Cci A15

Front 1

Which cardiac chamber is closest to the spine?

Back 1

Left atrium

Front 2

Which layer of the heart is most affected by Staphylococcus aureus infection

Back 2

Endocardium

Front 3

A 5'2" patient weights 225 will have more_____ cardiac axis than A 6ft 185lbs patient

Back 3

Horizontal

Front 4

When evaluating the Left Atrium a volume index of 44ml/m2 indicates

Back 4

Moderately dilated LA

Front 5

What Doppler measurement is necessary to calculate the end diastolic pressure in the pulmonary artery

Back 5

End diastolic velocity of pulmonary regurgitation

Front 6

Which of the following views is utilized to get the best view of an AV canal defect

Back 6

Apical

Front 7

Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be demonstrated in a patient with an aortic valve area of .7cm2

Back 7

Cyanosis

Front 8

Which of the transducer position will work best for the 2D evaluation of all of the sinus of valsalva simultaneously

Back 8

PSAX

Front 9

The peak systolic velocity of TR is 4/ms the BP is 120/80 & the 2.7 IVC collapses >50% with respiration. What level of pulmonary Hypertension is there

Back 9

Severe

Front 10

If the distance to a reflector decrease by one half, how does this affect the transmit and return of time of the pulse

Back 10

Decreases by Half

Front 11

Which of the following is unaffected by isolated mitral stenosis

Back 11

LV wall thickness

Front 12

Chest pain increasing at night and DOE, accompanied by a "knocking" sound with auscultation, most likely indicates which?

Back 12

Pericarditis

Front 13

Which system control will simultaneously enhance far field echoes and diminish near field echoes?

Back 13

time gain compensation

Front 14

Which of the following is true regarding rhabdomyomas?

Back 14

They are commonly identified in the right heart chambers.

Front 15

Which of the following best describes the Doppler flow evaluation in severe cases of aortic coarctation?

Back 15

The flow at the stenosis will become a high velocity monophasic waveform with forward flow in diastole and the flow in the abdominal aorta will be very low velocity and monophasic.

Front 16

All of the following are characteristics of a Doppler tracing of a stenotic tricuspid valve, except?

Back 16

decreased mean pressure gradient

Front 17

Which of the following describes a technique used to differentiate constrictive pericarditis from restrictive cardiomyopathy?

Back 17

Use tissue Doppler to assess the mitral annulus

Front 18

Which method of mitral regurgitation assessment is most accurate for evaluating a mechanical MVR in the apical 4 chamber view?

Back 18

PISA radius

Front 19

Aside from the m-mode recording of the left ventricular motion, what other m-mode tracing can provide information regarding left ventricular systolic function?

Back 19

aortic m-mode of cusp separation

Front 20

The peak velocity of pulmonary insufficiency can be used to assess:

Back 20

mean pulmonary artery pressure

Front 21

Which of the following is an expected E/A ratio in a patient with severe acute aortic regurgitation?

Back 21

2.2 (>1.5)

Front 22

All of the following are characteristics of constrictive pericarditis, except:

Back 22

pericardial rub

Front 23

All of the following describe aortic prosthetic dehiscence, except:

Back 23

causes left ventricular pressure overload

Front 24

All of the following abnormalities should include the evaluation of the abdominal aorta, except?

Back 24

patent ductus arteriosus

Front 25

All of the following correctly describe end diastolic pressure in the left ventricle, except:

Back 25

is normally at least 3X the right ventricular diastolic pressure

Front 26

Just after the ________________ on the EKG, mechanical systole occurs in the left ventricle.

Back 26

QRS complex

Front 27

Which echocardiographic view provides the best 2D evaluation of aortic stenosis?

Back 27

Parasternal short axis

Front 28

Which of the following lists the deceleration time and E/E' for a patient with grade II diastolic dysfunction of the LV?

Back 28

170ms, 12

Front 29

The ____________ the pulse packet used in color doppler, the better the flow sensitivity.

Back 29

larger

Front 30

A patient presents with recent onset of significant orthopnea and pulmonary edema. Which of the following echo findings can explain these symptoms?

Back 30

acute onset of severe MR

Front 31

The image is from an echo with a suspected ASD. The color Doppler evaluation of the interatrial septum in multiple views does not demonstrate a defect. What is the explanation for the abnormal atrial septal appearance on the image?

Back 31

The ultrasound beam is parallel to the septum causing drop-out.

Front 32

Which of the following describes findings associated with asymmetrical septal hypertrophy seen with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?

Back 32

septal to posterior wall thickness ratio of 1.3:1 or greater

Front 33

You are performing mitral regurgitation assessment on a transesophageal echo by measuring the PISA radius of the jet. After optimizing the color flow of the mitral regurgitation jet, which of the following console adjustments should be made before freezing the image?

Back 33

shift the color baseline up to between 20 - 40cm/s to allow aliasing

Front 34

Which of the following is the least likely related cardiac finding in a patient with isolated mild aortic regurgitation?

Back 34

hypercontractile, enlarged left ventricle

Front 35

The normal acceleration time for the pulmonary artery is greater than or equal to _____________msec.

Back 35

120

Front 36

All of the following controls adjust the number of shades of gray displayed of the 2D image, except?

Back 36

wall filter

Front 37

The double diamond sign on an m-mode tracing of the MV is indicative of mid diastolic closure caused by _____________.

Back 37

elevated LV diastolic pressures

Front 38

Marantic endocarditis is another term to describe

Back 38

Libman-Sacks endocarditis

Front 39

A patient presents for a 6 month follow up echocardiogram for a reported aortic peak velocity of 3.3m/s and AVA of 1.4cm2. On today's exam, the CW evaluation demonstrates an aortic peak velocity of 2.5m/s with the same AVA. Which of the following could explain the variation in measurements?

Back 39

decrease in EF% from last exam

Front 40

Flattening of the IVS is least likely to be associated with which of the following?

Back 40

3mm muscular VSD

Front 41

All of the following are methods used to differentiate a mitral regurgitation waveform from an aortic stenosis waveform, except?

Back 41

difference in display on opposite sides of Doppler baseline

Front 42

In order to obtain the mean pressure gradient of the aortic valve, you must

Back 42

trace the outer edge of the Doppler waveform recorded from flow through the aortic valve

Front 43

Which of the following cardiac wall segments are fed by the left circumflex artery?

Back 43

basal anterolateral

Front 44

Which of the following techniques can be used to most accurately differentiate a left sided cardiac mass from a sonographic artifact?

Back 44

Use microbubbles to delineate the chamber walls.

Front 45

. The tissue of the interventricular septum will be best visualized when:

Back 45

the US beam is perpendicular to the long axis of the septum

Front 46

Which type of murmur is associated with mild aortic stenosis?

Back 46

systolic ejection

Front 47

. A 18yr old male patient presents for an echo due to occasional dyspnea and a possible cardiac tumor seen on a recent CT scan of the chest. The chart states that he has a history of systemic HTN and tuberous sclerosis. What is the most likely diagnosis if the echo confirms the presence of a cardiac tumor?

Back 47

rhabdomyoma

Front 48

. Impaired relaxation of the left ventricle is commonly associated with all of the following, except:

Back 48

pulmonary HTN

Front 49

You identify mitral valve prolapse on an echo. Which of the following describes what you should do to evaluate this patient for a commonly associated structural defect?

Back 49

Evaluate the atrial septum for a secundum defect.

Front 50

In a patient with _____________, the anterior leaflet of the MV is split giving the appearance of 3 leaflets in the valve.

Back 50

Cleft mitral valve

Front 51

Which of the following is least likely to lead to the acute onset of mitral regurgitation?

Back 51

an isolated flail chordae

Front 52

Which imaging artifact is caused by nonspecular reflections from a rough surface and wave interference?

Back 52

speckle

Front 53

The Doppler shift is:

Back 53

the difference between the transmitted frequency and the reflected frequency.

Front 54

Which of the following statements best describes Starling's Law?

Back 54

As venous return increases, stroke volume will increase.

Front 55

Which of the following adjustments would improve the appearance of contrast on the echo image?

Back 55

Decrease output power

Front 56

While scanning an obese patient, you apply color Doppler to the mitral valve in the apical four chamber view. When you adjust the placement of the box, there is a delay between your adjustment and the box responding to the movement. How can you correct this?

Back 56

activate the zoom function over the mitral valve

Front 57

A patient presents for an echo after a recent heart cath for pre-op evaluation for bypass surgery. The cath report states that the left anterior descending artery is 99% blocked and stent deployment was unsuccessful. What area of the heart should be closely evaluated for abnormal motion and potential thrombus formation?

Back 57

LV apex

Front 58

The pulmonary capillary wedge pressure evaluated on a right heart cath represents the pressure in the _____________

Back 58

left atrium

Front 59

_____________________ is the preferred method of diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis.

Back 59

Cardiac catheterization

Front 60

A patient presents for an echo and states that she has a history of Noonan's syndrome. She also tells you that she had "surgery on an abnormal valve as a child" but she does not know which valve. Which valve abnormality did she most likely have repaired?

Back 60

dysplastic pulmonic valve

Front 61

The Universal Precautions Standards were created by which of the following organizations?

Back 61

Center for Disease Control

Front 62

All of the following are advantages of bioprosthetic valves over mechanical valves, except:

Back 62

more durable

Front 63

Which of the following correctly describes the mitral valve Doppler tracing of a patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

Back 63

E/A ratio <0.8

Front 64

. Which of the following E/A ratios would be expected with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

Back 64

0.65

Front 65

A patient presents for an echo and the order does not list an indication for the exam. You review the chart for the patient history to locate an appropriate indication for the echo. Which of the following is an appropriate indication to perform an echo?

Back 65

lab work that demonstrates the presence of staphylococcus aureus

Front 66

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of infiltrative cardiomyopathy?

Back 66

carcinoid disease

Front 67

Why does the foramen ovale close in most babies after birth?

Back 67

due to the pressure in the left atrium holding the flap of tissue closed over the opening

Front 68

The vena contracta would be accurately measured in which of the following patients?

Back 68

mitral regurgitation caused by bileaflet prolapse

Front 69

The functional left ventricular outflow tract is defined as:

Back 69

the area between the ventricular septum to the anterior aortic annulus and the anterior MV leaflet to the posterior aortic annulus.

Front 70

A patient presents for an echo with a history of cor pulmonale. Which of the following is an expected finding on the exam?

Back 70

Pulmonary HTN

Front 71

Which of the following is least likely to cause tricuspid regurgitation?

Back 71

IVC thrombus

Front 72

The American Heart Association recommends that a rescuer try to perform a minimum of ________________ compressions per minute on a child or infant.

Back 72

100

Front 73

All of the following can reduce the risk of a vasovagal response to contrast injection, except:

Back 73

Drink a caffeinated drink the day of the exam (coffee, tea or soda)

Front 74

Which of the following best describes the primary reason why the TEE probes are soaked in a disinfectant for a specified amount of time?

Back 74

Soaking the probe too long in a disinfectant solution can damage the bonding effect of the glue used to assemble the probes.

Front 75

. Which of the following correctly describes the way to tell the difference between a vasovagal response and anaphylaxis caused by contrast injection?

Back 75

Pallor is a sign of vasovagal response, while erythema is a sign of anaphylaxis.

Front 76

Which type of image resolution improves with proper placement of the focal zone at the area of interest?

Back 76

lateral

Front 77

Which of the following vessels drains the coronary blood from the apex and septum of the left ventricle?

Back 77

great cardiac vein

Front 78

You perform an echo on a 55yr old adult and identify tricuspid stenosis. What's the most likely cause for this finding?

Back 78

Rheumatic fever

Front 79

How can a contrast echo help to confirm the diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis?

Back 79

used to evaluate the IVC for the appearance of presystolic contrast reversal at the RA junction

Front 80

. Hemochromatosis involves excess ____________ deposits ____________________.

Back 80

iron, in the myocardium

Front 81

All of the following are considered critical findings on an echocardiogram, except:

Back 81

2 flail chordae of the anterior leaflet of the MV

Front 82

Which of the following patients would benefit from a TEE exam?

Back 82

St Jude AVR with suspected stenosis