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250 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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How do all viruses differ from bacteria? |
A) Viruses are filterable. B) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. C) Viruses do not have any nucleic acid. D) Viruses are not composed of cells. E) Viruses do not reproduce. Answer: D |
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Which of the following statements provides themost significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals? |
A) They are not composed of cells. B) They are filterable. C) They cannot reproduce themselves outside a host. D) They cause diseases similar to those caused by chemicals. E) They are chemically simple. Answer: C |
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Which of the following statements about viralspikes is FALSE? |
A) Composed of carbohydrate-protein complex. B) They are used for attachment. C) They may cause hemagglutination. D) They bind to receptors on the host cell surface. E) They are found only on nonenveloped viruses. Answer: E |
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Which of the following is NOT used as acriterion to classify viruses? |
A) biochemical tests B) morphology C) nucleic acid D) size E) number of capsomeres Answer: A |
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Which of the following is NOT utilized toculture viruses? |
A) laboratory animals B) culture media C) embryonated eggs D) animal cell cultures E) bacterial cultures Answer: B |
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Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differsignificantly in which one of the following steps? |
A) attachment B) penetration C) uncoating D) biosynthesis E) release Answer: D |
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The definition of lysogeny is: |
A) phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA. B) lysis of the host cell due to a phage. C) the period during replication when virions are not present. D) when the burst time takes an unusually long time. E) attachment of a phage to a cell. Answer: A |
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A viroid is a(n): |
A) complete, infectious virus particle. B) infectious piece of RNA without a capsid. C) capsid without nucleic acid. D) provirus. E) infectious protein. Answer: B |
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In Figure 13.1, which structure is a complexvirus?
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A) a B) b C) c D) d E) All of the structures are complex viruses. Answer: B |
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The structures illustrated in Figure 13.1 arecomposed of: |
A) DNA. B) RNA. C) DNA or RNA. D) Capsomeres. E) viroids Answer: D |
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A clear area against a confluent"lawn" of bacteria is called a: |
A) phage B) pock C) cell lysis D) plaque E) rash Answer: D |
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Continuous cell lines differ from primary celllines in that: |
A) viruses can be grown in continuous cell lines. B) continuous cell lines always have to be re-isolated from animal tissues. C) continuous cell lines are derived from primary cell lines. D) continuous cell lines can be maintained through an indefinite number of generations. E) continuous cell lines are from human embryos. Answer: D |
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Which of the following is necessary forreplication of a prion? |
A) DNA B) DNA polymerase C) lysozyme D) PrPSc E) RNA Answer: D |
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A persistent infection is one in which: |
A) the virus remains in equilibrium with the host without causing a disease. B) viral replication is unusually slow. C) the disease process occurs gradually over a long period. D) host cells are gradually lysed. E) host cells are transformed. Answer: C |
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Which of the following statements is FALSE? |
A) A prophage is phage DNA inserted into a bacterial chromosome. B) A prophage can "pop" out of the chromosome. C) Prophage genes are repressed by a repressor protein coded for by the prophage. D) A prophage may result in new properties of the host cell. E) The prophage makes the host cell immune to infection by other phages. Answer: E |
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Lysogeny can result in all of the followingEXCEPT |
A) immunity to reinfection by the same phage. B) acquisition of new characteristics by the host cell. C) immunity to reinfection by any phage. D) specialized transduction. E) phage conversion. Answer: C |
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Which of the following would be the first stepin biosynthesis of a virus with a - (minus) strand of RNA? |
A) synthesis of DNA from an RNA template B) synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template C) synthesis of double-stranded RNA from a DNA template D) transcription of mRNA from DNA E) synthesis of DNA from a DNA template Answer: B |
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An infectious protein is a: |
A) bacteriophage. B) prion. C) retrovirus. D) viroid. E) papovavirus. Answer: B |
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An envelope is acquired during which of thefollowing steps? |
A) penetration B) adsorption C) uncoating D) biosynthesis E) release Answer: E |
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Which of the following statements is NOT true oflysogeny? |
A) It can give infected pathogens the genetic information for toxin production. B) Prophage is inserted into the host genome. C) Lytic cycle may follow lysogeny. D) It is a "silent" infection; the virus does not replicate. E) It causes lysis of host cells. Answer: E |
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A virus's ability to infect an animal celldepends primarily upon the |
A) host cell's ability to phagocytize viral particles. B) presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane. C) type of viral nucleic acid. D) enzymatic activity of a host cell. E) presence of pili on the host cell wall. Answer: B |
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Assume you have isolated an unknown virus. Thisvirus has a single, positive sense strand of RNA, and possesses an envelope. Towhich group does it most likely belong? |
A) herpesvirus B) picornavirus C) retrovirus D) togavirus E) papovavirus Answer: D |
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An example of a latent viral infection is : |
A) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. B) cold sores. C) influenza. D) smallpox. E) mumps Answer: B |
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The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leavesa host cell is called: |
A) transduction B) budding C) abduction D) lysogeny E) penetration Answer: B |
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The most conclusive evidence that viruses causecancers is provided by: |
A) finding oncogenes in viruses. B) the presence of antibodies against viruses in cancer patients. C) cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates. D) treating cancer with antibodies. E) some liver cancer patients having had hepatitis. Answer: C |
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Bacteriophages derive all of the following fromthe host cell EXCEPT: |
A) lysozyme B) tRNA C) amino acids D) nucleotides E) ATP Answer: A |
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Bacteriophage replication differs from animalvirus replication because only bacteriophage replication involves: |
A) adsorption to specific receptors. B) assembly of viral components. C) replication of viral nucleic acid. D) injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell. E) lysis of the host cell Answer: D |
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Generally, in an infection caused by aDNA-containing virus, the host animal cell supplies all of the following EXCEPT: |
A) RNA polymerase. B) nucleotides. C) DNA polymerase. D) tRNA. E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are supplied by the host animal cell. Answer: C |
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Which of the following places these items in thecorrect order for DNA-virus replication? |
1. Maturation 2. DNA synthesis 3. Transcription 4. Translation A) 1; 2; 3; 4 B) 2; 3; 4; 1 C) 3; 4; 1; 2 D) 4; 1; 2; 3 Answer: B |
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A viral species is a group of viruses that: |
A) has the same morphology and nucleic acid. B) has the same genetic information and ecological niche. C) infects the same cells and cause the same disease. D) cannot be defined. Answer: B |
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Viruses that utilize reverse transcriptasebelong to the virus families : |
A) Retroviridae and Picornaviridae. B) Herpesviridae and Retroviridae. C) Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae. D) Herpesviridae and Poxviridae. E) Rhabdoviridae and Herpesviridae. Answer: C |
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DNA made from an RNA template will beincorporated into the virus capsid of: |
A) Retroviridae. B) Herpesviridae. C) Hepadnaviridae. D) bacteriophage families. E) influenzavirus. Answer: C |
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Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE? |
A) Viruses contain DNA or RNA but never both. B) Viruses contain a protein coat. C) Viruses use the anabolic machinery of the cell. D) Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes. E) Viruses have genes. Answer: D |
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A lytic virus has infected a patient. Which ofthe following would best describe what is happening inside the patient? |
A) The virus is causing the death of the infected cells in the patient. B) The virus is not killing any cells in the host. C) The virus is incorporating its nucleic acid with that of the patient's cells. D) The virus is slowly killing the patient's cells. E) The virus is infecting cells and then releasing only small amounts of virus. Answer: A |
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Some viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms. These are called: |
A) latent viruses. B) lytic viruses. C) phages. D) slow viruses. E) unconventional viruses. Answer: A |
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Assume a patient had chickenpox (humanherpesvirus 3) as a child. Which line on the graph in Figure 13.2 would showthe number of viruses present in this person as a 60-year-old with shingles(human herpesvirus 3)? |
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: E |
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Assume a patient has influenza. During whichtime on the graph in Figure 13.2 would the patient show the symptoms of theillness? |
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: C |
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The following steps occur during multiplicationof herpesviruses. Which is the third step? |
A) attachment B) biosynthesis C) penetration D) release E) uncoating Answer: E |
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The following steps occur during multiplicationof retroviruses. Which is the fourth step? |
A) synthesis of double-stranded DNA B) synthesis of +RNA C) attachment D) penetration E) uncoating Answer: A |
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Oncogenic viruses |
A) cause acute infections. B) are genetically unstable. C) cause tumors to develop. D) are lytic viruses that kill the host cell. E) have no effect on the host cell. Answer: C |
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Which one of the following steps does NOT occurduring multiplication of a picornavirus? |
A) synthesis of + strands of RNA B) synthesis of - strands of RNA C) synthesis of viral proteins D) synthesis of DNA E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D |
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Which of the following is most likely a productof an early gene? |
A) capsid proteins B) DNA polymerase C) envelope proteins D) spike proteins E) lysozyme Answer: B |
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Most RNA viruses carry which of the followingenzymes? |
A) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase B) lysozyme C) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase D) ATP synthase Answer: C |
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The following steps occur during biosynthesis ofa + strand RNA virus. What is the third step? |
A) attachment B) penetration and uncoating C) synthesis of - strand RNA D) synthesis of + strand RNA E) synthesis of viral proteins Answer: C |
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What contributes to antigenic shift in influenzaviruses? |
A) worldwide distribution of the virus B) a segmented genome C) attachment spikes D) ease of virus transmission E) different virus subtypes Answer: B |
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________ were first identified in cancer-causingviruses and can induce ________ in infected cells. |
A) Herpes viruses; lesions B) Oncogenes; transformation C) T antigens; lysis D) Glycoprotein spikes; syncytia formation E) Segmented genomes; reassortment Answer: B |
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A commensal bacterium |
A) does not receive any benefit from its host. B) is beneficial to its host. C) may also be an opportunistic pathogen. D) isn't capable of causing disease in its host. E) always causes disease in its host. Answer: C |
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Which of the following statements is TRUE? |
A) Both members are harmed in a symbiotic relationship. B) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other. C) A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host. D) Symbiosis always refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other. E) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship. Answer: E |
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A nosocomial infection is |
A) always present, but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization. B) acquired during the course of hospitalization. C) always caused by medical personnel. D) only a result of surgery. E) always caused by pathogenic bacteria. Answer: B |
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The major significance of Robert Koch's work isthat |
A) microorganisms are present in a diseased animal. B) diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another. C) microorganisms can be cultured. D) microorganisms cause disease. E) microorganisms are the result of disease. Answer: D |
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Which of the following is NOT a verifiedexception in the use of Koch's postulates? |
A) Some diseases have poorly defined etiologies. B) Some pathogens can cause several disease conditions. C) Some human diseases have no other known animal host. D) Some diseases are not caused by microbes. E) Some diseases are noncommunicable. Answer: E |
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Which of the following diseases is NOT spread bydroplet infection? |
A) botulism B) tuberculosis C) measles D) the common cold E) diphtheria Answer: A |
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Biological transmission differs from mechanicaltransmission in that biological transmission |
A) occurs when a pathogen is carried on the feet of an insect. B) involves fomites. C) involves reproduction of a pathogen in an arthropod vector prior to transmission. D) requires direct contact. E) works only with noncommunicable diseases. Answer: C |
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Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? |
A) endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population B) epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world C) pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time D) sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally E) incidence: number of new cases of a disease Answer: B |
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Focal infections initially start out as |
A) sepsis. B) bacteremia. C) local infections. D) septicemia. E) systemic infections. Answer: C |
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The rise in herd immunity amongst a populationcan be directly attributed to |
A) increased use of antibiotics. B) improved handwashing. C) vaccinations. D) antibiotic-resistant microorganisms. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C |
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Koch observed Bacillus anthracismultiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called? |
A) bacteremia B) focal infection C) local infection D) septicemia E) systemic infection Answer: D |
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Which one of the following does NOT contributeto the incidence of nosocomial infections? |
A) antibiotic resistance B) lapse in aseptic techniques C) gram-negative cell walls D) lack of handwashing E) lack of insect control Answer: C |
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Transient microbiota differ from normalmicrobiota in that transient microbiota |
A) cause diseases. B) are found in a certain location on the host. C) are always acquired by direct contact. D) are present for a relatively short time. E) never cause disease. Answer: D |
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Which of the following statements aboutnosocomial infections is FALSE? |
A) They occur in compromised patients. B) They may be caused by opportunists. C) They may be caused by drug-resistant bacteria. D) They may be caused by normal microbiota. E) The patient was infected before hospitalization. Answer: E |
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One effect of washing regularly withantibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in |
A) body odor. B) fewer diseases. C) increased susceptibility to disease. D) normal microbiota returning immediately. E) no bacterial growth because washing removes their food source. Answer: C |
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Which of the following is NOT a reservoir ofinfection? |
A) a sick person B) a healthy person C) a sick animal D) a hospital E) None of the answers is correct; all of these can be reservoirs of infection. Answer: E |
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Which of the following is NOT a communicabledisease? |
A) malaria B) AIDS C) tuberculosis D) tetanus E) typhoid fever Answer: D |
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Which of the following is a fomite? |
A) water B) droplets from a sneeze C) pus D) insects E) a hypodermic needle Answer: E |
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Which of the following statements aboutbiological transmission is FALSE? |
A) The pathogen reproduces in the vector. B) The pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces. C) Houseflies are an important vector. D) The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector. E) The pathogen may require the vector as a host. Answer: C |
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Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? |
A) acute: a short-lasting primary infection B) inapparent: infection characteristic of a carrier state C) chronic: a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months D) primary infection: an initial illness E) secondary infection: a long-lasting illness Answer: E |
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Symptoms of disease differ from signs ofdisease in that symptoms |
A) are changes felt by the patient. B) are changes observed by the physician. C) are specific for a particular disease. D) always occur as part of a syndrome. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: A |
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The science that deals with when diseases occurand how they are transmitted is called |
A) ecology. B) epidemiology. C) communicable disease. D) morbidity and mortality. E) public health. Answer: B |
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The Figure shows the incidence of influenzaduring a typical year. Which letter on the graph indicates the endemic level? |
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided. Answer: D |
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Emergence of infectious diseases can beattributed to all of the following EXCEPT |
A) antibiotic resistance. B) climatic changes. C) new strains of previously known agents. D) ease of travel. E) The emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these. Answer: E |
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Which of the following pairs is mismatched? |
A) malaria — vector B) salmonellosis — vehicle transmission C) syphilis — direct contact D) influenza — droplet infection E) None of the pairs is mismatched. Answer: E |
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Which of the following can contribute topostoperative infections? |
A) using syringes more than once B) normal microbiota on the operating room staff C) errors in aseptic technique D) antibiotic resistance E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E |
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In Figure 14.2, when is the prevalence the highest?
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A) July B) January C) February D) March E) The answer cannot be determined based on theinformation provided. Answer: C |
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A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is anexample of |
A) direct contact. B) droplet transmission. C) fomite. D) vector. E) vehicle transmission. Answer: E |
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A researcher has performed a prospective studyon a disease. To which specific kind of epidemiological study is thisreferring? |
A) analytical B) case control C) descriptive D) experimental E) prodromal Answer: C |
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The CDC is located in |
A) Atlanta, GA. B) Washington, DC. C) New York City, NY. D) Los Angeles, CA. E) Chicago, IL. Answer: A |
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A disease in which the causative agent remainsinactive for a time before producing symptoms is referred to as |
A) subacute. B) subclinical. C) latent. D) zoonotic. E) acute. Answer: C |
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A needlestick is an example of |
A) direct contact. B) droplet transmission. C) indirect contact transmission by fomite. D) direct biological transmission by vector. E) vehicle transmission. Answer: C |
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Which of the following is NOT a predisposingfactor of disease? |
A) lifestyle B) genetic background C) climate D) occupation E) All of these are predisposing factors of disease. Answer: E |
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In which of the following diseases can gender beconsidered a viable predisposing factor? |
A) urinary tract infections B) pneumonia C) salmonellosis D) tetanus E) anthrax Answer: A |
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In which of the following patterns of diseasedoes the patient experience no signs or symptoms? |
A) prodromal B) decline C) convalescence D) incubation E) both incubation and convalescence Answer: E |
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Which of the following is NOT an example ofmicrobial antagonism? |
A) acid production by bacteria B) bacteriocin production C) bacteria occupying host receptors D) bacteria causing disease E) bacteria producing vitamin K Answer: D |
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The yeast Candida albicans does notnormally cause disease because of |
A) symbiotic bacteria. B) antagonistic bacteria. C) parasitic bacteria. D) commensal bacteria. E) other fungi. Answer: B |
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If a prodromal period exists for a certaindisease, it should occur prior to |
A) incubation. B) illness. C) decline. D) convalescence. Answer: B |
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Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis? |
A) cat-scratch disease B) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome C) rabies D) tapeworm E) All of these are zoonoses. Answer: E |
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Pseudomonas bacteriacolonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery.This is an example of a |
A) communicable disease. B) latent infection. C) nosocomial infection. D) sporadic disease. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C |
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Which of the following statements is FALSE? |
A) Antimicrobial therapy for hemodialysis-associated infections increases antibiotic resistance. B) S. aureus is differentiated from other mannitol+ cocci by the coagulase test. C) The M in MRSA stands for mannitol. D) The USA100 strain accounts for most hospital-acquired MRSA. E) The USA300 strain accounts for most community-acquired MRSA. Answer: C |
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The most frequently used portal of entry forpathogens is the |
A) mucous membranes of the respiratory tract. B) mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract. C) skin. D) parenteral route. E) All of these portals are used equally. Answer: A |
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The ability of some microbes, such as Trypanosomaor Giardia to alter their surface molecules and evade destruction by thehost's antibodies is called |
A) antigenic variation. B) lysogenic conversion. C) virulence. D) cytopathic effect. E) cytocidal effect. Answer: A |
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Most pathogens that gain access through the skin |
A) can penetrate intact skin. B) just infect the skin itself. C) enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts. D) must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate. E) must be injected. Answer: C |
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The ID50 is |
A) a measure of pathogenicity. B) the dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population. C) the dose that will kill some of the test population. D) the dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population. E) the dose that will kill 50 percent of the test population. Answer: B |
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All of the following contribute to a pathogen'sinvasiveness EXCEPT |
A) toxins. B) capsules. C) cell wall components. D) hyaluronidase. E) coagulases. Answer: A |
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Which of the following statements is FALSE? |
A) Leukocidins destroy neutrophils. B) Hemolysins lyse red blood cells. C) Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells. D) Kinase destroys fibrin clots. E) Coagulase destroys blood clots. Answer: E |
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Which of the following statements aboutexotoxins is generally FALSE? |
A) They are more potent than endotoxins. B) They are composed of proteins. C) They are resistant to heat. D) They have specific methods of action. E) They are produced by gram-positive bacteria. Answer: C |
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Endotoxins are |
A) associated with gram-positive bacteria. B) molecules that bind nerve cells. C) part of the gram-negative cell wall. D) excreted from the cell. E) A-B toxins. Answer: C |
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Which of the following is NOT amembrane-disrupting toxin? |
A) A-B toxin B) hemolysin C) leukocidin D) streptolysin O E) streptolysin S Answer: A |
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Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells dueto |
A) viral infections. B) protozoan infections. C) fungal infections. D) bacterial infections. E) helminthic infections. Answer: A |
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Which of the following does NOT contribute tothe symptoms of a fungal disease? |
A) capsules B) toxins C) allergic response of the host D) cell walls E) metabolic products Answer: D |
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All of the following are methods of avoidinghost antibodies EXCEPT |
A) antigenic changes. B) IgA proteases. C) invasins. D) membrane-disrupting toxins. E) inducing endocytosis. Answer: D |
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Siderophores are bacterial proteins that competewith the host's |
A) antibodies. B) red blood cells. C) iron-transport proteins. D) white blood cells. E) receptors. Answer: C |
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The fimbriae of Neisseria gonorrhea andenteropathogenic E. coli are examples of |
A) adhesins. B) ligands. C) receptors. D) adhesins and ligands. E) adhesins, ligands, and receptors. Answer: D |
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All of the following are examples of entry viathe parenteral route EXCEPT |
A) injection. B) bite. C) surgery. D) hair follicle. E) skin cut. Answer: D |
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Superantigens produce intense immune responsesby stimulating lymphocytes to produce |
A) endotoxins. B) exotoxins. C) cytokines. D) leukocidins. E) interferons. Answer: C |
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Botulism is caused by ingestion of aproteinaceous exotoxin; therefore, it can easily be prevented by |
A) boiling food prior to consumption. B) administering antibiotics to patients. C) not eating canned food. D) preventing fecal contamination of food. E) filtering food. Answer: A |
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All of the following organisms produce exotoxinsEXCEPT |
A) Salmonella typhi. B) Clostridium botulinum. C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae. D) Clostridium tetani. E) Staphylococcus aureus. Answer: A |
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Which of the following cytopathic effects iscytocidal? |
A) inclusion bodies B) giant cells C) antigenic changes D) transformation E) release of enzymes from lysosomes Answer: E |
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All of the following are used by bacteria toattach to host cells EXCEPT |
A) M protein. B) ligands. C) fimbriae. D) capsules. E) A-B toxins. Answer: E |
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Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic diseasesare due to |
A) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues. B) waste products excreted by the parasite. C) products released from damaged tissues. D) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues, waste products excreted by the parasite, and products released from damaged tissues. Answer: D |
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Which of the following statements aboutstaphylococcal enterotoxin is FALSE? |
A) It causes vomiting. B) It causes diarrhea. C) It is an exotoxin. D) It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines. E) It is a superantigen. Answer: D |
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Which of the following contributes to thevirulence of a pathogen? |
A) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host B) evasion of host defenses C) toxin production D) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host and evasion of host defenses E) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host, evasion of host defenses, and toxin production Answer: E |
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Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterialvirulence because bacteriophages |
A) give new gene sequences to the host bacteria. B) produce toxins. C) carry plasmids. D) kill the bacteria, causing release of endotoxins. E) kill human cells. Answer: A |
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Twenty-five people developed symptoms of nausea,vomiting, and diarrhea three to six hours after attending a church picnic wherethey ate a ham and green bean casserole with cream sauce. The most likely causeof this case of food intoxication is |
A) botulinum toxin. B) aflatoxin. C) staphylococcal enterotoxin. D) erythrogenic toxin. E) cholera toxin. Answer: D |
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Which of the following statements about Mprotein is FALSE? |
A) It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes. B) It is found on fimbriae. C) It is heat- and acid-resistant. D) It is readily digested by phagocytes. E) It is a protein. Answer: D |
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Symptoms of intense inflammation and shock occurin some gram-positive bacterial infections due to |
A) A-B toxins. B) lipid A. C) membrane-disrupting toxins. D) superantigens. E) erythrogenic toxin. Answer: D |
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Which of the following is an example of directdamage due to bacterial infection? |
A) the uncontrolled muscle contractions in Clostridium tetani infection B) the invasion and lysis of intestinal cells by E. coli C) the hemolysis of red blood cells in a staphylococcal infection D) the fever, nausea, and low blood pressure in a Salmonella infection E) the excessive secretion of fluids in a Vibrio cholera infection Answer: B |
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Polio is transmitted by ingestion of watercontaminated with feces containing polio virus. What portal of entry does poliovirus use? |
A) skin only B) parenteral only C) mucous membranes only D) skin and parenteral E) skin, parenteral, and mucous membranes Answer: C |
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All of the following bacteria release endotoxinEXCEPT |
A) Clostridium botulinum. B) Salmonella typhi. C) Neisseria meningitidis. D) Proteus vulgaris. E) Haemophilus influenzae. Answer: A |
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Cholera toxin polypeptide A binds to surfacegangliosides on target cells. If the gangliosides were removed, |
A) polypeptide A would bind to target cells. B) polypeptide A would enter the cells. C) polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells. D) Vibrio would not produce cholera toxin. E) Vibrio would bind to target cells. Answer: C |
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Bacteria such as E. coli and Salmonellaproduce invasins that bind host cells, thus causing the cells to |
A) release TNF. B) produce iron-binding proteins. C) engulf the bacteria. D) destroy the bacteria. E) release cytokines. Answer: C |
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Which of the following mechanisms is used bygram-negative bacteria to cross the blood-brain barrier? |
A) producing fimbriae B) inducing endocytosis C) producing toxins D) inducing TNF E) antigenic variation Answer: D |
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Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by |
A) the Limulus amoebocyte lysate test. B) counting the viable bacteria. C) filtering out the cells. D) looking for turbidity. E) culturing bacteria. Answer: A |
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Endotoxins in sterile injectable drugs couldcause |
A) infection. B) septic shock symptoms. C) giant cell formation. D) nerve damage. E) no damage, because they are sterile. Answer: B |
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Gram-negative septic shock results from thefollowing events. What is the second step? |
A) Body temperature is reset in the hypothalamus. B) Fever occurs. C) IL-1 is released. D) LPS is released from gram-negative bacteria. E) Phagocytes ingest gram-negative bacteria. Answer: D |
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Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used totreat |
A) viral infections. B) gram-negative bacterial infections. C) gram-positive bacterial infections. D) protozoan infections. E) helminth infestations. Answer: B |
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Which of the following is NOT a cytopathiceffect of viruses? |
A) cell death B) host cells fusing to form multinucleated syncytia C) inclusion bodies forming in the cytoplasm or nucleus D) increased cell growth E) toxin production Answer: E |
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Bacteria that cause periodontal disease haveadhesins for receptors on streptococci that colonize on teeth. This indicatesthat |
A) streptococci get bacterial infections. B) streptococcal colonization is necessary for periodontal disease. C) bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to gums and teeth. D) bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to teeth. E) streptococci cause periodontal disease. Answer: B |
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Nonpathogenic Vibrio cholerae can acquirethe cholera toxin gene by |
A) phagocytosis. B) transduction. C) conjugation. D) transformation. E) infecting a pathogenic Vibrio cholerae. Answer: B |
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In response to the presence of endotoxin,phagocytes secrete tumor necrosis factor. This causes |
A) the disease to subside. B) a decrease in blood pressure. C) a fever. D) a gram-negative infection. E) an increase in red blood cells. Answer: B |
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Patients developed inflammation a few hoursfollowing eye surgery. Instruments and solutions were sterile, and the Limulusassay was positive. The patients' inflammation was due to |
A) bacterial infection. B) viral infection. C) endotoxin. D) exotoxin. E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided. Answer: C |
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Innate immunity |
A) is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens. B) is nonspecific and present at birth. C) involves a memory component. D) involves T cells and B cells. E) provides increased susceptibility to disease. Answer: B |
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All of the following protect the skin and mucousmembranes from infection EXCEPT |
A) multiple layers of cells. B) tears. C) saliva. D) HCl. E) the "ciliary escalator." Answer: D |
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The function of the "ciliaryescalator" is to |
A) remove microorganisms from the gastrointestinal tract. B) remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract. C) trap microorganisms in mucus in the upper respiratory tract. D) trap inhaled dust and microorganisms in mucus and propel it away from the lower respiratory tract. Answer: D |
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Which of the following exhibits the highestphagocytic activity? |
A) eosinophils B) erythrocytes C) macrophages D) basophils E) neutrophils Answer: C |
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TLRs attach to all of the following EXCEPT |
A) AMPs. B) flagellin. C) LPS. D) PAMPs. E) peptidoglycan. Answer: A |
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A differential cell count is used to determineeach of the following EXCEPT |
A) the total number of white blood cells. B) the numbers of each type of white blood cell. C) the number of red blood cells. D) leukocytosis. E) leukopenia. Answer: C |
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The complement protein cascade is the same forthe classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway after the pointin the cascade where the activation of ________ takes place. |
A) C1 B) C2 C) C3 D) C5 E) C6 Answer: C |
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All of the following increase blood vesselpermeability EXCEPT |
A) kinins. B) prostaglandins. C) lysozymes. D) histamine. E) leukotrienes. Answer: C |
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A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg.The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the followingdefense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes? |
A) mucociliary escalator B) normal skin flora C) phagocytosis in the inflammatory response D) acidic skin secretions E) lysozyme Answer: C |
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Margination refers to |
A) the adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms. B) the chemotactic response of phagocytes. C) adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels. D) dilation of blood vessels. E) the movement of phagocytes through walls of blood vessels. Answer: C |
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Which of the following statements is TRUE? |
A) All three types of interferons have the same effect on the body. B) Alpha interferon promotes phagocytosis. C) Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages. D) Alpha interferon acts against specific viruses. E) Beta interferon attacks invading viruses. Answer: C |
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Which of the following is found normally inserum? |
A) complement B) interferon C) histamine D) leukocytosis-promoting factor E) TLRs Answer: A |
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Each of the following is an effect of complementactivation EXCEPT |
A) interference with viral replication. B) bacterial cell lysis. C) opsonization. D) increased phagocytic activity. E) increased blood vessel permeability. Answer: A |
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Which of the following is an effect ofopsonization? |
A) increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms B) increased margination of phagocytes C) increased diapedesis of phagocytes D) inflammation E) cytolysis Answer: A |
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Normal microbiota provide protection frominfection in each of the following ways EXCEPT |
A) they produce antibacterial chemicals. B) they compete with pathogens for nutrients. C) they make the chemical environment unsuitable for nonresident bacteria. D) they produce lysozyme. E) they change the pH of the environment. Answer: D |
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Each of the following provides protection from phagocyticdigestion EXCEPT |
A) M protein. B) capsules. C) formation of phagolysosomes. D) leukocidins. E) biofilms. Answer: C |
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The antimicrobial effects of AMPs include all ofthe following EXCEPT |
A) inhibition of cell wall synthesis. B) lysis of bacterial cells. C) destruction of nucleic acids. D) pore formation in bacterial membranes. E) inhibition of phagocytosis. Answer: E |
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The swelling associated with inflammationdecreases when the fluid |
A) returns to the blood. B) goes into lymph capillaries. C) is excreted in urine. D) is lost as perspiration. E) is transported into macrophages. Answer: B |
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Which of the following statements about fixedmacrophages is FALSE? |
A) They are found in certain tissues and organs. B) They develop from neutrophils. C) They are cells of the mononuclear phagocytic system. D) They are mature monocytes. E) They gather at sites of infection. Answer: B |
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Phagocytes utilize all of the following tooptimize interaction with (getting to and getting hold of) microorganismsEXCEPT |
A) trapping a bacterium against a rough surface. B) opsonization. C) chemotaxis. D) lysozyme. E) complement. Answer: D |
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All of the following are effects of histamineEXCEPT |
A) vasodilation. B) fever. C) swelling. D) redness. E) pain. Answer: B |
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All of the following are effects of histamineEXCEPT |
A) destruction of an injurious agent. B) removal of an injurious agent. C) isolation of an injurious agent. D) repair of damaged tissue. E) production of antibodies. Answer: E |
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A chill is a sign that |
A) body temperature is falling. B) body temperature is rising. C) body temperature is not changing. D) the metabolic rate is decreasing. E) blood vessels are dilating. Answer: B |
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Which of the following statements is TRUE? |
A) There are at least thirty complement proteins. B) All of the complement proteins are constantly active in serum. C) Factors B, D, and P cause cytolysis. D) Complement activity is antigen-specific. E) Complement increases after immunization. Answer: A |
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Which of the following is mismatched? |
A) diapedesis — movement of leukocytes between capillary walls cells out of blood and into tissue B) chemotaxis — chemical degradation inside a phagolysosome C) abcess — a cavity created by tissue damage and filled with pus D) pus — tissue debris and dead phagocytes in a white or yellow fluid E) scab — dried blood clot over injured tissue Answer: B |
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All of the following are part of the mechanismof action of alpha and beta interferons EXCEPT |
A) they bind to the surface of uninfected cells. B) they are effective for long periods. C) they initiate manufacture of antiviral proteins. D) they disrupt stages of viral multiplication. E) they initiate transcription. Answer: B |
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The alternative pathway for complementactivation is initiated by |
A) lipid-carbohydrate complexes and C3. B) C5-C9. C) antigen-antibody reactions. D) factors released from phagocytes. E) factors released from damaged tissues. Answer: A |
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The classical pathway for complement activationis initiated by |
A) lipid-carbohydrate complexes and C3. B) C5-C9. C) antigen-antibody reactions. D) factors released from phagocytes. E) factors released from damaged tissues. Answer: C |
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Activation of C3a results in |
A) acute inflammation. B) increased blood vessel permeability. C) opsonization. D) attraction of phagocytes. E) cell lysis. Answer: A |
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Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unableto |
A) undergo chemotaxis. B) migrate. C) produce toxic oxygen products. D) attach to microorganisms and other foreign material. E) engulf microorganisms and other foreign material. Answer: C |
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Innate immunity includes all of the followingEXCEPT |
A) phagocytosis. B) inflammation. C) production of antibody. D) production of interferon. E) activation of complement. Answer: C |
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After ingesting a pathogen, lysosomal enzymesproduce all of the following EXCEPT |
A) complement. B) O2-. C) H2O2. D) OH. E) HOCl. Answer: A |
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Activation of C5-C9 results in |
A) activation of C3. B) fixation of complement. C) lysis of microbial cells. D) phagocytosis. E) inflammation. Answer: C |
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All of the following are true regarding NK cellsEXCEPT |
A) they are a type of lymphocyte. B) they are found in tissues of the lymphatic system. C) they have the ability to kill infected body cells and some tumor cells. D) they destroy infected body cells by phagocytosis. E) they release toxic substances that cause cell lysis or apoptosis. Answer: D |
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Which of the following is involved in resistanceto parasitic helminths? |
A) basophils B) eosinophils C) lymphocytes D) monocytes E) neutrophils Answer: B |
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Macrophages arise from which of the following? |
A) basophils B) eosinophils C) lymphocytes D) monocytes E) neutrophils Answer: D |
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All of the following pertain to fever EXCEPTthat it |
A) accelerates microbial growth by increasing iron absorption from the digestive tract. B) stimulates T lymphocyte activity. C) is caused by interleukin-1 and TNF-alpha coming into contact with the hypothalamus. D) intensifies the effect of antiviral interferons. E) can be initiated by specific types of pathogens. Answer: A |
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All of the following are iron-binding proteinsfound in humans EXCEPT |
A) lactoferrin. B) transferrin. C) hemoglobin. D) siderophorin. E) ferritin. Answer: D |
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All of the following occur during inflammation.What is the first step? |
A) diapedesis B) margination C) phagocyte migration D) repair E) vasodilation Answer: E |
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The lectin pathway for complement action isinitiated by |
A) mannose on host membranes. B) mannose on the surface of microbes. C) lectins of the microbe. D) gram-negative cell walls. E) gram-positive cell walls. Answer: B |
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All of the following are components of theinflammatory process EXCEPT |
A) dilation of blood vessels. B) release of histamines and prostaglandins. C) chemotaxis. D) diapedesis. E) antibody synthesis. Answer: E |
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Several inherited deficiencies in the complementsystem occur in humans. Which of the following would be the MOST severe? |
A) deficiency of C3 B) deficiency of C5 C) deficiency of C6 D) deficiency of C7 E) deficiency of C8 Answer: A |
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Which of the following statements about theclassical pathway of complement activation is FALSE? |
A) C1 is the first protein activated in the classical pathway. B) The C1 protein complex is initiated by antigen-antibody complexes. C) C3 is not involved in the classical pathway. D) Cleaved fragments of some of the proteins act to increase inflammation. E) C3b causes opsonization. Answer: C |
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Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin havesimilar mechanisms of action in that they both cause damage to the bacterial |
A) cell membrane. B) capsule. C) cell wall. D) DNA. E) ribosomes. Answer: C |
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Which non-specific defense mechanism ismismatched with its associated body structure or body fluid? |
A) lysozyme — tears and saliva B) mucociliary escalator — intestines C) very acidic pH — stomach D) keratin and tightly packed cells — skin E) cerumen and sebum — ear Answer: B |
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What type of immunity results from vaccination? |
A) innate immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) naturally acquired passive immunity D) artificially acquired active immunity E) artificially acquired passive immunity Answer: D |
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What type of immunity results from transfer ofantibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means ofinjection? |
A) innate immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) naturally acquired passive immunity D) artificially acquired active immunity E) artificially acquired passive immunity Answer: E |
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What type of immunity results from recovery frommumps? |
A) innate immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) naturally acquired passive immunity D) artificially acquired active immunity E) artificially acquired passive immunity Answer: B |
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Which of the following is the best definition ofepitope? |
A) specific regions on antigens that interact with T-cell receptors B) specific regions on antigens that interact with MHC class molecules C) specific regions on antigens that interact with haptens D) specific regions on antigens that interact with antibodies E) specific regions on antigens that interact with perforins Answer: D |
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Newborns' immunity due to the transfer ofantibodies across the placenta is an example of |
A) innate immunity. B) naturally acquired active immunity. C) naturally acquired passive immunity. D) artificially acquired active immunity. E) artificially acquired passive immunity. Answer: C |
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Which of the following statements is NOT apossible outcome of antigen-antibody reaction? |
A) clonal deletion B) activation of complement C) opsonization D) ADCC E) agglutination Answer: A |
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Which of the following cells is NOT an APC? |
A) dentritic cells B) macrophages C) mature B cells D) natural killer cells E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are APCs. Answer: D |
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When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resultingaction is referred to as |
A) agglutination. B) opsonization. C) ADCC. D) apoptosis. E) neutralization. Answer: E |
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CD4+ T cellsare activated by |
A) interaction between CD4+ and MHC II. B) interaction between TCRs and MHC II. C) cytokines released by dendritic cells. D) cytokines released by B cells. E) complement. Answer: A |
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Which of the following recognizes antigensdisplayed on host cells with MHC II? |
A) TC cell B) B cell C) TH cell D) natural killer cell E) basophil Answer: C |
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The specificity of an antibody is due to |
A) its valence. B) the H chains. C) the L chains. D) the constant portions of the H and L chains. E) the variable portions of the H and L chains. Answer: E |
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristicof B cells? |
A) They originate in bone marrow. B) They have antibodies on their surfaces. C) They are responsible for the memory response. D) They are responsible for antibody formation. E) They recognize antigens associated with MHC I. Answer: E |
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristicof cellular immunity? |
A) The cells originate in bone marrow. B) Cells are processed in the thymus gland. C) It can inhibit the immune response. D) B cells make antibodies. E) T cells react with antigens. Answer: D |
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Plasma cells are activated by a(n) |
A) antigen. B) T cell. C) B cell. D) memory cell. E) APC. Answer: A |
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The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tearsare |
A) IgG. B) IgM. C) IgA. D) IgD. E) IgE. Answer: C |
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The antibodies found almost entirely and only onthe surface of B cells (not secreted from them), and which always exist asmonomers, are |
A) IgG. B) IgM. C) IgA. D) IgD. E) IgE. Answer: D |
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The antibodies that can bind to large parasitesare |
A) IgG. B) IgM. C) IgA. D) IgD. E) IgE. Answer: E |
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In addition to IgG, the antibodies that can fixcomplement are |
A) IgM. B) IgA. C) IgD. D) IgE. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: A |
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Large antibodies that agglutinate antigens are |
A) IgG. B) IgM. C) IgA. D) IgD. E) IgE. Answer: B |
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The most abundant class of antibodies in serumis |
A) IgG. B) IgM. C) IgA. D) IgD. E) IgE. Answer: A |
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Which of the following statements is FALSE? |
A) The variable region of a heavy chain is partially responsible for binding with antigen. B) The variable region of a light chain is partially responsible for binding with antigen. C) The Fc region attaches to a host cell. D) The constant region of a heavy chain is the same for all antibodies. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: D |
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Which of the following is the best definition ofantigen? |
A) something foreign in the body B) a chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies C) a chemical that combines with antibodies D) a pathogen E) a protein that combines with antibodies Answer: B |
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Which of the following WBCs are NOT lymphocytes? |
A) cytotoxic T cells B) helper T cells C) NK cells D) M cells E) B cells Answer: D |
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The following events elicit an antibodyresponse. What is the third step? |
A) Antigen-digest goes to surface of APC. B) APC phagocytizes antigen. C) B cell is activated. D) TH cell recognizes antigen-digest and MHC II. E) TH cell produces cytokines. Answer: D |
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Which of the following bacterial componentswould most likely result in B cell stimulation by T-independent antigens? |
A) capsule B) flagellum C) pili D) ribosome E) plasmid Answer: A |
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The presence of which of the following indicatesa current infection rather than a previous infection or vaccination? |
A) IgA B) IgG C) IgM D) IgD E) IgE Answer: C |
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Which of the following destroys virus-infected cells? |
A) CTL B) Treg C) TH D) dendritic cells E) B cells Answer: A |
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The following events occur in cellular immunity,leading to a response from TH cells.What is the third step? |
A) Antibodies are produced. B) Dendritic cell takes up antigen. C) Antigen enters M cell. D) TH cell produces cytokines. E) TH cells proliferate. Answer: E |
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Cytokines released by TH1 cells |
A) activate CD8+ cells to CTLs. B) convert TH1 cells to TH2 cells. C) convert TH2 cells to TH1 cells. D) kill parasites. E) convert B cells to T cells. Answer: A |
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Which one of the following causes transmembranechannels in target cells? |
A) granzymes B) hapten C) IL-1 D) IL-2 E) perforin Answer: E |
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At a minimum, the human immune system is capableof recognizing approximately how many different antigens? |
A) 105 B) 1010 C) 1015 D) 1020 E) 1025 Answer: C |
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Thymic selection |
A) destroys T cells that do not recognize self-molecules of MHC. B) destroys B cells that make antibodies against self. C) destroys MHC molecules. D) destroys CD4+ cells that attack self. E) activates B cells. Answer: A |
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Which of the following statements aboutnatural killer cells is FALSE? |
A) They destroy virus-infected cells. B) They destroy tumor cells. C) They destroy cells lacking MHC I. D) They are stimulated by an antigen. E) None of the answers are correct; all of these statements are true. Answer: D |
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An antibody's Fc region can be bound by |
A) antibodies. B) macrophages. C) T helper cells. D) B cells. E) CTLs. Answer: B |
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A Treg celldeficiency could result in |
A) increased number of viral infections. B) increased number of bacterial infections. C) autoimmunity. D) increased severity of bacterial infections. E) transplant rejection. Answer: C |
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ADCC is a process that is most effective indestroying |
A) eukaryotic pathogens. B) prions. C) extracellular viruses. D) bacterial pathogens. E) bacterial toxins. Answer: A |
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IL-2, produced by TH cells, |
A) activates macrophages. B) stimulates TH cell maturation. C) causes phagocytosis. D) activates antigen-presenting cells. E) activates TC cells to CTLs. Answer: B |
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Which of the following statements about IL-12 isFALSE? |
A) It activates macrophages. B) It inhibits some tumor cells. C) It activates the TH1 pathway. D) It causes autoimmune diseases. E) It causes TH cells to respond to HIV. Answer: D |
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All of the following are habitats forextremophiles EXCEPT |
A) an acid mine wash. B) the topmost portions of the Atlantic Ocean. C) inside rock. D) a salt-evaporating pond. E) 100°C water. Answer: B |
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Which of the following organisms is using sulfuras a source of energy? |
A) Thiobacillus: H2S → S0 B) Desulfovibrio: SO42- → H2S C) Proteus: Amino acids → H2S D) Redwood tree: SO42- → Amino acids E) Photosynthetic bacteria: H2S → S0 Answer: A |
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Which of the following is NOT a symbiotic pairof organisms? |
A) elk and rumen bacteria B) orchid and mycorrhizae C) onions and arbuscules D) bean plant and Rhizobium E) sulfur and Thiobacillus Answer: E |
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All of the following are true of mycorrhizaeEXCEPT |
A) they are fungi that form beneficial relationships with plants. B) an example is the food delicacy truffles. C) the vesicular-arbuscular mycorrhizae are a type of ectomycorrhizae. D) they enable plants to absorb soil nutrients. Answer: C |
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The guano deposited by seabirds is used a sourcefor which of the following fertilizer components? |
A) phosphate B) nitrate C) sulfate D) carbonate E) potassium Answer: A |
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Adding untreated sewage to a freshwater lakewould cause the biochemical oxygen demand to |
A) increase. B) decrease. C) stay the same. D) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided. Answer: A |
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In freshwater lakes and ponds, the majority ofphotosynthetic microbes are located in the ________ zone(s). |
A) benthic B) profundal C) limnetic D) littoral E) benthic and profundal Answer: C |
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All of the following are used in secondarysewage treatment EXCEPT |
A) trickling filters. B) sludge granules or floc formation. C) aeration. D) anaerobic digestion. E) activated sludge. Answer: D |
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6H2S + 6CO2 >(light)> 6S0 + glucose |
A) takes place under aerobic conditions. B) takes place under anaerobic conditions. C) The amount of oxygen does not make any difference. Answer: B |
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Which of the following requires aerobicconditions? |
A) nitrogen fixation B) sludge digestion C) primary sewage treatment D) secondary sewage treatment E) water treatment Answer: D |
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All of the following organisms are involved incarbon fixation EXCEPT |
A) green and purple sulfur bacteria. B) cyanobacteria. C) lichens. D) algae. E) mycorrhizae. Answer: E |
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What stage of sewage treatment produces methane? |
A) primary treatment B) secondary treatment C) tertiary treatment D) sludge digestion Answer: D |
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NH3 → NO2- |
A) takes place under aerobic conditions. B) takes place under anaerobic conditions. C) The amount of oxygen does not make any difference. Answer: A |
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Bioremediation of petroleum |
A) takes place under aerobic conditions. B) takes place under anaerobic conditions. C) The amount of oxygen does not make any difference. Answer: A |
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Biochemical oxygen demand is a measure of the |
A) number of bacteria present in a water sample. B) amount of oxygen present in a water sample. C) amount of organic matter present in a water sample. D) amount of undissolved solid matter present in a water sample. Answer: C |
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For the biogeochemical cycles of the followingelements, which does NOT have an atmospheric cycle? |
A) carbon B) phosphorus C) sulfur D) nitrogen Answer: B |
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Which of the following is required forcomposting? |
A) addition of non-biodegradable materials B) addition of nitrogen and phosphorus sources C) periodic turning or raking of the compost pile D) addition of thermophilic microbes E) constant anaerobic conditions Answer: C |
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Which of the following terms describes NO3- → NO2- → N2O → N2? |
A) ammonification B) denitrification C) nitrification D) nitrogen fixation E) anaerobic respiration Answer: B |
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Which of the following is an assimilationprocess? |
A) Thiobacillus: H2S → S0 B) Desulfovibrio: SO42- → H2S C) Proteus: Sulfhydryl-containing amino acids → H2S D) Redwood tree: SO42- → Sulfhydryl groups of amino acids E) Photosynthetic bacteria: H2S → S0 Answer: D |
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Which wastewater treatment process isresponsible for removal of most of the BOD in sewage? |
A) anaerobic sludge digestion B) primary sewage treatment C) secondary sewage treatment D) tertiary sewage treatment E) water treatment Answer: C |
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Which wastewater treatment process producesBOD-containing effluent used for irrigation? |
A) anaerobic sludge digestion B) primary sewage treatment C) secondary sewage treatment D) tertiary sewage treatment E) water treatment Answer: C |
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Residual chlorine must be maintained in |
A) anaerobic sludge digestion. B) primary sewage treatment. C) secondary sewage treatment. D) tertiary sewage treatment. E) water treatment. Answer: E |
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Sedimentation of sludge occurs in |
A) anaerobic sludge digestion. B) primary sewage treatment. C) secondary sewage treatment. D) tertiary sewage treatment. E) water treatment. Answer: B |
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The product of which process contains thehighest BOD? |
A) anaerobic sludge digestion B) primary sewage treatment C) secondary sewage treatment D) tertiary sewage treatment E) water treatment Answer: B |
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Zoogloea form flocculentmasses in |
A) anaerobic sludge digestion. B) primary sewage treatment. C) activated sludge digestion. D) tertiary sewage treatment. E) water treatment. Answer: C |
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Drinking water supplies are routinely tested forthe presence of |
A) Giardia. B) Cryptosporidium. C) fecal coliforms. D) fecal viruses. E) Vibrio. Answer: C |
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Aerobic respiration occurs in |
A) anaerobic sludge digestion. B) primary sewage treatment. C) secondary sewage treatment. D) tertiary sewage treatment. E) water treatment. Answer: C |
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In the ONPG and MUG test for fecal coliforms, asample that is positive for E. coli will be |
A) positive for ONPG; fluorescent in UV light. B) negative for ONPG; fluorescent in UV light. C) positive for ONPG; non-fluorescent in UV light. D) negative for ONPG; non-fluorescent in UV light. Answer: A |
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Filtration to remove protozoa occurs in |
A) anaerobic sludge digestion. B) primary sewage treatment. C) secondary sewage treatment. D) tertiary sewage treatment. E) water treatment Answer: E |
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Which of the following do NOT fix atmospheric nitrogen? |
A) cyanobacteria B) lichens C) mycorrhizae D) Rhizobium E) Azotobacter Answer: C |
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Which of the following is mismatched? |
A) CO2 + 4H2 → CH4 + 2H2O — Methane-producing bacteria B) 2 NO2- + O2→ 2 NO3 — Nitrobacter C) 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 — Clostridium D) N2 + 6H+ → 2NH3 — Beijerinckia E) SO42- + 10H+ → H2S + 4H2O — Desulfovibrio Answer: C |
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Bacteria can increase the Earth's temperature by |
A) generating a great deal of heat in metabolism. B) producing CH4, which is a greenhouse gas. C) using the greenhouse gas CO2. D) providing nutrients for plant growth. E) oxidizing CH4. Answer: B |
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Which of the following is NOT characteristic offecal coliforms? |
A) gram-negative B) non-spore forming C) rod-shaped D) lactose-fermenting E) pathogenic Answer: E |
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Which one of the following processes in sewagetreatment requires bacterial metabolism? |
A) chlorination B) primary treatment C) removal of BOD D) sedimentation E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C |
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In the early 1900s, cities such as Philadelphiareduced the incidence of typhoid fever by |
A) isolating human carriers. B) using tertiary water treatment systems. C) filtering municipal drinking water through sand-bed filters. D) requiring residents to boil drinking water. E) mass vaccination of residents. Answer: C |
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The release of phosphate-containing detergentsinto a river would |
A) kill algae. B) increase algal growth. C) kill bacteria. D) improve the water quality. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B |
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Untreated sewage is released into a river. Whichof the following statements is FALSE? |
A) The untreated sewage is a health hazard. B) The untreated sewage increases the BOD. C) The untreated sewage decreases the dissolved oxygen. D) The untreated sewage kills bacteria. E) All of the statements are true. Answer: D |
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Bacteria that are used as biosensors |
A) migrate to the hazardous chemical. B) do not emit light in the presence of a hazardous chemical. C) degrade hazardous chemicals. D) have chlorophyll. E) may use the lux operon. Answer: E |
