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163 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A fluid-filled sac that decreases friction where a tendon rubs against a bone near a synovial joint is a/an - evertor - extensor - bursa - platysma |
bursa |
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The urinary catheter that is inserted through the urethra to the bladder to remain for a period of time is a - suprapubic catheter - Foley catheter - straight catheter - condom catheter |
Foley catheter |
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The abbreviation SA stands for - systole node - sinoatrial node - sinus node - systemic node |
sinoatrial node the sinoatrial node (SA) or pacemaker of the heart is a small area of tissue in the posterior wall of the right atrium |
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Clear, hard disk in the internal eye - lens - iris - cornea - choroid |
lens |
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Which is the correct definition for a neuron? - an individual nerve cell - a chemical messenger that travels across the synapse - deep division that runs anteriorly to posteriorly through the cerebrum - neurotransmitter for the sympathetic nervous system |
an individual nerve cell |
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Clear, watery fluid produced by the ciliary body. It circulates through the posterior and anterior chambers and takes nutrients and oxygen to the cornea and lens - aqueous humor - vitreous humor - nasolacrimal duct - sclera |
aqueous humor |
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Which type of anemia is caused by failure of the bone marrow to produce erythrocytes? - iron deficiency anemia - aplastic anemia - pernicious anemia - sickle cell anemia |
aplastic anemia |
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Swollen, protruding veins in the mucosa of the lower esophagus or stomach - varices - dyspepsia - hiatal hernia - hematemesis |
varices |
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Which is the medical word for the lower arm bone that lies on the thumb side of the forearm? - tibia - ulna - radius - humerus |
radius the distal end of the radius connects to the bones of the wrist on the thumb side of the forearm |
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Glycosuria means that there is _____ in the urine - iron - calcium - blood - glucose |
glucose glycos/o- means glucose. Glycosuria is a symptom of diabetes. Excessive amounts of glucose in the blood are excreted in the urine |
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The abbreviation DIP means - distal iliac process - degenerative iliac pain - diaphyseal ipiphyseal process - distal interphalangeal (joint) |
distal interphalangeal (joint) |
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Defibrillation is a procedure used to - listen to the heart sounds - open an artery narrowed with plaque - create an image of heart - treat a serious arrhythmia |
treat a serious arrhythmia Defibrillation uses an electrical shock to the patient's chest to restore a serious heart arrhythmia to a regular rhythm |
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Drooping of the upper eyelid from excessive fat or sagging of the tissues due to age - blepharoptosis - chalazion - hordeolum - glaucoma |
blepharoptosis chalazia and hordeola (styes) are sudden-onset localized swellings of the eyelid |
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Exhibiting factitious medical or psychiatric symptoms - Munchausen syndrome - Munchausen by proxy - fugue - hypochondriasis |
Munchausen syndrome |
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The abbreviation D&C means - dilate and currettage - dialate and currettage - dilation and currettage - dilation and curettage |
dilation and curettage a dilation and curettage (D&C) is a surgical procedure performed to remove abnormal tissue from inside the uterus |
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Cardiomegaly is the medical word for - heart attack - heart enlargement - irregular heartbeat - heart failure |
heart enlargement |
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Onychomycosis is a - fungal infection of fingernails or toenails - bacterial infection of fingernails or toenails - loss of fingernails or toenails - fistula |
fungal infection of fingernails or toenails onych/o- means nail, myc/o- means fungus, and -osis means abnormal condition |
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This procedure uses an x-ray beam that is controlled by a computer. The x-ray emitter and detector rotate around the axis of the body - computerized axial tomography - DEXA scan - magnetic resonance imaging - PET scan |
computerized axial tomography |
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A kidney stone is also called a - calculus - calyx - vegetation - embolism |
calculus |
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TURP is a surgical procedure performed on the - testes - prostate gland - rectum - urinary bladder |
prostate gland TURP stands for transurethral resection of the prostate gland |
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What does the medical abbreviation TURP stand for? |
transurethral resection of the prostate gland |
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Glucose in the urine is known as - anuria - bacteriuria - dyuria - glycosuria |
glycosuria anuria is failure of the kidneys to produce urine; bacteriuria means presence of bacteria in urine; dysuria is the medical term for pain or discomfort when urinating |
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The abbreviation "PE" means - physical examination - previous - post examination - possibly extreme |
physical examination |
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If medical science describes a disease (such as Alzheimer's disease) as etiology unknown, the disease is said to be - nosocomial - idiopathic - degenerative - iatrogenic |
idiopathic etiology refers to the cause of the disease; nosocomial is originating in a hospital; iatrogenic is relating to illness caused by medical examination or treatment |
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Which of the following is not a test conducted in a Complete Blood Count (CBC) with Differential - human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) - red blood cell indices - hemoglobin (Hgb) - white blood count (WBC) |
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) |
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This blood test is used to measure the partial pressure of the gases oxygen and carbon dioxide in the arterial blood - ABG - PFT - pulse oximetry - C&S |
ABG (arterial blood gases) PFT (pulmonary function tests) C&S (urine culture and sensitivity) |
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A localized collection of pus in the thoracic cavity is - emphysema - influenza - empyema - asthma |
empyema this condition is also known as pyothorax; emphysema is a long-term, progressive disease of the lungs |
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Contrast dye is instilled into the rectum in a - barium enema - arthrography - cholangiography - angiography |
barium enema |
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The word "occult" means - to hide - chemical reagent - darkness - slow |
to hide |
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The first stool of the newborn is a greenish-black waste called - colostrum - meconium - lochia - molding |
meconium
contains mucus, bile, and skin cells swallowed and excreted by the fetus in the amniotic fluid |
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colostrum |
a form of milk produced by the mammary glands of mammals |
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lochia |
in the field of obstetrics, the lochia is the vaginal discharge after giving birth (puerperium) containing blood, mucus, and uterine tissue. Lochia discharge typically continues for 4 to 6 weeks after childbirth, which is known as the postpartum period |
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Soft tissue extension of the hard palate at the back of the throat - soft palate - hard palate - buccal mucosa - adenoids |
soft palate |
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Pertaining to going from the back to the front - posteroanterior - anteroposterior - BE - CSR |
posteroanterior |
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Which is the common term for a herpes simplex type 1 infection? - scabies - cold sores - blisters - shingles |
cold sores also known as fever blisters and have recurrent outbreaks |
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The abbreviation "TX" refers to - treatment - transverse - thoracic - therapy |
treatment |
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The gastrocnemius muscle - bends the foot downward - moves the food into the stomach - bends the upper body forward - straightens the lower arm |
bends the foot downward the gastrocnemius muscle is on the posterior lower leg, it is not related to the stomach |
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The master gland of the body is the - pituitary - pineal - adrenal - testes |
pituitary the pituitary gland secretes hormones involved in many vital functions in the body as well as secretes hormones that stimulate the secretion of other hormones |
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Which is a fracture in which the bone is crushed into several pieces? - comminuted - depressed - oblique - compression |
comminuted |
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comminuted fracture |
a fracture in which the bone is crushed in several pieces |
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depressed fracture |
a fracture especially of the skull in which the fragment is depressed below the normal surface |
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compression fracture |
compression = the application of strong pressure
fracture = a break in a bone a compression fracture occurs when part of a vertebra, or bone in the spine, collapses |
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oblique fracture
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a relatively common fracture in which the bone breaks diagonally; tend to occur on larger bones like the femur or tibia |
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A subdural hematoma forms between the dura mater and the ______ - arachnoid - ventricles - thalamus - medulla oblongata |
arachnoid |
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What does Status Indicator X mean? - packaged service - ancillary service - not a covered service under Medicare - surgical procedure not subject to discount |
packaged service |
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status indicator T |
significant procedure, multiple reduction applies |
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status indicator S |
significant procedure, not discounted when multiple |
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status indicator N |
items and services packaged into APC rates |
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CMS updates which coding system? - CPT - CPT Category III codes |
HCPCS Level II codes |
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If the patient has three traumatic wounds repaired and they are all in the same anatomical grouping in the parent code number and of the same type of repair, how many CPT code numbers are assigned? - one - two - three |
one the longest length of each repair is added for a total repair in centimeters |
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Mastectomy is coded according to - the reason for the surgery - the extent of the excision of tissue - unilateral or bilateral |
the extent of the excision of tissue (i.e. breast, lymph nodes, muscle) |
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Which component of an E&M code below is considered to be a contributing factor in the selection of an E&M code? - medical decision making - counseling and coordination of care - history - examination |
counseling and coordination of care |
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The ICD-10-CM code book presumes a cause and effect relationship between hypertension and which condition below? - heart disease - chronic renal disease - benign hypertension - heart failure |
chronic renal disease |
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The total size of an excised lesion, including margins is documented in what type of report in the patient's health record? - operative report - EKG report - laboratory report - x-ray report |
operative report |
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A key feature of point-of-care documentation is - ability to provide interdisciplinary care - care plans documented in the health record - provision of evidence-based guidance - timely transcription of notes |
provision of evidence-based guidance |
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The difference between EMAR and BC-MAR is - branding - different vendors use different terminology for the same thing - BC-MAR is generated by a pharmacy information system - E-MAR assures "medication five rights" - BC-MAR supports positive identification of patient and drug |
BC-MAR supports positive identification of patient and drug BC-MAR (bar code medication administration record) E-MAR (electronic medication administration record) |
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E-MAR definition |
The Electronic Medication Administration Record system is important in promoting patient safety and preventing adverse drug reactions and events that can be serious in nature |
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PACS definition |
Picture Archiving and Communications Systems (PACS) is used for storage and management of clinical image data, digital radiology images |
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CPOE definition |
computerized provider order entry (CPOE) system allows providers to order tests, medications, and procedures electronically |
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The primary source of law providing the legal basis for health records is - case law - federal law - regulations - state law |
state law |
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Who is most responsible for ensuring physician adoption of an EHR in a hospital - EHR project manager - executive leadership - nurses - physician champion |
physician champion |
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Which law called for the adoption of standards to support e-prescribing - HIPAA (1996) - TEFRA (1982) - MMA (2003) - there is no law but several state statutes cover this |
MMA (2003) Medicare Modernization Act TEFRA (Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act) |
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A vendor that provides HIOs with operational and technical support is a - application service provider - health information exchange vendor - health information organization - health information service provider |
health information exchange vendor |
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A change often resisted in the IT department during an EHR project is - change control - implementing technology - system maintenance - user involvement |
user involvement |
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RAID storage is primarily used for - back up - performance improvement - prevention of server downtime - secondary memory |
performance improvement |
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Who is typically not a member of an EHR steering committee? - CIO - executive sponsor - user representatives - vendor representatives |
vendor representatives |
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When is a benefits realization study conducted - after the EHR has been implemented - before the EHR has been implemented - as part of the EHR planning strategy - never, it is not part of the EHR implementation |
after the EHR has been implemented |
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Benefits described for an EHR must - address the functionality of the EHR acquired - reflect budget and timeline within the EHR project plan - support the organization's strategic goals and objectives - track with other organization's achievements |
support the organization's strategic goals and objectives |
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Which of the following is used to send a prescription transaction to a pharmacy? - CPOE portal - e-prescribing gateway - fax machine - pharmacy benefits manager VPN |
e-prescribing gateway |
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Which of the following is considered "metadata" - audit trail - paper copy of discharge summary - print out of lab result - screen shot of medication administration record |
audit trail metadata is a set of data that describes and gives information about other data |
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What is metadata? |
a set of data that describes and gives information about other data |
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If capital budget requests for a hospital total $25 million and it is necessary to cut one, which is most likely to be cut? - highest cost - lowest IRR - negative NPV - shortest payback period |
negative NPV |
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Which of the following is a SMART goal? - EHR improves patient satisfaction scores - EHR should significantly reduce our medication errors - EHR will save time because information will always be accessible - EHR will decrease transcription expense by 50% within one year |
- EHR will decrease transcription expense by 50% within one year SMART = (S) specific, significant, stretching; (M) measurable, meaningful, motivational; (A) agreed upon, attainable, achievable, acceptable, action-oriented; (R) realistic, relevant, reasonable, rewarding, results-oriented; (T) time-based, time-bound, timely, tangible, trackable |
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SMART goals |
S - specific, significant, stretching M - measurable, meaningful, motivational A - agreed upon, attainable, achievable, acceptable, action-oriented R - realistic, relevant, reasonable, rewarding, results-oriented T - time-based, time-bound, timely, tangible, trackable |
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The ASTM International standards organization has established - EHR standard - PHR standard - specification of content for patient information - standard for exchange of PHR |
specification of content for patient information |
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Which of the following is a milestone? - identify favorite medications - install server - system build completed - test printer |
system build completed |
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Many believe that the biggest barrier to HIOs is - absence of trust - accurately linking patient data - consumer interest - lack of systems integration |
absence of trust |
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The first step in your due diligence for an EHR product is to - check vendor references - conduct detailed product demonstrations - evaluate the responses to the RFPs - verify the vendor's financial position |
evaluate the responses to the RFPs RFP = request for proposal |
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The "A" in SMART goal refers to - accurate - active - always - attainable |
attainable |
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The distinguishing feature of a results management application is that it - provides diagnostic studies information in viewable form - enables diagnostic studies results to be compared and displayed with other data - captures charges for diagnostic studies and sends them to a billing system - directs the work of the departments that produce diagnostic studies results |
enables diagnostic studies results to be compared and displayed with other data |
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What is the name of the model act relating to the use of electronic online communications and contracts, electronic records, and online signatures - The Uniform Electronic Transactions Act of July 1999 (UETA) - Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003 (MMA) - Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) |
The Uniform Electronic Transactions Act of July 1999 (UETA) |
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How have most states handled the legal issues surrounding electronic signatures? - none have addressed this issue yet because there have been no court challenges to validate any administrative decisions - applied business laws while some have enacted specific laws - states do not have to have laws governing electronic signatures because the federal government has already preempted the states on this - electronic signatures have never been a concern because they have been viewed as more secure than paper signatures and are considered on that basis |
applied business laws while some have enacted specific laws |
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The most likely financial benefit of EHR is - enhanced revenue for providers - improved cash flow - long term impact on economy - quality improvement |
enhanced revenue for providers |
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Medication reconciliation errors most frequently occur - during transfers within a hospital - on admission to a hospital - upon discharge from a hospital - within a physician practice |
during transfers within a hospital |
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A project manager who recognizes that a team is undergoing the Storming stage of group development might find which aid helpful to move forward - celebration - change management - conflict management - ice breaker exercise |
conflict management |
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A vendor that specializes in getting disparate vendor products to work together is - Clinical Context Object Workgroup (CCOW) standard - component producer - outsourcing company - system integrator |
system integrator |
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Cost avoidance refers to - costs an organization can eliminate as a result of EHR - earning more money through EHR productivity improvements - not paying bills on time because EHR results in cash flow issues - reducing EHR expenditures in difficult economic times |
costs an organization can eliminate as a result of EHR |
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Which of the following statements is true concerning ONC-ATCB certification - home-grown products cannot be certified - product certification significantly adds to the cost of a product - use of a certified EHR is required for participation in incentive programs - very few products on the market are certified as complete offerings |
use of a certified EHR is required for participation in incentive programs |
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What is ONC-Authorized Testing and Certification Body (ONC-ATCB)? |
ONC-ATCBs test and certify that certain types of electronic health record (EHR) technology (complete EHRs and EHR modules) are compliant with the standards, implementation specifications, and certification criteria adopted by the US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) Secretary and meet the definition of "certified EHR technology" |
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Which of the following aids in an EHR help meet state law requirements to assure the accuracy of health records - authentication requirements - encryption - reminders about proper documentation - retrospective audits |
reminders about proper documentation |
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All of the following terms for styles of leadership are related except - authoritarian - boss-centered - laissez-faire - bureaucratic |
laissez-faire laissez-faire involves giving the staff "free reign" in completing tasks, the other three involve the manager closely supervising and ordering the staff in day-to-day activities |
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According to straightforward interpretation of most organizations' codes of conduct, which of the following does not constitute an ethical violation - taking orders for one's home-based food container business at the office during the workday - photocopying a recipe booklet on the office copier - using one's own cell phone to place personal calls at one's work station during lunch hour - selling one's children's fund-raising candy bars at work |
using one's own cell phone to place personal calls at one's work station during lunch hour |
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Participative leadership style is the opposite of - charismatic leadership - situational authority - autocratic authority - laissez-faire leadership |
autocratic authority autocratic leadership is a dictatorship and involves close supervision by the manager. Participative leadership occurs when the contribution of the group is emphasized and involves the employees in decision-making using the talents and abilities of the group members |
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In the process of mentoring, in which a more experienced employee guides and nurtures a newer, less experienced employee, it is recommended that - all senior employees in the department be assigned their turn as mentors to afford them the experience - at the start of the relationship a specific length of time for the mentoring to last is established - the manager closely monitors the mentor's behavior during their relationship - mentors should serve voluntarily and willingly without being required to do so |
mentors should serve voluntarily and willingly without being required to do |
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Information flows downward in an organization better than it flows upward in part because - management controls most of the means of communication within the organization - few employees feel they have anything worth communicating upward - the majority of employees are readily receptive to whatever comes down from the top management - employees know that even if they say or ask nothing, management will anticipate their needs and communicate accordingly |
management controls most of the means of communication within the organization |
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The usual style of leadership among professional practitioners is - authoritarian - boss-centered - laissez-faire - bureaucratic |
laissez-faire laissez-faire leadership is where employees receive little or no supervision; ex: in a physician's office, the "boss" (physician) will hire individuals who have expertise in their field and need little day-to-day supervision in the completion of tasks |
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The committee chair position is rotated among the members. This is an example of - bureaucratic leadership - participative leadership - zone of indifference pattern - laissze-faire pattern |
participative leadership participative leadership makes use of the talent of all members of the group, so duties would be shared by all members |
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Conflict within the work organization is - contrary to efficient operations, counter-productive, and to be avoided whenever possible - an inevitable component of cooperative action; that is, can always be expected - expected to consume a significant portion of top management's time and attention - an ever-destructive force that detracts from organizational effictiveness |
an inevitable component of cooperative action; that is, can always be expected |
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Feedback is an essential part of all modes of communication because - all parties to a conversation and all recipients of a message are entitled to their turn - it is needed to ensure that the intended message was received - whether needed or not, it is the step that closes the communication loop - none of the above |
it is needed to ensure that the intended message was received |
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As a communication process, listening presents unique problems largely because - listening is a passive process, while the other communication processes (speaking, writing, reading) are all active - there is a strong tendency among many people to equate listening with simply hearing - rather than listening, some people are thinking of what they will say next - all of the above |
all of the above |
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This term describes the volume and severity of illness of the types of patients a hospital has - MedPAR - DRG creep - casemix - groups |
casemix |
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What is MedPAR? |
The Medicare Provider and Analysis Review (MedPAR) Files contain inpatient hospital and/or skilled nursing facility (SNF) final action stay records for all Medicare beneficiaries. MedPAR files contain the following information: procedures, diagnoses, and DRGs |
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What is DRG creep? |
Refers to the practices of healthcare providers that intentionally regroup patients according to more resource intensive DRG classifications in order to increase hospital income. Examples are "upgrading" and "upcoding" |
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Practices of providers which are inconsistent with accepted medical, business, or fiscal practice which may result in unnecessary costs to the program or improper payment for services are termed - fraud - abuse - unbundling - noncompliance |
abuse |
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What is fraud? |
an intentional deception of misrepresentation of fact that can result in unauthorized benefit or payment. examples include: - submitting claims for services not provided or use - falsifying claims or medical records - misrepresenting dates, frequency, duration, or description of services rendered - billing for services at a higher level than provided or necessary |
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What is abuse? |
means actions that are improper, inappropriate, outside acceptable standards of professional conduct or medically unnecessary. examples include: - a pattern of waiving cost-shares or deductibles - failure to maintain adequate medical or financial records - a pattern of claims for services not medically necessary - improper billing practices |
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A term used to describe an MS-DRG case in which the cost is extremely high compared to the average costs for cases in the same MS-DRG. There is a provision for additional payment in these cases - add on payment - disproportionate share - payment exception - outlier |
outlier |
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These organizations operate under contract to the federal government to identify under- and over-payments for claims filed under Medicare Part A and Part B. They audit claims and recoup any over-payments - Recovery Audit Contractors (RACs) - Quality Improvement Organizations - Hospital Payment Monitoring Agencies - PEPPER |
Recovery Audit Contractors (RACs) |
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Sinclair Memorial Hospital has an inpatient rehabilitation facility. The system used for classifying patients is - Rehabilitation Impairment Categories - Rehabilitation Classification Groups - Rehabilitation Deficit Categories - Rehabilitation Diagnosis Groups |
Rehabilitation Impairment Categories |
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The agency of Health and Human Services that investigate and prosecutes fraud and abuse in the Medicare system is - FBI - Office of the Inspector General (OIG) - Medicare Investigative Center - CMS Fraud Center |
Office of the Inspector General (OIG) |
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The major structural difference between the previous DRG system and the present MS-DRG system is - that they are spending more on DRG payments - that they increased the number of Major Diagnostic Categories - that there are more outlier payments in the new system - that secondary diagnoses were classified as CCs in a two-tiered system previously and now are in a three-tiered system |
That secondary diagnoses were classified as CCs in a two-tiered system previously and now are in a three-tiered system |
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Long-Term Care Hospitals are paid on what basis? - per diem - per stay - fee-for-service - capitation basis |
per stay
per diem = "per day" or "for each day" capitation = a systemm of medical reimbursement wherein the provider is paid an annual fee per covered patient by an insurer or other financial source, which aggregate fees are intended to reimburse all provided services |
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What is capitation? |
A system of medical reimbursement wherein the provider is paid an annual fee per covered patient by an insurer or other financial source, which aggregate fees are intended to reimburse all provided services |
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What is per diem? |
"per day" or "for each day"; is a daily allowance for expenses |
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The classification system used by Inpatient Psychiatric Facilities for payment is - Casemix Groups - Psychiatric Classification Groups - Inpatient Psychiatric Groups - Diagnosis Related Groups |
Diagnosis Related Groups (DRGs) |
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These are medically developed statements to guide clinical decision-making which are utilized by managed care organizations - Clinical Practice Guidelines - Resource-based Relative Value Scale - Utilization Management Criteria - Benefits Guidelines |
Clinical Practice Guidelines |
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The MDS or Minimum Data Set is a component of the standard assessment done on all ______ patients - inpatient rehabilitation - inpatient psychiatric - skilled nursing - home health |
skilled nursing |
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The official DRG determination for reimbursement is made by - the hospital Patient Accounts Department - the hospital HIM Department coders - CMS - the fiscal intermediary |
the fiscal intermediary |
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A service that is an exception to the Hospital Outpatient Prospective Payment System. certain expensive drugs, pharmaceuticals, and medical devices are paid separately rather than being included in the APC payment. The term for these is - pass-throughs - NCCI edits - unpackaged services - high cost outliers |
pass-throughs |
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The employer is obligated to verify the individual's identity and employment authorization of - every employee hired - only employees that have difficulty with English - employees who work with vulnerable populations - hospital personnel working as independent contractors |
every employee hired |
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What does the American with Disabilities Act require? - the employer to provide qualified individuals with reasonable accommodations to performing essential job functions - an employer to make accommodations for a person with disabilities not matter what the cost to the company - an employer to hire a percentage of its workforce from qualified individuals with disabilities - the employer to give preference to hiring a person with disability over a more qualified person without a disability |
the employer to provide qualified individuals with reasonable accommodations to performing essential job functions |
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What legislation requires employers to verify the identity of an employee to be hired? - Homeland Security - Employment Eligibility Verification Act - Immigration Reform and Control Act - Social Security |
Immigration Reform and Control Act |
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The Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA) provides for which of the following? - guaranteed leave time for a planned elective procedure - paid time off for maternity leave - unpaid time off to adopt a child - paid time off to recuperate from a serious medical condition that makes it impossible to work |
unpaid time off to adopt a child |
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Which legislation requires an employer to operate a place of employment free from recognized hazards that are likely to cause serious injury or fatality? - OSHA - ERISA - USERRA - ADA |
OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) |
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In the ICD-O code C42.1 9732/39, which part of the code represents the behavior? - C42.1 represents the behavior - 9732 represents the behavior - /3 represents the behavior - the digit 9 represents the behavior |
/3 represents the behavior |
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Which area is assessed to determine the Home Health Resource Group - clinical dimensions - functional dimensions - service utilization - all of the above |
all of the above |
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The term home health care is synonymous with - home care - visiting nurses - visiting staff - both a and b |
both a and b - home care and visiting nurses |
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The grouping of cases with similar prognosis into broad extent of disease categories is known as - staging - abstracting - accessioning - weighting |
staging |
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The Cancer Committee must meet at least - quarterly - once a month - bi-annually - annually |
quarterly |
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The most commonly used staging system for cancer cases used by the physicians is the _____ system - TNM - TNR - TMN - TMS |
TNM |
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What is the TNM Staging System? |
a system based on the extent of the tumor (T), the extent of the spread to the lymph nodes (N), and the presence of metastasis (M) |
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A reportable list is - a list of types of reportable cases that will be included in the cancer registry - a list of all the patients in the cancer registry since the reference date - a list of all patients in a given year who have a reportable disease - a list of all patients who need follow-up in a given month |
a list of types of reportable cases that will be included in the cancer registry |
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The primary diagnosis in home care coding is most related to - plan of care - OASIS-C - case mix diagnosis - none of the above |
plan of care |
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The medical term for the study of the microscopic examination of tissue is - histology - hematology - cytology - morphology |
histology |
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What is hematology? |
The study of physiology of the blood |
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What is cytology? |
the branch of biology concerned with the structure and function of plan and animal cells |
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What is morphology? |
the branch of biology that deals with the form of living organisms, and with relationships between their structures |
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A home health care agency must apply for a survey and then be evaluated on performance, functions and processes aimed at improved patient outcomes by this accrediting body - The Joint Commission - Community Health Accreditation Program - Accreditation Commission for Health Care - Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services |
The Joint Commission |
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The American College of Surgeons' Commission on Cancer requires that case abstraction be completed within - 6 months from date of first contact at the reporting facility - 12 months from date of first contact at the reporting facility - 3 months from date of first contact at the reporting facility - the time frame set up by the Cancer Committee |
6 months from date of first contact at the reporting facility |
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Grade _____ tumors are so anaplastic that the recognition of the tumor's tissue of origin may be difficult to determine - 4 - 6 - 9 - 1 |
4 |
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The acronym SEER stands for - Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results - Surgery, Episode, End Results - Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Registry - Southern European Eye Registry |
Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results (SEER) |
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In the ICD-O code C44.5 8723/33, which part is the topography? - C44.5 represents the topography - 8723 represents the topography - /33 represents the topography - 8723/33 all represents the topography |
C44.5 represents the topography |
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Vital components for developing and operating a hospital-based cancer registry include all of the following except - decision support - database - use of registry data - quality control |
decision support |
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A patient, a known brittle diabetic, is admitted for insertion of a total hip prosthesis for degenerative arthritis. During surgery, the physician notices a bone lesion on the iliac crest, excises a portion of the bone and submits it for pathological review. The pathology report indicates osteosarcoma. The surgery is completed without further incident. Following surgery, the patient's hematocrit drops to 6.5 and the patient receives 2 units of packed cells. The patient is started on rehab for the hip prosthesis and chemotherapy for the osteosarcoma. The patient's principal diagnosis is: - degenerative arthritis of the hip - insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus - anemia due to acute blood loss - osteosarcoma of the iliac crest |
degenerative arthritis of the hip |
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When superficial injuries such as blisters and abrasions are associated with a major injury such as a fracture of the same site, the coder should - not code the superficial injuries - code both the superficial and major injury - code both, with the major injury sequenced first |
not code the superficial injuries |
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A patient is seen in the ER for burns suffered in a trash fire. The final diagnosis is stated as "first degree burns of the hands and feet, 15% of body surface; second degree burn of the chin and neck, 10% of body surface, and third degree burn of the leg, 1% of body surface." The correct principal diagnosis would be: - third degree burn of the leg - second degree burn of the chin - first degree burn of the hands - total percentage of body surface burned |
third degree burn of the leg |
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Which of the following is sequenced incorrectly? - V43.52XA, S52.532A, S51.831A, S52.212A - S52.532A, S51.831A, S52.212A, V43.52XA - S51.831A, S52.212A, S52.322A, V43.52XA - all could be sequenced correctly, depending on the circumstances |
V43.52XA, S52.532A, S51.831A, S52.212A |
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Which letter will not be used as a character in ICD-10-CM codes? - U - I - O - E |
U |
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A patient is admitted for an elective excision of the gallbladder for cholecystitis and cholelithiasis. The night before surgery, the patient experiences a myocardial infarction in the hospital. The gallbladder surgery is canceled; however, the patient undergoes a coronary artery bypass graft. Following the surgery, the patient's hypertension must be regulated, and a post-operative infection is treated with IV antibiotics. The patient's principal diagnosis is: - chronic cholecystitis with cholelithiasis - benign hypertension - inferolateral myocardial infarction - post-operative wound infection |
chronic cholecystitis with cholelithiasis |
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When an abortion results in the delivery of a liveborn fetus, what should NOT be coded? - the attempted termination of pregnancy - the outcome of delivery - a missed abortion - early onset of delivery - any conditions that warranted the abortion |
a missed abortion a missed abortion is the early loss of a pregnancy, usually before 20 weeks, without any symptoms |
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The puerperium lasts how long? - nine months - only the first trimester - only 24 hours after delivery - the time of active labor - six weeks postpartum |
six weeks postpartum |
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In the statement "brain damage due to accidental ingestion of Darvon three years ago," the residual condition is the - brain damage - poisoning from Darvon - accidental ingestion |
brain damage a late effect is the residual effect (condition produced) after the acute phase of an illness or injury has terminated. There is no time limit on when a late effect code can be used |
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The HACs are usually conditions that are - high volume - high in cost - reasonably preventable - a and b - a, b, and c |
a, b, and c hospital acquired conditions (HACs) |
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A patient's _____ indicates the level of kidney function and indicates the stage of the disease - GFR - CKD - NKF - CRI |
GFR GFR (glomerular filtration rate) - tells how well your kidneys are filtering CKD (chronic kidney disease) NKF (national kidney foundation) CRI (chronic renal insufficiency) |
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Which letters will not be used as characters in ICD-10-PCS codes? - E and V - I and O - X and Y - A and B |
I and O |
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This program's mission is to reduce Medicare improper payments through the detection and collection of overpayments, the identification of underpayments, and the implementation of actions that will prevent future improper payments. What program is this? - OIG - DOJ - CERT - HEAT - RAC |
RAC (recovery audit contractors) |
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How many chapters are included in the ICD-10-CM coding system? - 17 - 19 - 21 - 23 |
21 |
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What is the maximum number of characters for an ICD-10-CM code?
- 3 - 5 - 7 - 9 |
7 |
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Which of the following symbols is used in the Alphabetical Index of ICD-10-CM to indicate more characters are needed? - * - # - - - + |
- |
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What is the effect of a hospital acquired condition being the only CC of all the diagnoses? - the entire claim is rejected by CMS - the hospital acquired condition is treated as if it doesn't exist, and it does not have the effect of a CC - the expected increase in the reimbursement due to the CC is deducted from the final reimbursement to the hospital - there is no change in the reimbursement |
the hospital acquired condition is treated as if it doesn't exist, and it does not have the effect of a CC |
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A patient with AIDs is admitted due to multiple injuries sustained in a motor vehicle accident. The principal diagnosis should be - B20 - AIDs - Z21 - asymptomatic HIV infection status - the most severe injury - any injury code, regardless of severity |
the most severe injury |
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If a patient is admitted with septicemia due to a MRSA infected PICC line (central venous line catheter), what is coded first?
- septicemia - complication of catheter - MRSA infection - encounter for removal of PICC line |
complication of catheter |
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A patient is admitted following an auto accident. Examination reveals the patient has a pneumothorax, a ruptured spleen, and multiple facial abrasions. Surgery is performed to remove the spleen. Admission labs show the patient has a blood glucose level of 350, and family members indicate the patient is a diabetic. He is treated with insulin. The patient's principal diagnosis is: - ruptured spleen - facial abrasions - insulin-dependent diabetes - pneumothorax |
ruptured spleen |
