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241 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

When and where were the Blue Angels Commissioned

The NFDS was commissioned at Naval Air Station Pensacola, Florida on 10 December 1973

State the Command Mission

The mission of the United States Navy Flight Demonstration Squadron is to showcase the pride and professionalism of the United States Navy and Marine Corps and inspire a culture of excellence and service to country by conducting flight demonstrations and community outreach

State the Chain of Command

-President: Barack Obama
-SECDEF: Ashton Carter

-SECNAV: Ray Mabus
-CNO: ADM Jonathan W. Greenert
-US PACOM: ADM Harry Harris Jr.
-CNAF: VADM Mike Shoemaker
-CNATRA: RDML Roy Kelley
-NFDS: CAPT Tom Frosch

State the 3 objectives of first aid


further injury


loss of life

State the 4 methods of controlling bleeding

direct pressure


pressure points

tourniquet as a last resort

Define pressure point

main artery lies near the skin surface and over a bone. You can reduce or stop blood flow to areas of the body by applying physical pressure to this point with the fingers or with the heel of the hand

State the number of principal pressure points on the body

11 principal pressure points on each side of the body

List 5 of the 11 principal pressure points on the body

-Temple, Superficial temporal artery
-Collar Bone: Subclavian artery
-Inner Upper Arm: Brachial artery
-Inner Elbow: Brachial artery

-Upper Thigh: Femoral artery
-Groin: Iliac artery

-Jaw: Facial artery
-Neck: Common carotid artery
-Wrist: RadialUlnar artery
-Knee: Popliteal artery
-Ankle: Anterior posterior tibial artery

List the 3 classifications of burns and define

- 1st degree. redness, warmth and mild pain.
- 2nd degree. red, blistered skin and severe pain.
- 3rd degree. Destroys tissue, skin and bone. no pain

Explain the 2 types of fractures

CLOSED (simple) a broken bone without a break in the skin

OPEN (compound) has a break in the skin with possible bone protrusion

State the 2 types of heat related injuries and explain

- Heat exhaustion The skin is cool, moist, and clammy, pupils are dilated,sweating
- Heat stroke. breakdown of the sweating mechanism of the body. Unable to eliminate excessive body heat buildup. hot and dry skin, uneven pupil dilation, and a weak, rapid pulse

State the 3 types of cold weather injuries



-Deep frostbite

Explain hypothermia

exposure to low or rapidly falling temperature, cold moisture, snow or ice. may appear pale and unconscious or dead. Breathing is slow and shallow, pulse faint or even undetectable. The body tissues feel semi-rigid, and the arms and legs may feel stiff

Explain superficial frostbite

ice crystals forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower

Explain Deep frostbite

ice crystals are forming in the deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower

Explain shock

Life-threatening medical condition whereby the body suffers from insufficient blood flow throughout the body as a result of severe injury or illness

Explain CPR

A combination of rescue breathing and chest compressions delivered to victims thought to be in cardiac arrest. When cardiac arrest occurs the use of CPR can support a small amount of blood flow to the heart and brain to “buy time” until normal heart function is restored

State the 2 accepted organizations that certify and publishes current CPR procedures

American Heart Association

American Red Cross

Explain ORM

A systematic, decision-making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources. Used to make informed decisions by providing the best baseline of knowledge and experience available a 5 step process that requires constant review for new hazards or engineering controls available

State the 5 steps in the ORM

- Identify hazards.
- Assess hazards.
- Make risk decisions.
- Implement controls.
- Supervise.

State how mishap classes are determined

There are 3 different classes of mishaps identified by the Naval Safety Program. the level is determined by monetary means and injury classification.

Define Class A mishap

- Class A The resulting total cost of reportable material property damage is $2,000,000 or more or an injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability.

Define Class B mishap

- Class B The resulting total cost of reportable material or property damage is $500,000 or more, but less than $2,000,000 or an injury results in permanent partial disability or 3 or more personnel are hospitalized.

Define Class C mishap

- Class C The resulting total cost of reportable material or property damage is $50,000 or more, but less than $500,000 a non-fatal injury that causes any loss of time beyond the day or shift on which it occurred or a non-fatal illness or disease that causes loss of time from work or disability at any time (lost time case) and/or 5 or more lost workdays

List some of the PPE used in Naval Aviation


Eye Protection

Hearing Protection



Define Chemical warfare

employment of chemical agents that are intended for use in military operations to kill, seriously injure, or incapacitate personnel due to their physiological effect.

State the 4 types of chemical agents





Define Blister agents

Liquid or solid casualty agents that can cause inflammation, blisters, and general destruction of tissues which often results in temporary blindness and or death.

Define blood Agents

Gaseous casualty agents that attack the enzymes carrying oxygen in the blood stream. Rapid breathing or choking may occur due to lack of oxygen in the blood.

Define Choking agents

Gaseous or liquid casualty agents with initial symptoms that include tears, dry throat, nausea, vomiting, and headache. The lungs can become filled with fluid, making the victim feel as if they are drowning, causing breathing to become rapid and shallow.

Explain how M9 Chemical agent detector paper works

Detects the presence of liquid chemical agents by turning a red or reddish color, it does NOT detect chemical agent vapors.

Explain when Atropine 2-PAM-chloride auto injector is used

Used as specific therapy for nerve agent casualties, they are issued for intramuscular injection, self-aid or first aid.

Explain Biological warfare

Use of agents to cause disease, sickness, or death to reduce the effectiveness of opposing combatant forces

Explain Radiological warfare
Deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce widespread injury and death of all life.

High altitude air burst

occurs at altitudes in excess of 100,000 feet, with ionosphere disruptions and EMP.

Air burst

fireball does not reach the surface. The vacuum created collects debris caused by the severe blast damage resulting in radiation fallout.

Surface Burst

worst fallout due to the fireball touching the surface which results in massive radioactive fallout.

Shallow underwater Burst

burst has a small fireball and blast wave however, it causes large waves and water contamination.

Deep underwater burst

is similar to the shallow underwater burst but with less visual effect and yields greater contaminated water.

Define MOPP

Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) is a management tool that is used to coordinate the use of systems and equipment in Chemical or Biological environment

MOPP is divided in how many levels


Define the primary and secondary duties of the firefighter

-The primary duty of the firefighter is saving lives

-The secondary responsibility is to extinguish fires and limit the damage to aircraft, shipboard, airfield installed equipment, and or airfield structures.

State the 4 classes of fire





State where Class Alpha Fires occur and effective extinguishing agent used

combustibles materials that produce an ash such as burning wood and wood products, cloth, textiles and fibrous materials, and paper products. Effective extinguishing agents are:


-Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF).

State where Class Bravo Fires occur and effective extinguishing agent used

flammable liquid substances such as gasoline, jet fuels, oil, and other petroleum based products. Effective extinguishing agents are: -Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)


-Purple K Powder (PKP)


State where Class Charlie Fires occur and effective extinguishing agent used

Energized electrical fires attacked by using non-conductive agents. extinguishing agents are:


-Purple K Powder (PKP)

-H2O in fog pattern minimum distance of 4 feet

De-energized. Treat as a Class A, B, or D fire.

Define the importance of Airfield Familiarization

personal safety and the safety of the aircrew. The interaction between, people, vehicles, support equipment and aircraft in the airfield environment requires all personnel to have a good working knowledge of the airfield

List some of the Airfield Components


Threshold markings

Overrun area and MA-1 series overrun barrier Taxiway, Parking apron, compass calibration area, Runway numbering systems, airfield rotating beacon, etc.

Define Runway

Runways are paved areas that are used for aircraft takeoff and landing. Runways vary in length at each airfield as determined by the aircraft sizes and weights that will be utilizing them.

Define Threshold markings

These are parallel strips on the ends of the runways. The stripes are 12 feet wide by 150 feet long and designate landing area.

Define the overrun area

Overrun Area are paved or un-paved section on the ends of the runways that provide a reasonably effective deceleration area for aborting or overshooting aircraft.

Explain the purpose of the MA-1 Series overrun barriers.

Designed to stop tricycle landing gear equipped aircraft not equipped with tail hooks. The MA-1A is always in a standby status, in case there is an aborted takeoff or an emergency overrun landing.

Define the purpose of taxiways

Taxiways are paved areas for aircraft to move between parking aprons, runways, and airfield services.

Explain the purpose of compass calibration pad (compass Rose).

A paved area in a magnetically quiet area where the aircraft compass is calibrated.

Explain hazards associated with flight deck operations and safety measures to be taken.

- Flight deck (steel-toed) safety shoes
- Protective jersey
- Cranial impact helmet
- Protective eye goggles
- Leather gloves

Yellow Jerseys.

Aircraft Handling Officer, Flight Deck Officer, Catapult Officer, Air Boss, Arresting Gear Officer and Plane directors.

White Jerseys.

Safety department, Air Transport Officer, Landing Signal Officer, Squadron Plane Inspectors (troubleshooters) and medical.

Brown Jerseys.

Plane captains

Blue Jerseys.

Aircraft Handling and Chock Crewman (Chocks, Chains and Tractors) and Elevator Operators.

Green Jerseys.

Catapult and Arresting Gear personnel, Squadron Aircraft Maintenance personnel, Helicopter Landing Signal Enlisted-man and Photographers.

Red Jerseys.

Crash and Salvage, Explosive Ordnance Disposal, and Ordnance handling personnel.

Purple Jerseys.

Aviation fuel crew.

Define the importance of Aircraft handling in regards to safety.

day to day operations in the aviation community. Because this is a daily part of our jobs it is easy to become complacent and overlook the ever present dangers.

Aircraft when not in use and during maintenance evolutions must be tie-down to the deck based on the…

Wind velocity

State the number of tie-down categories


State the Aircraft tie-down categories and number of chains required

- Initial tie-down: a minimum of 6 chains required

- Normal weather tie-down, 9 chains required.

- Moderate weather tie-down, 14 Chains required.

- Heavy weather tie-down, 20 Chains required.

State the number of types of Hangars used in Naval Aviation


State some of the types of fire protection systems found in hangars

Low level AFFF systems, Overhead sprinkler, Detection systems, drainage systems, CO2 equipment

State the difference between THREATCON and DEFCON

THREATCON scale determines the condition for defense of the United States homeland and assets abroad

DEFCON scale determines the posture of the military to prepare for the likelihood of war

Define Force protection conditions (FPCONs)

Force protection conditions are a series of measures designed to increase the level of a unit’s defense against terrorist attacks not aimed at specific threats, but selected based on

- The terrorist threat level.
- The capability to penetrate physical security
- The risk to assets are exposed.
- The asset’s ability to execute its mission


applies when a general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture.


applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable. Alpha measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely.


applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists. Sustaining Bravo measures for a prolonged period may affect operational capability and relations with local authorities.


applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely. Prolonged implementation of Charlie measures may create hardship and affect the activities of the unit and its personnel.


applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent. Normally, this FPCON is declared as a localized condition, also FPCON Delta measures are not intended to be sustained for substantial periods.

DEFCONs are used by….

The United States Armed Forces

DEFCON was developed by…

Joint Chiefs of Staff, unified and specified combatant Commands

State the total number of DEFCONs levels


State the 5 different levels of Defense Conditions and provide a brief description

- DEFCON 5: Normal peacetime readiness.
- DEFCON 4: Normal, increased intelligence and strengthened security measures.
- DEFCON 3: Increase in force readiness above normal readiness.
- DEFCON 2: Further Increase in force readiness, but less than maximum.
- DEFCON 1: Maximum force readiness.

State the objective of the NAMP

The objective of the NAMP is to achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards with optimum use of manpower, material, facilities, funds
-helps to standardize operations of any naval aviation command. CNO is in charge of the NAMP.


Maintenance Officer As head of the Maintenance Department, the MO manages the department and is responsible to the CO for the accomplishment of the department's mission. CV IMA MOs shall also coordinate the Air Wing Training Plan to ensure billet requirements, personnel identification, and assignments are satisfied.


Aircraft Maintenance Officer Assistant head of the maintenance department. The AMO shall assist the MO in the performance of duties and keep the MO fully informed of matters concerning the department. The AMO coordinates temporary assigned duty personnel, inspects spaces, acts as the administrative officer in their absence, liaisons


Maintenance Material Control Officer Responsible for the overall production and material support of the department. The MMCO coordinates and monitors the department workload while maintaining liaison workload areknown and satisfied.


Maintenance Master Chief Petty Officer. Senior Enlisted Advisor for the Maintenance Department, reports to the MO and advises the CO in all matters affecting aircraft operations, aircraft maintenance, and department personnel. The MMCPO directs all maintenance in an operational unit on a day-to-day basis in support of its operations and assigned missions.


Quality Assurance Officer ensures that personnel assigned to perform QA functions receive continuous training in inspecting, testing, and quality control methods specifically applicable to their area of assignment. The QAO will also ensure QARs receive cross training to perform those QA functions not in their assigned area.


Material Control Officer. Supply corps officers assigned to a deployable squadron will be assigned as the MCO for the handling of finances, material requisition etc..

State the 3 levels of maintenance concepts of the NAMP




Turnaround Inspection

Conducted between flights to ensure the integrity of the aircraft for flight, verifies proper servicing, and detects degradation that may have occurred during the previous flight. Good for 24 hours, provided that no flight occurs during this period and no maintenance other than servicing was performed.

Daily Inspection

Conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth than the turnaround inspection. It is valid for 72 hours without flight or major maintenance and the aircraft can be flown for 24 hours before another daily is needed as long as it does not surpass the 72 hour time limit.

Special Inspection

This inspection is a scheduled inspection with a prescribed interval other than daily or phase. The intervals are specified in the applicable PMS publication and are based on elapsed calendar time, flight hours, operating hours, or number of cycles or events, for example, 7, 28 days 50, 100, 200 hours 10, 100 arrestments or 5,000 rounds fired.

Conditional Inspection

Unscheduled events required as the result of a specific overlimit condition, or as a result of circumstances or events which create an administrative requirement for an inspection.

Phase Inspection

Divides the total scheduled maintenance requirement into smaller packages, or phases of the same work content. These are done sequentially and at specified intervals.

Acceptance Inspection:

Performed at the time a reporting custodian accepts a newly assigned aircraft or support equipment from any source and on return of an aircraft from SDLM or other major depot level maintenance.

Transfer Inspection

Performed at the time a reporting custodian transfers an aircraft or support equipment.
Second is rework maintenance, since rework is a more intensive type of maintenance it is performed at D-Level.

State the purpose of Quality Assurance

prevent of the occurrence of defects.


Quality Assurance Representative. The maintenance personnel assigned to QA are known as QARs, They certify that the work involved has been personally inspected by them it has been properly completed, and is in accordance with current instructions and directives.


Collateral Duty QAR. Although CDQARs are assigned to production work centers, they function in the same capacity as QARs and must meet the same qualifications. CDQARs may be assigned on a temporary or permanent basis.


Collateral Duty Inspector. CDIs assigned to production work centers are to inspect all work and comply with the required QA inspections during all maintenance actions performed by their respective work centers. They are responsible to the QA Officer. CDIs will spot check all work in progress and will be familiar with the provisions and responsibilities of the various programs.

What is the Special audit program managed by QA

Conducted to evaluate specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures and programs. They may be requested by the work center at any time or when a new workcenter supervisor is assigned. Copies of audits are held for one year.

What is the Workcenter audit program managed by QA

Conducted semi-annually to evaluate the overall quality performance of each work center. All areas of the work center are evaluated including personnel, monitored and managed programs, logs and records, licenses, etc..

What are the Program Audits managed by QA

Evaluate specific programs, providing a systematic and coordinated method of identifying deficiencies and determining adequacy of and adherence to technical publications and instructions. QA shall audit the programs, at a minimum, annually.

What is the SE Misuse/Abuse audit program managed by QA

Proper operation of SE is the key to safe and efficient aircraft equipment maintenance. Improper use of SE has resulted in personnel injury, excessive ground handling mishaps, repair, replacement costs, and reduced operational readiness. All personnel operating SE must be fully knowledgeable of operational characteristics, safety precautions, emergency procedures, and be qualified licensed for designated TMS.

What is the Aircraft Confined Space Program: (ACSP) managed by QA

The objective of the ACSP is to ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical equipment fuel cells and tanks. Activities not having a sufficient demand for entry authority (EA) services use the services of the supporting FRC site EA

Explain the purpose of the MMP and when it is distributed

Monthly Maintenance Plan provides scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload, for example, inspections, transfer or receipt of aircraft, and compliance with TDs. It is prepared and distributed by the 25th of each month at the O-level and the 1st of each month at I-level.

Explain the purpose of the Aircraft logbook.

A hard bound record of equipment, inspections, scheduled removal items, and installed equipment.

State what is NALCOMIS

Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System

State what is OOMA

Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity

How many characters are in the JCN


State the capabilities of NALCOMIS

NALCOMIS provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes by allowing system users to enter, collect, process, store, review and report information required by the organization. The use of this system significantly reduces the administrative burden and produces up-to-date status information.

State the objective of the NATOPS

The Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization Program is a positive approach toward improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in the aircraft mishap rate. Standardization, based on professional knowledge and experience, provides the basis for efficiency.

Meaning of “Warning” as it applies to NATOPS

An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed.

Meaning of “Caution” as it applies to NATOPS

An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed

Meaning of “Shall” as it applies to NATOPS

procedure that is mandatory

Meaning of “Should” as it applies to NATOPS

procedure that is recommended

Meaning of “May” as it applies to NATOPS

"May" and "need not" procedure is optional

Meaning of “Will” as it applies to NATOPS

Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for procedure

State what letters will identify a naval aircraft for the following Fleets:

COMNAVAIRLANT: The 1st character shall be "A-M" 2nd character "A-Z"

COMNAVAIRPAC: The 1st character shall be "N-Z" 2nd character "A-Z"

CNATRA: The 1st character shall be "A through G" there is no 2nd character

When was the 1st take-off from a ship where Eugene Ely, a civilian pilot, took off in a 50-hp Curtiss plane from a wooden platform built on the bow of USS BIRMINGHAM?

November 14, 1910

When is the birthday of Naval Aviation

May 8, 1911

When did Ensign William D. Billingsley, piloting a B-2 at 1,600 feet over the water near Annapolis, Md., get thrown from his aircraft falling to his death becoming the first fatality of Naval Aviation?

June 20, 1913

When were the first courses for inspectors added to the Ground School program at MIT where 14 men enrolled? Eventually becoming the predecessors of the modern Quality Assurance Representatives.

October 22, 1917

When was the Jupiter, a former collier or coal-carrier, re-commissioned after conversion to the Navy's first carrier, the USS LANGLEY (CV-1).

March 20, 1922.

When did the FJ-1 Fury become the first jet to make a carrier landing on the USS Boxer (CV 21).

March 10, 1948

After breaking the Japanese Navy code, the U.S. was alerted to a large Japanese force moving to the Coral Sea to seize Port Moresby on the southwest coast of New Guinea. It was to be the first step of a planned invasion of Australia. The Japanese operation centered around 3 aircraft carriers and dozens of troop transports.

What happened next and when did this occur?

May 7-8, 1942 US deployed 2 carriers(with fleet). On 7th, the Japanese planes sank 2 minor ships, while U.S. planes sank 1 enemy carrier. On 8th, both sides launched all planes against the other. The aircraft passed each other unseen in the clouds, in the world's 1st carrier VS carrier battle. 1 Japanese carrier was damaged. The U.S. carrier Lexington was sunk, and the carrier Yorktown was damaged. After this action, both sides withdrew. Although a tactical victory, Coral Sea strategically setback Japan who never again threatened Australia

The broken Japanese naval code proved again a key element. 1 month after the Battle of Coral Sea the US learned of a huge Japanese armada of 160 warships (split between the Aleutian Islands in a diversionary attack but keeping superior numbers to Midway) They approached Midway with 4 carriers and 11 battleships and the U.S. had 3 carriers and 0 battleships. What happened next?

June 3-5, 1942 US knew what was coming because of the broken codes, Admiral Nimitz positioned his 3 carriers, the Hornet, Enterprise and Yorktown, out of Japanese reconnaissance range. As the Japanese carriers launched their planes to assault the Midway defenses, the U.S. planes headed for the enemy carriers. It took attack after attack, but finally the U.S. crews got through and sank 3 Japanese carriers. The next day the fourth carrier was sunk. Japanese planes sank the Yorktown but in 1day Japan lost its bid for control of the Pacific.

Concerning Navy Policy, what was significant about the Battle of Guadalcanal where after 3 days of bitter fighting, the Japanese naval forces retreated and U.S. Marines were able to secure the island of Guadalcanal? Also, when was the Battle?

November 13-15, 1942. Navy policy was to place members of the same family on different ships, but the 5 Sullivan brothers, from Waterloo, Iowa, insisted on staying together onboard the USS JUNEAU which was damaged during the battle in a close-range night encounter & later torpedoed killing the Sullivan's along with 700 others. Because of this tragedy, the Navy policy was reinstated & a ship was later named in their honor. Japanese lost 2 cruisers, 6 destroyers & the southern Solomon's came under Allied control and Australia was in less danger of attack.

Who ordered the formation the Naval Demonstration Team and what for?

ADM Chester Nimitz ordered it to keep the public interested in Naval Aviation

State the location of the first flight Demonstration

Craig Field, Jacksonville, FL

State the first team Leader

LCDR Roy “Butch” Voris

State the first aircraft used by the Naval Demonstration Team

F6F Hellcat

who introduced the “Diamond Formation”

LCDR Robert Clarke

During which conflict was the team Disbanded

The Korean Conflict

State when winter training began

Winter of 1968

When did the Blue Angels start to flying the FA-18?

November 8, 1986

State the 3 types of motion pertaining to flight




Newton’s 1st law of motion is?


How many "Newton’s law of motions" are there?


What is Newton’s 3rd Law of Motion?

Action and Reaction

Explain Lift

The force that acts, in upward direction, to support the aircraft in the air. It counteracts the effects of weight. Lift must be greater than or equal to weight if lift is to be sustained.

Explain weight

The force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft

Explain longitudinal axis

An imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft from nose and tail

Explain lateral axis

An imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings

Explain vertical axis

An imaginary line running from the top to the bottom of the aircraft

State on the aircraft what movements ailerons, elevators and rudder cause.

Roll, Pitch and Yaw

Explain Forward Presence

key capability that establishes maritime forces in regions throughout the world. The deployability and expeditionary character of Naval Aviation distinguishes it as the centerpiece of this core capability.

Explain Deterrence

Aligned to the national belief that preventing wars is as important as winning wars. Removing conditions for conflict, providing for the protection of forces deployed, and possessing superior military strength all serve to deter aggressors from acting.

Explain Power Projection

The ability to project from the sea is the essential combat element of the Maritime Strategy. This core capability is uniquely suited to the strengths of Naval Aviation.

State the following Aviation Community - HSC

Helicopter Sea Combat

State the following Aviation Community - HSM

Helicopter Maritime Strike

State the following Aviation Community - HT

Helicopter Training

State the following Aviation Community - VAQ

Tactical Electronic Warfare

State the following Aviation Community - VAW

Carrier Airborne Early Warning

State the following Aviation Community - VF

Fleet Composite

State the following Aviation Community - VFA

Strike Fighter

State the following Aviation Community - VP


State the following Aviation Community - VQ

Fleet Air Reconnaissance

State the following Aviation Community - VR

Aircraft Logistic Support

State the following Aviation Community - VT


Define Hazardous Material (HAZMAT)

Any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment when purposefully released or accidentally spilled.

Define Hazardous Waste (HAZWASTE)

Once HAZMAT materials have been used, the discarded material (liquid, solid, or gas which meets the definition of HAZMAT is designated as a hazardous waste (HAZWASTE)

State the 6 categories of HAZMAT

- Flammable or combustible materials
- Aerosol containers
- Toxic materials
- Corrosive materials (including acids and bases)
- Oxidizing materials
- Compressed gases

State what training for personnel using HAZMAT should include

- Types of HAZMAT
- What HAZWASTE is and how to dispose of it.
- How to read hazard warning labels.
- What an MSDS is, how to read it, and where a copy is available to review.

- Protective measures when handling HAZMAT.
- Emergency procedures.

How many tie down points are on the F/A-18


State the purpose of composite materials

limit weight, increase strength and decrease effect of corrosion attack.

State the types of A/C repairs

-One time Flight

State the purpose of Leading Edge Flaps

When taking off or landing, the leading edge flaps deflect symmetrically to change lift. In flight they deflect asymmetrically to aid the ailerons in producing roll motion.

State the number of Hydraulics systems in the F/A-18


State the purpose of the Radome

Covers the radar and provides an electrically transparent window for transmission and reception of radar signals.

State types of flight control surfaces on the F/A-18

Aileron, Leading Edge Flap, Training Edge Flap, Stabilizer, Rudder, Speed Brake, Leading Edge Extension (Super Hornets only)

What is the purpose of the IFR probe

Inflight refueling

State the types of engine used on the F/A-18A-D

F404-GE-400, or F404-GE-402

What is the safety distance from the intakes at MIL or MAX

MIL - 9 FT

MAX - 25 FT


Airframe Mounted Accessory Drive


Auxiliary Power Unit


Variable Exhaust Nozzle


In-Flight Refueling


Environmental Control System


Built In Test


Air Turbine Starter

State the number of modes of operation of the APU


State the modes of operation of the APU

MES: Main Engine Start
GMM: Ground Maintenance Mode
ECS: Environmental Control System

State the elements of the secondary power unit


State the difference between barometric and radar altimeter

The barometric altimeter uses pitot-static pressure to indicate altitude above sea level

The radar altimeter uses radio echoes to determine altitude above ground level

Define Bearing

Angular position of an object with respect to a reference point or line.

Define Azimuth

Angular position or bearing in a horizontal plane usually measured clockwise from true north.

Define Range

The distance of an object from an observer.

Define heading

Actual orientation of the aircraft’s longitudinal axis at any instance.


Very High Frequency


Ultra-High Frequency


Tactical Air Navigation


Inertial Air Navigation


Global Positioning System


Attitude Reference Indicator


Instrument Landing System


Angle of Attack


Radio Detection and Ranging


Heads Up Display


Digital Display Indicator

State the purpose of Position Lighting

Position lighting are used to determine the relative position of the aircraft; lights on the left side of the A/C are red, right are green and tail light is white

State the purpose of the Emergency Battery (E-Batt).

It used for engine start, operation of canopy and maintenance monitor, when external power or engine inoperative.

Explain the objective of the Explosive Handling Qualification and Certification Program

Ensure that all personnel, after having received training and demonstrated the ability to properly and safely perform all function and task involving explosive devices, are certified to handle such devices. The Explosives Handling Personnel Qualification and Certification Program sets guidelines for weapons certification.

State the significance of the following colors on ordnance

Yellow ---------------------------- High Explosive
Brown ------------------------ Indicates a rocket motor
Blue -------------------------- Inert or training weapon

State the purpose for using LAUs

LAUs are used to suspend and launch missiles

State the purpose for CADs

Small explosive filled cartridges used to fire other explosives or release mechanisms


Captive Air Training Missile


Air Intercept Missile


Air to Ground Missile


Hazard of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance

State the 3 modes of operation found in missiles

Active, Semi-Active and Passive






AMRAAM – Advanced Medium Range Air-to-Air Missile




Harpoon/Slam (stand-off land attack missile)


HARM (High Speed Anti-Radiation Missile)


JSOW (Joint Standoff Weapon) (Navy and Air Force)

State the gun system used on the F/A-18


State the rate of fire for the M61A1 (high and low modes)

6000 and 4000 rounds per minute


Suppression of Enemy Air defenses


Surface to Air Missile


War At Sea


Close Air Support


Maritime Air Superiority


Air Combat Maneuvering


Combat Air Patrol


Functional Check Flight


Visual Meteorological Conditions


Instrument Meteorological Conditions


Instrument / Visual Flight Rules


Anti-Air Warfare


Amphibious Warfare


Mine Warfare




Non-Combatant Operations


Strike Warfare

How often a seat checkout is required

Every 6 months or after more than 90 days TAD

Explain the difference between Hypoxia & Anoxia

Hypoxia - a decrease/insufficient in the amount of oxygen in the bloodstream/brain

Anoxia - a complete lack of oxygen

State the safety precautions before entering the cockpit

Ensure safety pins for ejection seat and canopy jettison are installed and handle is in safe position

State the 2 types of Aviation Breathing Oxygen (ABO)

Liquid and Gaseous Oxygen

State the expansion rate of LOX

862 to 1

State 5 aircrew flight gear components

Flight Suit

Anti-G suit
Flight Gloves
Survival knife
O2 Mask
Life preserver
Survival radio/beacon
ID tags
Personal survival kit
Laser Eye protection