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130 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Bernoulli's Principle (Define)
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Bernoulli's principle states in part, that "the internal pressure of a fluid (liquid or gas) decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases."
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What is the primary source of lift on an airfoil?
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Differential pressure (Bernoulli's Principle)
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Newton's Third Law of Motion (Define)
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Newton's Third Law, states "for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction."
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What is the secondary source of lift upon an airfoil?
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The upward force of air striking the underside of the airfoil and being deflected downward. (Newton's Third Law)
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Relative Wind (define)
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The direction of airflow produced by an object moving through air. (Flows in a direction parallel and opposite to the direction of flight)
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What are all the types of airfoils on an aircraft? What are the principle three that produce lift?
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Airfoils - Wing, Propeller, Helicopter Rotor, Horizontal Stabilizer, Vertical Tail Surface, Fuselage Principle (3) - Wing, Horizontal Stabilizer, Propeller |
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What are the three parts of an airfoil?
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Leading Edge, Trailing Edge, and Chord Line
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Angle of Attack (define)
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The acute angle formed between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind.
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Camber (define)
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The curvature of the airfoil from leading edge to trailing edge.
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Wing planform (define)
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Wing planform is the shape or form of a wing as viewed from above.
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What are the four forces affecting flight?
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Thrust, Drag, Lift, and Weight
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What are the three key properties that affect air density, and henceforth aircraft performance?
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Temperature, Altitude, and Water Vapor (humidity)
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Lapse Rate (define)
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A decrease of temperature with height.
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Which type of air is denser, cold or hot?
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Cold Air
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What is average atmospheric pressure at sea level?
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14.7 psi or 29.92 in hg (inches of mercury)
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How does air density correspond to density altitude?
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Lower air density = higher density altitude or vice versa
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Explain the effects of an increase in altitude on aircraft performance?
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An increase in altitude decreases atmospheric pressure and increases density altitude which has a pronounced negative affect on aircraft performance.
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What affect does increased temperatures have on air density?
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As temperature increases, air expands, lowering its density and increasing density altitude. This has a negative affect on aircraft performance.
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Does an increase in humidity make air denser or less dense? What impact does this have on density altitude and aircraft performance?
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Humid air is less dense than dry air, thus increasing density altitude and negatively affecting aircraft performance.
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Conditions which are "high, hot, and humid," affect what particular aircraft performance characteristics? |
Longer landing roll, longer takeoff roll, decreased climb performance, reduced engine output.
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What are the three types of aircraft propellers?
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- Fixed pitch - Adjustable pitch - Controllable pitch |
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What are an aircraft's three axes or rotation?
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Longitudinal (roll) Lateral (pitch) Vertical (yaw) |
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What are the three primary flight control surfaces?
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Ailerons, Elevator, and Rudder
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Lift increases on which aileron? (Up aileron or down aileron?)
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Down aileron
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Adverse yaw (define)
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The tendency of an aircraft to yaw in the opposite direction of a turn, caused by the drag produced by the down aileron.
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What two movements are controlled by the control yoke?
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Pitch, roll
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What is the purpose of trim tabs?
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To lessen the manual pressure the pilot must apply to the control surfaces.
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Flaps (define)
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Flaps are located on the inboard, trailing edge of the wings and are used to increase lift.
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What are the primary effects of deploying the flaps on an aircraft?
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Lift increases, drag increases, lowers the stall speed, allows a steeper approach to the runway without an increase in speed.
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(Helicopters) Which control is the throttle mounted to the forward end of?
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The collective
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(Helicopter controls) What does the collective control?
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The collective controls the pitch of the rotor blades, controlling the amount of lift produced.
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Hovering (define)
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Motionless flight over a reference point. (Constant heading and altitude).
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(Helicopter controls) What does the cyclic do?
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Controls the tilt of the rotor blade which controls the direction of flight.
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Autorotation (define)
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The state of flight where a helicopter's main rotor system is being turned by the action of the raltive wind rather than engine power.
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What is the most common cause of light aircraft accidents?
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Stalls
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What are the three primary causes of stalls?
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Insufficient airspeed, excessively violent flight maneuvers, or severe wind shear.
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What is the critical angle of attack on most airfoils?
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15 - 20 degrees
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What are the three primary types of aircraft icing?
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Structural icing, pitot-static icing, and carburetor icing
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When pitot tube icing occurs what instrument becomes unreliable or unusable? What if the static vent also ices?
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(Pitot tube) Airspeed indicator (Static vent) Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, and altimeter |
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What conditions are most likely to cause carburetor icing?
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Temperatures between 20-70 degrees F with high humidity.
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Wake Turbulence (define)
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Wake Turbulence is a phenomenon resulting from the passage of an aircraft through the atmosphere. The term includes vortices, thrust stream turbulence, jet blast, jet wash, prop wash, and rotor wash both on the ground and in the air.
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Vortices (define)
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Circular patterns of air created by an airfoil moving through the air when generating lift.
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What is most predominant component of wake turbulence?
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Wingtip vortices
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The strength of a wake vortex (wingtip vortice) is governed by what three factors?
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- Weight of the aircraft - Shape of the wing - Speed of the aircraft |
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The greatest vortex strength is generated when an aircraft is in what condition/configuration?
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Heavy, clean, and slow.
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What is the greatest factor that affects the intensity of wake turbulence?
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The weight of the generating aircraft.
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Is wing loading greater on a clean configured wing or a dirty configured wing?
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Clean wing - there is less wing area, hence greater wing loading per sq ft.
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What impact does aircraft speed have on wake vortex generation?
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Generally the slower the speed, the more likely it is for a significant wake vortex to form.
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What speeds have some of the most intense wake vortices been recorded at?
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In excess of 300 FPS or 174 KTS
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What direction do wingtip vortices drift, relative to the aircraft generating them?
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Outward, and down.
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What direction do wingtip vortices rotate as viewed from behind the aircraft?
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The left vortex rotates clockwise, the right rotates counter-clockwise.
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When does vortex generation begin and end?
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Vortices are produced the moment the aircraft produces lift (rotation - nose wheel leaves ground.) Vortices cease the moment the aircraft stops generating lift - when all landing gear have touched down.
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Vortices sink at what rate? How far below the flight path do they level off?
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Vortices sink at 300 to 500 feet-per-minute. The vortices will level off at 500 to 1,000 feet below the flight path.
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Certain conditions will cause a wake vortex to descend more slowly or even climb slightly - what are they? |
Temperature inversion or slight updrafts.
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Close to the ground (100-200 feet) wingtip vortices will move how quickly laterally?
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2 to 3 knots.
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What affect does a crosswind have on vortex movement?
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A crosswind will stall the lateral movement of one vortex, while increasing the movement of the other.
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Induced Roll (define)
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Induced roll is the mechanical force a wake vortex has on an aircraft affected by it.
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What advantage does increased wingspan have in regards to counter control in a wake vortex?
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A plane with a sufficiently large wingspan that extends outside the wake vortex will be better able to counter the roll effect of the vortex than an aircraft with a smaller wingspan that has its ailerons totally engulfed by the vortex.
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Rotor downwash from a helicopter extends how many times it's rotor diameter?
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3 times the rotor diameter.
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True or false: Some evidence indicates that per pound of gross mass, helicopter vortices are more intense than those of fixed wing aircraft?
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True
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True or false: Helicopters generate wingtip vortices in forward flight?
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True
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Jet Blast (define)
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Jet engine exhaust (Thrust stream turbulence)
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True or false: Because wake turbulence is unpredictable, the controller is not responsible for anticipating its existence or effects
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True
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What is the greatest effect wake turbulence has on ATC?
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The need for increased separation, possible traffic management delays.
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What are aircraft categories used for? What are they?
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Providing same runway separation within the terminal environment. CAT I, CAT II, CAT III |
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Define each aircraft category, CAT I, CAT II, CAT III
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CAT I - 12,500 lbs. or less, single engine, prop driven CAT II - 12,500 lbs. or less, twin engine, prop driven CAT III - Any aircraft not described by CAT I or CAT II |
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What is the primary use of aircraft weight classes?
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Wake turbulence separation
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What are the four aircraft weight classes?
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Small, Large, Heavy, Super
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Define each of the four aircraft weight classifications.
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Small - up to and including 41,000 lbs. certified MTOW Large - More than 41,000 up to but NOT including 300,000 lbs. certified MTOW Heavy - More than 300,000 lbs. certified MTOW Super - Airbus A380 and Antonov AN-225 |
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An aircraft that is capable of 300,000 pounds of takeoff weight, but which currently only has a takeoff weight of 225,000 pounds, would fall into what weight class?
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Heavy (operating weight is not a determining factor. Only certified max takeoff weight is taken into account for classification.)
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What are CAT I aircraft's general performance characteristics (in regards to speed, altitude, rate of climb?)
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Speed - 100-160 knots Altitude - 10,000 feet and below Climb Rate - 1000 feet per minute or less |
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What are CAT II aircraft's general performance characteristics (in regards to speed, altitude, rate of climb?)
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Speed - 160-250 knots Altitude - FL240 and below Climb Rate - 1,000-2,000 feet per minute |
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What are CAT III aircraft's general performance characteristics (in regards to speed, altitude, rate of climb?)
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Speed - 300-550 knots Altitude - FL450 and below Climb Rate - 2,000-4,000 feet per minute |
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What are most helicopter's general performance characteristics (in regards to speed, altitude, rate of climb?)
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Speed - 90-160 knots Altitude - FL200 and below Climb Rate - 500-2,150 feet per minute |
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Aircraft designators are how many characters?
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2 to 4 characters
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The first character of an aircraft designator generally denotes what?
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The manufacturer or if a military aircraft - its purpose or role.
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What are the nine acceptable aircraft identification features?
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1. Size 2. Engine location and number 3. Engine type 4. Wing placement 5. Wing configuration 6. Tail configuration 7. Windows 8. Fuselage shape 9. Landing gear |
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What are the three primary aircraft engine types?
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Reciprocating, turboprop, turbojet
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What are the three basic wing placements?
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High-wing, mid-wing, and low-wing
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What are the three basic wing configurations?
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Straight-wing, swept-wing, and delta-wing
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What are the five tail configurations?
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Conventional tail, forward slant vertical stabilizer, Mid-tail, T-tail, V-tail
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What are the five window classifications?
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Oval, round, teardrop, square, bubble canopy
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What are two basic types of landing gear? (placement)
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Tricycle and conventional
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What are two types of landing gear operation?
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Fixed, retractable
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Controlled Airspace (define)
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is airspace of defined dimensions within which ATC services are provided to IFR/VFR flights according to airspace classification
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What altitudes are attributed to class A airspace?
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18,000 MSL - FL600 (inclusive)
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What are the requirements to operate in class A airspace? |
- All operations must be IFR - 2-way radio communications - Functioning mode C transponder |
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What are the general altitudes attributed to class B airspace?
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Surface to 10,000 MSL
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What are the requirements for operating in class B airspace?
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- ATC clearance to enter - Two-way radio communications - Mode C transponder - IFR aircraft require operable VOR/TACAN equipment |
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True or False: All aircraft receive separation services in class B airspace
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True
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What are the altitudes generally attributed to class C airspace?
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Surface to 4,000 feet above field elevation.
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What are the requirements to operate in class C airspace?
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- Two-way radio communication - Mode C transponder |
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True or false: VFR aircraft are separated from other VFR aircraft in class C airspace
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False - IFR/VFR and IFR/IFR
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What are the dimensions (altitudes) of class D airspace
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Surface to 2,500 above field elevation, must have operational control tower.
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What are the requirements to operate in class D airspace? |
- Two-way radio communications
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In class D airspace, are any separation services provided to VFR aircraft?
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No
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What are the confines of class E airspace?
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From either surface, 700, or 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 MSL. Class E contains all victor or RNAV tango routes.
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Are aircraft provided vectors in class G airspace?
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Only upon pilot request and as an additional sevice
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What are the seven types of special use airspace?
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Prohibited area Restricted Area Warning Area Alert Area Controlled Firing Area Military Operations Area National Security Area |
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(SUA) What is the controlling agency?
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The FAA facility that exercises control over a special use airspace when it is not activated.
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(SUA) What is the using agency?
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The military unit or other organization whose activity established the requirement for a SUA.
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Prohibited Area (define)
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A designated airspace where the flight of aircraft is not permitted without permission of the using agency. (Identified by P, a dash, plus a number)
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Restriced Area (define)
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designated airspace above U.S. land areas or territorial waters, within which flight of aircraft is NOT totally prohibited, but is subject to restrictions (Identified by R, a dash, and a number)
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Warning Area (define)
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An airspace of defined dimensions (extending from 3 NM outward from the coast of the U.S.) designated to contain activity that may be hazardous to non-participating aircraft. (Identified by a W, a dash, and a number)
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Alert Area (define)
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an airspace wherein a high volum of pilot training or an unusual type of aeronautical activity is being conducted. (Identified by an A, a dash, then a number)
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Controlled Firing Area (define)
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is airspace designated to contain activities that if not conducted in a controlled environment would be hazardous to non-participating aircraft. (E.G. - ordinance disposal, blasting, static testing of large rocket motors)
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Military Operations Area (define)
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airspace not within Class A airspace, for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic and to identify to VFR traffic where these activities are conducted.
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National Security Area (define)
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consist of airspace established at locations where there is an increased requirement for security of ground facilities
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Air Traffic Clearance (define)
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is an authorization by air traffic control for the purpose of preventing a collision between known aircraft and for an aircraft to proceed under specified conditions within controlled airspace
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Under whose authority are CFRs issued?
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The FAA Administrator
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Aircraft operating in the air or on airport movement areas are referred to as __________
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Air Traffic
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A level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury is referred to as ____________
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Flight Level
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Control of all air traffic within designated airspace by ATC is called _________ control
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Positive
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CFR 91.1 through 91.25 govern all air traffic in the U.S. including what dimensions extending from the coast?
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Waters within 3 NM of the U.S. coast and Airspace within 12 NM of the U.S. coast |
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Define the authority and responsibilities of the pilot-in-command.
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- Directly responsible for and has the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft - In an inflight emergency requiring immediate action, may deviate from any rule of CFR 91.x to the extent required to meet that emergency - Shall, upon request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator |
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What two restrictions apply to formation flight?
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- Those involved must make an arrangement with each P.I.C. of each aircraft that will be in the formation - Cannot carry passengers for hire in formation flight |
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In general, right-of-way rules state that aircraft involved alter course in which general direction?
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Right
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What is the maximum speed under 10,000 MSL?
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250 knots IAS
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Aircraft at or below 2,500 AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport of a class C airspace are limited to what airspeed.
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Not more than 200 knots
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Aircraft flying below the shelf of a class B airspace or through a VFR corridor in class B airspace are generally limited to what airspeed?
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Not more than 200 knots IAS
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What is the minimum safe altitude for aircraft in congested areas (VFR)?
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1,000 Feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet from the aircraft
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What is the minimum safe altitude for aircraft over "other than congested areas" (VFR)?
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500 feet above the surface over open water or sparsely populated areas. Not closer than 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
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What is the proper altimeter setting - At or above 18,000 MSL - Below 18,000 MSL ? |
- 29.92 - Current altimeter as reported by a station along the route within 100 NM of the aircraft |
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What are the 3 instances where a pilot may deviate from an ATC clearance? |
- Emergency - Obtains an amended clearance - in response to TCAS advisory |
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Pilots receiving priority due to an emergency have how long to (upon request) file a report of that emergency? To who?
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48 hours to the manager of the affected facility
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Large or turbine powered aircraft must maintain what altitude in the traffic pattern?
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1,500 feet above airport elevation
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A pilot may request a runway other than that require for noise abatement for what purpose?
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In the interest of safety
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When may a pilot-in-command cancel IFR?
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In VFR conditions, outside class A airspace
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Unless otherwise indicated, all turns in the traffic pattern are made which direction?
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Left
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Medical exams are scheduled how often for each group? Terminal/Center 1. 39 and below 2. 40 and above Flight Service 1. 39 and below 2. 40 and above |
1. 2 years2. 3 years
3. 1 year4. 2 years |
