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72 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1.
If a prospective blood donor had taken the drug, Tegison, what will be the deferral time policy? A) accepted B) deferred for 3 months C) permanently deferred D) deferred for 6 months |
c) permanently deferred
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2.
An immunoglobulin is... A) a protein molecule produced in response to an antigen B) a protein molecule produced in response to an antibody C) a substance that aids in the primary immune response D) a substance that aids in the growth and proliferation of leukocytes |
A) a protein molecule produced in response to an antigen
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3.
"Autologous" transfusion refers to... A) a parent donating blood for his or her child B) an individual donating blood for a friend C) an individual donating blood for a relative D) an individual donating blood for his or her own transfusion |
D) an individual donating blood for his or her own transfusion
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4.
At what temperature do IgM antibodies react? A) 22°C B) 37°C C) 56°C D) 42°C |
a) 22
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5.
Which immunoglobulin exists in a pentameric configuration? A) IgG B) IgM C) IgA D) IgE |
b) IgM
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6.
Which of the following antibodies are considered the most significant in blood banking because they react at body temperature? A) IgG B) IgM C) IgA D) IgE |
a) IgG
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Which of the following is consistent with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?
A) recipient antibody coating donor red cells B) maternal antibody coating fetal red cells C) fetal antibody coating maternal red cells D) autoantibody coating individual's own red cells |
B) maternal antibody coating fetal red cells
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How many IgG molecules must be present on the red cell for a positive IAT to occur?
A) 10 B) 100 C) 50 D) 500 |
b) 100
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9.
Platelets require a minimum ph of ... A) 6.0 B) 6.2 C) 7.0 D) 7.2 |
b) 6.2
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How is a 40:1 ratio of serum to cells prepared for the AHG test?
A) 5 drops of serum + 1 drop of a 5% v/v red cell suspension B) 1 drop of serum + 1 drop of a 5%v/v red cell suspension C) 2 drops serum + 1 drop of a 5% v/v red cell suspension D) 1 drop serum + 5 drops of a 5% v/v red cell suspension |
C) 2 drops serum + 1 drop of a 5% v/v red cell suspension
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11.
What class of immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta? A) IgM B) IgG C) IgE D) IgD |
b) IgE
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Which metabolic pathway permits the accumulation of 2,3 DPG?
A) glycolysis B) Luebering-Rapoport shunt C) pentose phosphate shunt D) methemoglobin reductase |
b) Luebering Rapoport Shunt
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IgG-coated red cells will be phagocytized by what effector cells?
A) monocytes/macrophages B) T cells C) eosinophils D) basophils |
A) monocytes/macrophages
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14.
What is the minimum hemoglobin level for a potential allogeneic donor? A) 11 g/dL B) 12 g/dL C) 12.5 g/dL D) 14 g/dL |
c) 12.5 g/dl
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Why is incubation omitted in the direct AHG test?
A) Polyspecific AHG contains a higher dose of anti-IgG. B) Incubation will cause lysis of red cells. C) Incubation elutes complement components from red cells. D) In vivo antigen (antibody complex is already formed. |
D) In vivo antigen (antibody complex is already formed.
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State the primary function of hemoglobin.
A) iron metabolism B) porphyrin synthesis C) oxygen transport D) signal transduction |
c) oxygen transport
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What is responsible for recognition of the antibody-binding site to homologous antigen?
A) phenotype B) solubility of antigen C) variable region of light/heavy chain D) complementarity |
c) variable region of light/heavy chain
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Cryoprecipitate is indicated for all of the following disorder, except:
A) hypofibrinogenemia B) hemophilia A C) Von Willebrand's disease D) hemophilia B |
d) hemophilia B
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19.
In the normal hemoglobin--oxygen dissociation curve, what percentage of oxygen is released to the tissues when PO2 averages 40 mmHg? A) 75% B) 25% C) 100% D) 50% |
b) 25%
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Why is low ionic strength solution (LISS) used in blood banking?
A) It reduces the incubation time. B) It reduces the net negative surface charge on the RBC. C) It increases the zeta potential. D) It enhances aggregation |
d) it increase aggregation
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What does polyspecific AHG contain?
A) IgG B) C3b C) C3d D) all of the above |
d) all of the above
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What is the purpose of washing cells in the AHG test?
A) to dilute serum B) to remove all unbound protein C) to remove all bound protein D) to exclude a low affinity antibody |
b) to remove all unbound protein
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What type of globulin does the antiglobulin test detect?
A) IgG alloantibodies B) IgG autoantibodies C) C3b complement components D) all of the above |
d) all of the above
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What does hemolysis represent in an antigen-antibody reaction?
A) a negative result B) a positive result C) an inconclusive result D) none of the above |
b) a positive result
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Which immunoglobulin is found in greatest concentration in serum?
A) IgE B) IgM C) IgG D) IgA |
c) IgG
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26.
Which metabolic pathway is responsible for generating 90% of the ATP for the RBC? A) pentose phosphate shunt B) Luebering-Rapoport shunt C) glycolysis D) methemoglobin reductase |
C) glycolysis
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What is the normal life span of an RBC?
A) 100 days B) 120 days C) 120 hours D) 2 days |
b) 120 days
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If platelets are to be stored for 5 days on a rotator, what is the optimal storage temperature?
A) 1°–6°C B) 20°-24°C C) 35°-37°C D) 1°-10°C |
b) 20 to 24 C
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What is the minimum hemoglobin level for a potential autologous donor?
A) 11 g/dL B) 12 g/dL C) 12.5 g/dL D) 14 g/dL |
a) 11 g/dl
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What dose of RhIg would be appropriate for a D-negative woman who has had a miscarriage at 11 weeks gestation?
A) 300 µg B) 120 µg C) 50 µg D) Any of the above |
c) 50 ug
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A patient has a baseline platelet count of 30,000/µL. Upon receiving a platelet pool of 4 random platelets, what would you expect the post-transfusion platelet count to be?
A) 35,000/µL B) 50,000/µL C) 80,000/µL D) 100,000/µL |
b) 50, 000 uL
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What is the deferral period for a donor who has received a live attenuated vaccine for rubella?
A) 2 weeks B) 4 weeks C) no deferral period D) 8 weeks |
b) 4 weeks
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What substances are responsible for the activation of the alternate complement pathway?
A) enzymes B) polysaccharides C) proteins D) all of the above |
b) polysaccharides
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Which of the following are produced after exposure to genetically different nonself antigens of the same species?
A) alloantibodies B) autoantibodies C) drug-induced antibodies D) all of the above |
b) alloantibodies
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What cells are considered polymorphonuclear granulocytes?
A) monocytes B) eosinophils C) lymphocytes D) none of the above |
b) eosinophils
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All of the following are important in evaluating a positive DAT except:
A) patient diagnosis B) drug therapy C) transfusion history D) donation history |
d) donation history
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All of the following are consistent with a "shift to the right" of the hemoglobin (oxygen dissociation curve except:
A) increased 2,3 DPG B) increased blood temperature C) increased ph D) increased CO2 |
c) increased pH
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The indirect antiglobulin test detects which antigen-antibody reactions?
A) in vivo B) in vitro C) both in vivo and in vitro D) none of the above |
b) in vitro
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What is the incubation time for the IAT when saline is used instead of LISS?
A) 10 minutes B) 15 minutes C) 30 minutes D) 1 hour |
c) 30 minutes
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The antihuman globulin (AHG) test was discovered in 1945 by whom?
A) Landsteiner B) Mollison C) Coombs D) Sanger |
c) Coombs
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The RBC membrane is relatively permeable to all of the following except:
A) chloride B) sodium C) bicarbonate D) water |
b) sodium
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All of the following are characteristics of a secondary immune response except:
A) Antibodies are formed quickly. B) There is higher avidity for antigen. C) A higher dose of antigen is required to form antibodies. D) A lower dose of antigen is required to form antibodies. |
c) a high dose of antigen is required to form antibodies
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A potential allogenic donor must meet all of the criteria below to be able to donate blood, except;
A) hemoglobin must be equal to 11.0 g/dL. B) temperature must be less than or equal to 370C o.r 99.50F C) weight must be greater than or equal to 110 lbs. D) pulse must be 50-100 bpm and blood pressure less than or equal to 180/100. |
a) hemoglobin must be equal to 11.0 g/dl
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At what temperature is the incubation phase of the AHG test?
A) 22°C B) 37°C C) 4°C D) 56°C |
b) 37C
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What Rh type does a mother have to be to produce antibodies to Rh(D) from an Rh positive infant?
A) O positive B) Rh positive C) Rh negative D) Kell negative |
c) Rh negative
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What cells are responsible for mounting a secondary response when exposure to the same antigen occurs?
A) memory T/B cells B) neutrophils C) plasma cells D) myeloblasts |
A) memory T/B cells
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If a prospective blood donor has participated in a blood drive Jan. 25, 2012, at least how many days/weeks must pass before donating whole blood again?
A) 56 days B) 2 weeks C) 30 days D) 12 weeks |
a) 56 days
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Which red cell preservative has a storage time of 42 days?
A) ACD B) CPDA-1 C) AS-1 D) CPD |
c) AS-1
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What is the normal platelet count range per cubic millimeter?
A) 100-350 B) 150,000-440,000 C) 50,000-200,000 D) 350,000-500,000 |
b) 150,000 - 440,000
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In an immune response, __________ antibodies are formed before _______.
A) IgG, IgA B) IgM, IgG C) IgG, IgM D) IgM, IgA |
b) IgM, IgG
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The portion of the immunoglobulin molecule which determine class:
A) light chain B) kappa chain C) lambda chain D) heavy chain |
d) heavy chain
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The acceptable final hematocrit for a unit of packed RBCs must be less than or eaqual to:
A) 95% B) 38% C) 80% D) 70% |
c) 80%
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In Mendel's law of separation, the first-filial generation is:
A) recessive B) homozygous C) heterozygous D) autologous |
c) heterozygous
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A) 15%
B) 85% C) 50% D) 35% |
b) 85%
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Where are ABH substances detected in secretors?
A) tears B) saliva C) milk D) all of the above |
d) all of the above
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What is a "lectin"?
A) a protein produced from immunized rabbits and cloned for specificity B) a foreign protein that will elicit an immune response in most individuals C) seed extracts that agglutinate human cells with moderate specificity D) a substance that will agglutinate sensitized cells in the presence of complement |
c) seed extracts that agglutinate human cells with moderate specificity
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Which severe outcome can be caused by indirect bilirubin levels greater than 18 mg/dL in the newborn infant?
A) hydrops fetalis B) kernicterus C) bilirubinemia D) bilirubinuria |
b) kernicterus
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Active immunization induced by Rh(D) antigen can be prevented by the concurrent administration of:
A) gamma globulin B) Rh immunoglobulin C) alpha-1 protease inhibitor D) immune serum globulin |
b) Rh immunoglobulin
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What does Rh genotype refer to?
A) antigens detected on a red cell by serologic methods B) antibodies detected in serum by serologic methods C) Rh genes inherited from each parent D) Rh genes inherited from the mother |
c) Rh genes inherited from each parent
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In which type of hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), the first-born is affected?
A) ABO B) Rh C) Lewis D) P |
a) ABO
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A) substitutions
B) insertions C) deletions D) all of the above |
dL all of the above
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Which type of genetic change (mutation) is incapable of reverting back to the original phenotype?
A) duplication B) deletion C) recombinations D) insertion |
b) deletion
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11.
How are the Rh antigens inherited? A) X-linked recessive B) codominant alleles C) X-linked dominant D) none of the above |
b) codominant alleles
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In the MN blood group system, a person who inherits an "M" allele and "N" allele expresses both M and N antigens on the red blood cells. Which of the following is true?
A) M is dominant to N B) N is dominant to M C) M an N are codominant alleles D) M and N are located on the same chromosome |
c) M and N are codominant alleles
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What is the source of anti-A1 lectin?
A) Bandeiraea simplicifolia B) Dolichos biflorus C) Ulex europaeus D) all of the above |
b) dolichos biflorus
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Most Rh antibodies are of what immunoglobulin class?
A) IgM B) IgG C) IgA D) IgE |
b) IgG
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Which of the following unit/s is/are appropriate for neonatal exchange transfusions?
A) group A RBC, A FFP, CMV-negative B) group AB negative RBC, O FFP, CMV-positive C) group O positive RBC, B FFP, CMV positive D) group O negative RBC, A,B FFP, CMV-negative |
D) group O negative RBC, A,B FFP, CMV-negative
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Which ABO group will react the weakest with anti-H lectin? A) A1 B) B C) A2B D) A1B |
D) A1B
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Why is the Rh-positive first-born of an Rh-negative mother unaffected by Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?
A) The plasma volume of the mother is tripled during the first pregnancy which dilutes anti-D. B) The titer of anti-D is too low to cause destruction of fetal antigens. C) The mother has not been immunized to the D antigen before placental separation. D) none of the above |
C) The mother has not been immunized to the D antigen before placental separation.
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A newborn hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL is indicative of severe anemia and corresponds to which zone of the Liley graph?
A) zone I B) zone II C) zone III D) none of the above |
c) zone III
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A gene, such as the O gene, that produces no detectable product is called:
A) an amorph B) a trait C) an allele D) recessive |
a) an amorph
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Anti-A from a group B individual is primarily what class of immunoglobulin?
A) IgM B) IgG C) IgA D) all of the above |
a) IgM
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