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54 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What is the definition of "Deadly Force"? |
Deadly force is that force that a person uses causing, or that person knows or should now, would create a substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily harm or injury. |
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When are servicemembers authorized to use deadly force? |
As a last resort when all lesser means have failed or cannot be reasonably employed |
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What are the parts of the "Deadly Force Triangle"? |
1 - Opportunity - an individual must be present, in place, or otherwise have the opportunity of causing death or serious bodily harm to you or another person 2 - Capability - the individual must possess the actual means to inflict death or serious bodily harm to you or another person 3 - Intent - the individual must indicate he/she is an actual threat with the means he/she is wielding. The individual must commit and over action with the weapon(s), such as aiming a gun, wielding a knife, swinging a club, etc |
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Describe the "Escalation of use of force" continuum (ladder)
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1 - Presence - on watch 2 - Verbal commands - communication skills 3 - Soft controls - basic escort, handcuffs 4 - Hard controls - takedowns, OC spray, strikes 5 - Intermediate Weapons - baton strikes 6 - Deadly Force - Firearms, unleashed military working dog |
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Are warning shots authorized? |
Not in CONUS |
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What does intelligence provide to a commander? |
A threat assessment based on full range of adversary capabilities and likely intentions |
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What are the four threat levels and their definitions? |
1 - Low - no terrorist group is detected, or group activity is non-threatening 2 - Moderate - terrorist groups are present, but there is no indication of anti-US activity. Operating environment favors the host nation/US 3 - Significant - an anti-US terrorist group is active and are expected to attack personnel, large casualty-producing attacks preferred, but capability limited. Neutral operating environment 4 - High - anti-US terrorist group is active and uses large casualty-producing attacks. Substantial DoD presence, operating environment favors the terrorist |
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What are the five FPCONs (Force Protection Conditions)? |
1 - Normal - general global threat of terrorist attack exists and warrants a routine security posture 2 - ALPHA - increased general threat, measures that are capable of being maintained indefinitely 3 - BRAVO - increased and specific threat exists. Sustained measures may affect operational capability and relations with local authorities 4 - CHARLIE - incident has occurred, or intel indicates attack is likely. Prolonged measures may create hardship and affect unit and personnel 5 - DELTA - a terrorist attack has occurred in immediate area, or intel indicates attack is imminent. Not sustainable for substantial periods. |
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What is the difference between "Threat Levels" and FPCONs? |
FPCONs are not aimed at specific threats, but are sustained postures designed to increase a unit's level of defense against attacks, whereas threat levels are analyses of threat potential and likelihoods of attack |
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What are the 16 elements in AT planning and response plans? |
1 - Intel 2 - Info and planning 3 - Installation AT plan 4 - Installation perimeter access 5 - Security system technology 6 - Personnel protection 7 - Mail handling system 8 - Comms 9 - Incident response and recovery 10 - Firefighting 11 - HAZMAT handling 12 - Health and medical services 13 - Security 14 - Resource Support 15 - Mass care 16 - Public Works |
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What are the four facets of AT planning effectiveness? |
1 - Manpower 2 - Policies/procedures/plans 3 - Equipment 4 - Training |
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Definite "intervention" as it relates to civil disturbances |
PotUS is empowered to direct Federal intervention in order to: 1 - Respond to state requests for aid in restoring order 2 - Enforce the laws of the US 3 - Protect civil rights of citizens 4 - Protect Federal property 5 - Suppress rebellion |
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What is the purpose of "guard mount"? |
Standardize watch turnover and establish proper mindset in watchstanders. Run by Watch Commander, ensures all watchstanders have proper gear and uniform, as well as check knowledge levels on relevant subjects. *ATTWOs are expected to be present for each Guard Mount (0515 and 1715 daily)* |
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Discuss the elements of a guard mount brief and inspection |
WC, COG, or supervisor briefs on: 1 - ROE/RUF guidelines 2 - SOFA 3 - Intel updates 4 - Previous/upcoming events 5 - Current FPCON 6 - Post-specific orders 7 - Chain of Command 8 - Comms procedures (callsigns, prowords, signals) |
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What is a RAM, and why are they important? |
Random Anti-terrorism Measures - Random, multiple security measures that serve to disguise actual security procedures in effect. RAMs deny terrorist surveillance teams the opportunity to accurately predict security actions. |
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What are the concepts of surveillance detection? |
All suspicious activity must be reported, and all personnel must have heightened SA of their surroundings. |
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What are the five objectives that a successful AT/FP plan will accomplish? |
1 - Deter - create a hard target, disrupt terrorist cycle of ops 2 - Detect - recognize surveillance, attempts to test security posture 3 - Defend - protect critical assets; ID, classify, neutralize threats through well-rehearsed PPRs 4 - Mitigate - minimize consequences of terrorist attacks; contain incidents, thwart secondary attacks 5 - Recover - restore mission effectiveness and operational capabilities |
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What are the phases of terrorist surveillance? |
1 - Target Selection 2 - Surveillance 3 - Final Selection 4 - Planning 5 - Final Surveillance 6 - Deployment 7 - Attack |
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What are the two types of basic surveillance operations? |
Fixed - one point of observation, relying on target movement Mobile - following targeted individuals |
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What are the four basic firearm safety rules? |
1 - Treat every weapon as if it were loaded 2 - Never point a weapon at anything you don't intend to shoot 3 - Keep your finger straight and off the trigger until ready to fire 4 - Keep weapon on safe until you intend to fire |
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What are the four basic weapon conditions? |
1 - Round chambered, weapon loaded, safety on 2 - Not applicable for our weapons 3 - Ammo ready to load, chamber empty, safety on 4 - Ammo removed, chamber empty, safety on |
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What is the muzzle velocity for the M9 |
1230 FPS |
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What is the maximum effective range of the M9 |
50 meters |
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What is the maximum range of the M9? |
1800 meters |
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What is the muzzle velocity of the M500 shotgun (#00 buck)? |
1375 FPS |
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What is the maximum effective range for #00 buck in the M500 shotgun? |
46 meters |
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What is the maximum range for #00 buck in the M500 shotgun? |
604 meters |
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What is the muzzle velocity for 5.56 from the M16? |
3100 FPS |
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What is the maximum effective range for the M16? |
550 meters |
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What is the maximum range for the M16? |
3600 meters |
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What is the maximum effective range of the M240 machine gun? |
800 meters |
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What is the maximum range of the M240 machine gun? |
3725 meters |
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What is the maximum effective range of the M2 .50 caliber machine gun? |
1829 meters |
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What is the maximum range of the M2 .50 caliber machine gun? |
6767 meters |
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What does the weapon handling command "Load" mean? |
Take weapon from condition 4 to condition 3 |
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What does the weapon handling command "Make Ready" mean? |
Take weapon from condition 3 to condition 1 |
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What does the weapon handling command "Load and make ready" mean? |
Take weapon from condition 4 to condition 1 |
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What does the weapon handling command "Unload" mean? |
Take weapon from condition 1 or 3 to condition 4 |
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What does the weapon handling command "Show Clear" mean? |
Show supervisor no ammo is present before placing in condition 4 |
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What does the weapon handling command "Weapons Release" mean? |
Shall be given at earliest possible time after target has been identified |
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What does the weapon handling command "Check Fire? mean? |
Temporarily halt fire, track target |
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What does the weapon handling command "Fire On A Target" mean? |
Shoot identified target |
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What is "Defense In Depth"? |
- Intercept contact while maintaining full protective coverage - Tactically block contact with intercepting boat, maintain position between contact and HVA |
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What are the "Defense In Depth" zones? |
1 - Assessment Zone - outermost zone, not typically patrolled, where security forces detect and ID contacts, inform craft they are nearing a restricted area 2 - Warning Zone - challenge unauthorized craft, determine hostile intent 3 - Threat Zone - innermost layer around HVA, where lethal actions can be taken by security forces |
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What are the "Security Zones"? |
1 - Reaction Zone - 1000 yards from HVA - where contacts are engaged with increasing levels of forces 2 - Intercept Zone - 1000 yards from outer boundary of Reaction Zone 3 - Assessment Zone - extends from perimeter of Intercept Zone to as far as sensors extend |
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What are things that can be done to deter swimmers? |
1 - Security Boat patrols 2 - Turn screws 3 - Take sea suction 4 - Shift rudders 5 - Activate SONAR 6 - Use MK3A2 concussion grenade |
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What is the sequence of actions if an IED is detected? |
1 - Communicate presence of item to watch team 2 - Alert COG *WITHOUT USING RADIOS* 3 - Command suspect to move away from item 4 - Take control of suspect 5 - Move suspect away from bystaners 6 - Search suspect 7 - Secure ECP |
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What types of PPRs do we have? |
1 - Bomb Threat 2 - Pedestrian IED 3 - Vehicle IED 4 - Active Shooter 5 - Small Boat Attack 6 - Hostage 7 - Swimmer Attack 8 - Light Aircraft Attack 9 - Suspicious Package 10 - Protest 11 - Alarm Response 12 - ECP penetration/unauthorized personnel 13 - Armory Response 14 - Surveillance 15 - Floating Object |
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What is "Inherent Right To Use Of Force"? |
Self-Defense: Unit Commanders always retain inherent right to exercise self-defense in response to a hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent |
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What are the justifications for use of deadly force? |
1 - Self-defense 2 - Defense of others 3 - Prevent theft/sabotage of assets vital to national security 4 - Prevent theft/sabotage of inherently dangerous assets 5 - Prevent theft/sabotage of national critical infrastructure 6 - Prevent serious offense against persons 7 - Prevent escape of prisoner or perpetrator 8 - To arrest/apprehend of prevent escape of perpetrator |
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What is the difference between a "Hostile Act" and "Hostile Intent"? |
Hostile Intent - imminent threat of use of force Hostile Act - an attack or use of force |
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What is the ATO, and what are his duties? |
Anti-Terrorism Officer - POC responsible to the CO for all matters dealing with AT/FP |
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What is the ATTWO, and what are his duties |
Ant-Terrorism Tactical Watch Officer - Reports to CDO - Employs assets to defend unit against terrorist attack when in port - In-port analog of TAO - COG and other security watchstanders report to ATTWO - Coordinates all waterborne/airborne assets |
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What is the WC and what are his duties? |
Watch Commander - |