Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
a) Isoniazid
b) Rifampin
c) Ethambutol
d) Streptomycin
e) Chloramphenicol

Back 68

Chloramphenicol

Front 69

A known side effect of isoniazid is?
a) Tinnitus
b) Arthralgias
c) Hepatitis
d) Peripheral Neuropathy

Back 69

Hepatitis

Front 70

Which of the following drugs should NOT be used to treat influenza in the first 36 hours?
a) Amantadine
b) Rimantadine
c) Erythromycin
d) Relenza

Back 70

Erythromycin

Front 71

All of the following are drugs used to treat HIV infection EXCEPT
a) AZT
b) DDI
c) 3TC
d) amantadine

Back 71

amantadine

Front 72

The cell count of which cell type is an important predictor of opportunistic infections in patients with HIV?

Back 72

CD4+ Lypmhocytes

Front 73

Bacteria can rapidly evolve to develop resistance to antibiotics by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT
a) Inactivation of enzymes that metabolize antibiotics
b) Altering (mutating) the target of the antibiotic
c) Expressing efflux pumps for the antibiotic
d) Altering expression of porin channels
e) Secretion of antitoxins

Back 73

Inactivation of enzymes that metabolize antibiotics

Front 74

Which of the following drugs is directed against a target in fungal cell walls?
a) Amphotericin A
b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
c) Flucytosine
d) Caspofungin
e) Voriconazole

Back 74

Caspofungin

Front 75

Which of the following drugs should always be administered with another antifungal agent?
a) Amphotericin A
b) Trmethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
c) Flucytosine
d) Caspofungin
e) Voriconazole

Back 75

Caspofungin
(think that this is actually Flucytosine)

Front 76

All of the following antigungal agents have some efficacy against Aspergillus spp. EXCEPT
a) Amphotericin A
b) Fluconazole
c) Voriconazole
d) Itraconazole
e) Caspofungin

Back 76

Fluconazole

Front 77

Antacids should NOT be given to patients taking which of the following antifungal drugs?
a) Amphotericin A
b) Fluconazole
c) Voriconazole
d) Itraconazole
e) Caspofungin

Back 77

Itraconazole

Front 78

Tetracycline antibiotics are considered "broad-spectrum" antibiotics because they are effective against all of the following EXCEPT
a) Most gram positive bacteria growing aerobically
b) Most gram negative bacteria growing anaerobically
c) Mycobacteria
d) Fungal pathogens

Back 78

Fungal pathogens

Front 79

Cephalosporins exert their bacteriocidal effects at the
a) ribosome
b) cell nucleus
c) cell membrane
d) cell wall

Back 79

Cell wall

Front 80

Which of the following classes of antibiotics can cause ototoxicity at high doses?
a) Tetracycline
b) Vancomycin
c) Aminoglycosides
d) Penicillins
e) Erythromycin

Back 80

Aminoglycosides

Front 81

Which of the following statements concerning cephalosporins is incorrect?
a) They are effective inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
b) Most oral anaerobic bacteria are insensitive to cephalosporins
c) They contain a modified beta lactam rind
d) they are related to penicillins

Back 81

Most oral anaerobic bacteria are insensitive to cephalosporins

Front 82

Fungi come in a variety of flavors. All of the following statements about fungi are correct EXCEPT
a) Yeasts are fungi that are usually round and smooth
b) Molds are fungi that form hyphae as part of their life cycle
c) Among the groups of fungi, dermatophytes belong the molds
d) Dimorphic fungi are rounded when infecting tissues but form hyphae when in culture
e) Candida spp are examples of molds

Back 82

Candida spp. are examples of molds

Front 83

All of the following are correct statements about cells EXCEPT
a) bacteria have no nucleus
b) you and I have 46 chromosomes (we hope)
c) Bacteria cannot grow in the absence of oxygen
d) Most but not all bacteria have a single chromosome
e) Bacteria can grow in deep sea vents at temperatures of 90 deg C under >200 atmospheres of pressure

Back 83

Bacteria cannot grow in the absence of oxygen

Front 84

Which of the following drugs are an effective antitussive?
a) Ibuprofen
b) Dextromethorphan
c) Guaifenesin
d) Aspirin
e) Acetaminophen

Back 84

Dextromethorphan

Front 85

Receptors which mediate the primary effects of opioids are?
a) Presynaptic transporters of amines
b) Membrane proteins activated by endogenous peptides
c) Enzymes which convert arachidonic acid to prostaglandins
d) NMDA and glutamate receptors
e) Present in the brain but not the spinal cord

Back 85

Membrane proteins activated by endogenous peptides

Front 86

All of the following bind to opioid receptors EXCEPT
a) Endorphins
b) Enkephalins
c) Naloxone
d) Substance P
e) dynorphins

Back 86

Substance P

Front 87

All of the following effects are commonly produced by administration of an opioid EXCEPT
a) respiratory depression
b) nausea
c) constipation
d) tolerance
e) smooth muscle relaxation

Back 87

Smooth muscle relaxation

Front 88

Which of the following agents sensitizes peripheral nerve endings to noxious and/or painful stimuli?
a) Bradykinin
b) Serotonin
c) Histamine (itching)
d) H+ (acid)
e) Prostaglandins

Back 88

Prostaglandins

Front 89

All of the following effects can be produced by administration of an opioid EXCEPT
a) Suppresion of the cough reflex (antitussive)
b) Elevation of mood
c) Constriction of pupils
d) Inhibition of vomiting (antiemetic)
e) Stimulation of release of histamine from mast cells

Back 89

Inhibition of vomiting (antiemetic)

Front 90

Which of the following agents is LEAST likely to produce either physical dependence or addiction?"
a) Codeine
b) Morphine
c) Oxycodone
d) Hydrocodone
e) Tramadol

Back 90

Tramadol

Front 91

All of the following statements regarding local anesthetics are correct EXCEPT
a) Amide class local anesthetics are more stable in solution than those of the ester class
b) Ester class local anesthetics have a high risk of allergic reactions especially when applied topically
c) Both classes act by blocking Ca++ channels
d) Ester class local anesthetics are metabolized predominately by pseudocholinesterases
e) Amide class local anesthetics are metabolized by liver cytochrome P450 enzymes

Back 91

Both classes act by blocking Ca++ channels

Front 92

Local anesthetics produce anesthesia primarily through phasic (or frequency-dependent) blockade of
a) Mg++ channels
b) Na+ channels
c) K+ channels
d) Ca++ channels
e) Chloride channels

Back 92

Na+ channels

Front 93

All of the following agents can bind to and inactivate Na+ channels EXCEPT
a) Local anesthetics
b) general anesthetics
c) Dihydropyridine class Ca++ channel antagonists
d) Frog toxins
e) Beta adrenergic antagonists

Back 93

Dihydropyridine class Ca++ channel antagonists

Front 94

All of the following agents or conditions can affect local anesthetic potency and/or efficacy EXCEPT
a) Vasoconstrictors
b) Alkalinization of blood or tissue pregnancy
c) Site of injection
d) Pregnancy
e) Protein binding

Back 94

Protein binding

Front 95

All of the following are signs of CNS toxicity from local anesthetics EXCEPT
a) Vertigo
b) Flushing (of the skin)
c) Tinnitus
d) Circum-oral numbness
e) Garrulousness

Back 95

Flushing of the skin

Front 96

Compared to local anesthesia, general anesthesia has all of the following advantages EXCEPT
a) Patient cooperation is not completely essential
b) The patient is unconscious
c) The patient has amnesia regarding the surgery/trauma
d) Titration of the level of anesthesia
e) Cardiovascular toxicity is more easily avoided

Back 96

Cardiovascular toxicity is more easily avoided

Front 97

All of the following are potential adverse effects of general anesthetics EXCEPT
a) Pneumothorax with nitrous oxide
b) Malignant hyperthermia
c) Fulminant hepatic necrosis with halothane
d) Coma
e) Peripheral pain sensitization with volatile anesthetics

Back 97

Peripheral pain sensitization with volatile anesthetics

Front 98

Compared to most other agents used parenterally, midazolam has the desirable property of producing
a) loss of consciousness
b) analgesia
c) decreased salivation
d) amnesia
e) lack of hallucination upon recovery

Back 98

Amnesia

Front 99

Patient sprayed in the face with pesticide. In the ER, he exhibited tachycardia, lachrymation, increased salivation, and increased anxiety. Which of the following is most likely to be an effective antidote?
a) N-acetycysteine
b) Naloxone
c) Morphine
d) Ethanol
e) Pralidoxime

Back 99

Naloxone

Front 100

Patient took 25 tablets of tylenol washed down with a half bottle of Whiskey. Which of the following agents should be administered as an antidote?
a) N-acetycysteine
b) Naloxone
c) Morphine
d) Ethanol
e) Pralidoxime

Back 100

N-acetycysteine