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156 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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NAS (abbv) |
National Airspace System -Every person and thing required to safely get a plane from one point to another. |
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AFN (abbv) |
"Office of Finance and Management
(Streamlines agency functions to ensure they are delivered effectively and efficiently)" |
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ATO (abbv) |
Air Traffic Organization - Operational Arm of the FAA, resp. for safety, efficiency, security of operations across the NAS
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ARC (abbv) |
Office of Deputy Asst. Administrator for Regions and Center Operations (reports to FAA Admin. for AFN) 9 Regions
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AJT (abbv), what does it stand for and what 8 things does it oversee? |
"Air Traffic Services (Service Unit of ATO)
Oversees : 1. Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC) 2. Air Traffic COntrol Towers (ATCT, Federal) 3. Terminal Radar Approach Control Facilities (TRACON) 4. Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC) 5. Combined Center Radar Approach Control Facilities (CERAP) 6. Service Areas - Eastern, Central, Western 7. Contract Towers 8. Air Traffic Supervisor's Committee (SUPCOM)" |
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What is the FAA Line of Operating Authority from Administrator to YOU the Controller? |
FAA Admin -> ATO Chief Operating Officer -> Service Areas -> Facilities - > Controller (You)
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What are the three ATO Service Areas? |
Eastern, Central, Western
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"The Safe, Secure, and Efficient management of the National Airspace System (NAS) is the responsibility of who? A. Administrator B. Air Traffic Services (AJT) C. Director" |
B. Air Traffic Services (AJT) [One of Several ATO Service Units]
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"The ATO is managed by a(an) A. Administrator B. Vice President C. Chief Operating Officer" |
C. Chief Operating Officer (COO)
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What are the two types of flight rules? |
"Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
and Visual Flight Rules (VFR)" |
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Under VFR flight rules, pilots are responsible for what two things? |
"1. Maintaining visual separation from other aircraft
2. Remaining free of clouds to ensure good visibility" |
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Under IFR flight rules who is responsible for separation of aircraft from other aircraft, terrain, and man-made objects on ground? |
Air Traffic Control (ATC)
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What is the primary purpose of the ATC system? |
To prevent a collision between aircraft operating in the system and to provide a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic, and to provide for national security and homeland defense.
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"Explain a controller's Duty Priority (3 items)" |
"1. Separating traffic and issuing safety alerts
2. Provide support for national security and homeland defense 3. Additional services to the extent possible" |
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Explain Procedural Preference |
"1. Automation procedures are used in preference to non automation procedures when workload, communications, and equipment capabilities permit.
2. Radar procedures are used in preference to non-radar procedures when workload, communications, and equipment capabilities permit. 3. Non-radar procedures are used in preference to radar procedures when an operational advantage will be gained." Explain Operational Priority and its 7 exceptions |
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What are the three primary ATC facility types? |
"1. Flight service station (FSS)
2. Terminal Air Traffic Control Facilities -Towers -Approach Controls 3. Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC)" |
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Four FSS positions |
"1. Flight Data/NOTAM Coordinator
2. Broadcast 3. Preflight 4. Inflight" |
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(FSS Positions) Briefs pilots on weather, NOTAMs, and restrictions along proposed route; applies VFR not recommended procedures (VNR) |
Preflight
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(FSS Positons) Makes recordings of weather and flight information, such as Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) |
Broadcast
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(FSS Positions) Issues airport advisories, relays ATC clearances, advisories, or requests to pilot, monitors and restores NAVAIDs, activates and closes flight plans, assists pilots of lost aircraft. |
Inflight
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(FSS Positions) Disseminates IFR and VFR flight plans, initiates search and rescue, disseminates NOTAMs, performs custom notification |
Flight Data/NOTAM coordinator
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ATCT (abbv) |
Air Traffic Control Tower
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TRACON (abbv) |
Terminal Radar Approach Control Facility
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ARTCC (abbv) |
Air Route Traffic Control Center
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CERAP (abbv) |
Combined Center Radar Approach Control Facility
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What are the (6) tower team positions? |
"1. Flight Data
2. Clearance Delivery 3. Ground Control 4. Local Control 5. Tower Associate 6. Tower Coordinator |
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(Tower Positions) Performs interfacility/intrafacility coordination, advises the tower positions of actions required to accomplish objectives. |
Tower Coordinator
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(Tower Positions) Initiates control instructions, has responsibility for active runways, ensures separation |
Local Control
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(Tower Positions) Assists the tower positions by performing coordination and helps to ensure separation by maintaining awareness of tower traffic |
Tower Associate
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(Tower Positions) Compiles statistical data, processes and forwards flight plan information, reports weather information |
Flight Data
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(Tower Positions) Initiates control instructions, has responsibility for control of aircraft and vehicles on taxiways and runways which are not active, ensures separation. |
Ground Control
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(Tower Positions) Issues clearances and ensures accuracy of pilot readback |
Clearance Delivery
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What are the (4) TRACON positions? |
"1. Flight Data
2. Radar Controller 3. Radar Associate 4. Radar Coordinator" |
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What are the (4) ARTCC sector team positions? |
"1. Radar Flight Data
2. Radar 3. Radar Associate 4. Radar Coordinator" |
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What ARTCC/TRACON position is in direct communication with the aircraft? |
Radar Position
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What ARTCC/TRACON position is responsible for compiling statistical data and forwarding flight plan data? |
Radar Flight Data Position
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What ARTCC/TRACON position is responsible for ensuring separation, initiating control instructions, managing flight strip information, and ASSISTING the Radar Position with coordination? |
Radar Associate Position
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In the ARTCC/TRACON environment the Radar Coordinator position is responsible for what? |
Intra/Inter facility coordination.
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What is the mission of Traffic Management (TM)? |
- To Balance air traffic demand with system capacity to ensure maximum, efficient utilization of the NAS.
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Where are TMUs located? |
"1. All ARTCCs
2. Busier Terminal Facilities" |
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TMI (abbv) |
Traffic Management Initiative
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Monitoring and balancing air traffic flows in their area of responsibility is the primary function of: _______ |
Traffic Management Units (TMU)
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The mission of the Traffic Management system is to balance air traffic ________ with system _________ |
Demand, Capacity
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The operation of the Traffic Management SYSTEM is the responsibility of the _____________ |
ATCSCC (Air Traffic Control System Command Center)
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Normally done when the operating environment supports holding and the weather conditions are expected to improve shortly. |
Airborne Holding
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Routings other than the filed flight plan; designed to keep aircraft clear of special use airspace, congested airspace, or weather areas. |
Reroutes
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Overrides all other TM system programs. Aircraft remain on the ground until the program is terminated. |
Ground Stop
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Term to indicate aircraft will be cleared to an altitude lower than their requested altitude until they are clear of a particular airspace. |
Capping
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Aircraft are held on the ground until a specified time. |
Ground Delay Program (GDP)
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Assigns departure times that will facilitate integration into the en route traffic stream. |
En Route Sequencing Program (ESP)
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What are the various classifications of airspace? |
A, B, C, D, E, G
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What does ATS stand for and what are the types? |
"Air Traffic Service Routes:
Low Altitude - VOR (Victor) and RNAV ""Tango"" for Below 18,000 MSL High Altitude - Jet Routes and RNAV ""Q"" Routes for between FL180and FL450" |
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What is a NAVAID and what is the most common type? |
Navigational aid, can be ground or satellite based. VORs and VORTACs are the most common type.
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Define Phraseology |
A series of standard words and phrases to ensure that miscommunication between pilots and controllers is kept to a minimum.
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What type of airport sign is this?" |
Runway holding position sign, numbers indicate runway aircraft is holding short of.
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What airport sign is this?" |
Runway location sign, designator of the runway that the aircraft is currently on.
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What runway marking is this? (Consists of 4-16 longitudinal stripes dsepending on runway width)" |
Runway threshold marking, closely identify the actual beginning point of the runway threshold used for landings
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What are the three basic runway classifications in regards to runway markings? |
"1. Visual Runway (No Instrument Approach)
2. Runway with non-precision approach 3. Runway w/ precision instrument approach" |
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How would you designate a runway with the magnetic heading 094? |
Runway 9
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How would you designate a runway with a magnetic heading of 005? |
Runway 36
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An unusable portion of the runway which appears usable and is marked with large yellow chevrons identifies a _______ |
Blast Pad
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What type of sign is this and what does it indicate?" |
"Runway distance remaining sign. Indicates (in thousands of feet) the landing runway remaining.
Also help tower controllers in applying runway separtation standards." |
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What does each section of this sign indicate?" |
The black portion with yellow lettering and border indicates a taxiway location (aircraft currently on), the yellow portion with black lettering and directional arrows indicates the direction to a particular taxiway.
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"The centerline of a taxiway is marked with: A. Dashed yellow line B. Continuous yellow line C. Continuous white line" |
B. Continuous yellow line
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"A runway with a non-precision approach does NOT have which of the following runway markings? A. Threshold B. Designator C. Touchdown zone D. Aiming Point" |
C. Touchdown zone marking
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"Describe airport beacon colors for each airport type: Lighted Land Lighted Water Lighted Heliport Military" |
"Land - White then Green
Water - White then Yellow Heliport - White, yellow, then green Military - Two quick white, then green" |
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What are the three ways an aircraft can be separated (direction)? |
Vertically, Laterally, Longitudinally
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Explain basic Vertical Separation minima |
"- 1,000 feet for aircraft up to and including FL410
-2,000 feet at or above FL290 between non-RVSM aircraft and all other aircraft at or above FL290 - Above FL410, 2,000ft EXCEPT: above FL450 between a supersonic and any other aircraft - 4,000 ft - Above flight level FL600 between military aircraft 5,000 ft" |
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Explain separation restrictions for non-RVSM aircraft. |
"- Non-RVSM aircraft may only climb or descend through RVSM altitudes FL290-FL410. While transiting 2,000 ft separation must be applied.
Exceptions: (May be assigned RVSM altitudes even if non RVSM) -DOD Aircraft -DOD Approved A/C operated by NASA -MEDEVAC -Manufacturers aircraft being flown for development/certification -Foreign state aircraft" |
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In the non-radar environment, what is the minimum degree of divergence that may be assigned for the departure divergence rule? |
45 degrees
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In the non-radar environment what is the minimum longitudinal separation of aircraft (using DME) in both miles and minutes? |
10 minutes or 20 miles.
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Using terminal radar what are the separation standards (accounting for the distance from the radar antenna?) |
"- Both Aircraft less than 40 miles from antenna, 3 miles separation
-One or both more than 40 miles from antenna, 5 miles -If radar data displayed is from more than one antenna, always 5 miles" |
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Explain En route Radar separation standards |
"-At or above FL600, 10 miles
-Below FL600, 5 miles" |
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The minimum terminal radar separation required for tow aircraft 30nm from the antenna is _____ miles |
3 Miles
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The minimum en route separation required for two aircraft below FL600 is ____ miles. |
5 Miles
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(Airport Markings) Runway numbers and letters determined from the approach direction. |
Runway designation markings
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(Airport Markings) Consists of two rectangular white stripes, markings one on each side of the runway centerline approx. 1,000 ft from the landing threshold. |
Aiming point marking
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(Airport Markings) Consists of a single continuous yellow line. Provides a visual cue to permit taxiing along a designated path. |
Taxiway centerline
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(Airport Markings) These signs have a red background with a white inscription and are used to denote an entrance to a runway, critical area, or areas where an aircraft is prohibited from entering. |
"Mandatory instruction signs.
- Runway holding position - Runway approach holding position - ILS critical area holding position - No Entry" |
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Areas not under control of ATC on the airport. |
Non-movement Area
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(Airport Markings) Lighting circuits will be disconnected, and touchdown zone markings are obliterated and yellow crosses are placed at each end of the runway and at 1,000 ft intervals. |
Permanently closed runway
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What are REIL, and what color are they? |
Runway end identifier lights. Synchronized white flashing lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold facing incoming traffic.
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What is TDZL and what color and configuration are they in? |
Touchdown zone lighting. Two rows of white lights either side of the centerline extending up to 3,000 ft from the runway threshold or midpoint of the runway whichever is less.
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What are RCLS? |
Runway centerline lighting system. White centerline lights spaced 50ft apart, alternating red/white starting at 3,000 ft from runway end for the next 2,000ft, and all red for the last 1,000 ft.
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What are VASI? |
Visual approach slope indicators. Provide visual glideslope information (descent guidance)during approach to runway.
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What color are taxiway edge lights, centerline lights? |
Edge lights are blue, centerline lights are green.
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Define separation. |
The spacing of aircraft to achieve their safe and orderly movement in flight and while landing or taking off.
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Define flight level. |
A level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury. (E.G.) FL250 = a barometric altitude indication of 25,000 ft.
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What are the (2) methods for disseminating aeronautical information. |
Airmen's Information System (AIS) and the NOTAM system (Notices to Airmen)
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What is the NFDC and what is its purpose? |
National Flight Data Center- collects, validates, and disseminates aeronautical data that supports government, industry, and the aviation community.
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What is a NOTAM? |
Notice to Airmen - provides information not known sufficiently in advance to publish by other means regarding the establishment, condition, or change in any component of the NAS, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
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What is a certified source? |
"The party who enters a NOTAM to the United States NOTAM Service (USNS) using an approved direct entry interface.
The party is responsible for correct classification, format, and notifying the affected facilities." |
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Who can close a portion of an airport? |
Airport Management
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Who submits a NOTAM to the USNS using an approved direct entry tool or interface? |
Certified Source
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Who is responsible for reporting a condition considered hazardous to flight? |
All air traffic employees
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Who is the authority charged with monitoring the USNS (United States NOTAM Service) |
USNOF - United States NOTAM Office
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What are the (4) classifications of NOTAMS? |
"NOTAM D
Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAM Pointer NOTAM Military NOTAM" |
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How often is the NTAP (notice to airmen publication) published? |
Every 28 days
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"What are the runway widths associated with each number of threshold markings? 4 6 8 12 16" |
"4 - 60 feet
6 - 75 feet 8 - 100 feet 12 - 150 feet 16 - 200 feet" |
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What are the four parts of a primary radar system? |
Transmitter, Receiver, Antenna, Radar Display
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What is an MTI (Moving Target Indicator)? |
is an electronic device which will permit radar scope presentations only from targets which are in motion
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What is ground clutter? |
is a pattern produced on a radar scope by ground returns which may degrade radar returns in the affected area.
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What are two disadvantages of MTI? |
MTI Blind speed and Tangential course interpretation.
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What type of radar polarization would be used to reduce areas of heavy precipitation from a radar display? |
Circular Polarization
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(P. Radar Terminology) Displays only objects in motion |
Moving Target Indicator (MTI)
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Type of radar that requires no equipment on the aircraft |
Primary Radar
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(P. Radar Terminology) Focuses, broadcasts, and collects reflected radio energy |
Antenna
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(P. Radar Terminology) Depicts the position and movement of objects that reflect radio energy |
Radar Display (scope)
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(P. Radar Terminology) Reduces or eliminates echoes from precipitation |
Circular Polarization
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(P. Radar Terminology) Normal radar transmission that will cause an echo from anything that has mass |
Linear Polarization
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(P. Radar Terminology) Radar indications of aircraft or objects that do not exist |
False Targets
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(P. Radar Terminology) Appearance of clutter on the radar display caused by moisture in the air bending the radar beam. |
Anomalous Propagation
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(P. Radar Terminology) Occurs when warmer air is trapped on top of cooler air. (May distort radar beams) |
Temperature Inversion
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(P. Radar Terminology) Appearance of clutter on the radar display that results from two radar systems operating on similar frequencies. |
Electronic Radar Interference
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(P. Radar Terminology) Appearance of clutter on the radar screen caused by dropping large amounts of chaff. |
Passive Radar Jamming
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(P. Radar Terminology) Clutter pattern achieved by electronic disruption of the radar operating frequency. |
Active Radar Jamming
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(P. Radar Terminology) Area directly above the radar that is not included in the signal pattern. |
Blind Zone
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(P. Radar Terminology) Amplifies and converts reflected radio energy into video. |
Receiver
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What are the five major components of a secondary radar system? |
Interrogator, Decoder, Antenna, Transponder, Radar Display
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What are the advantages of secondary radar? |
Less vulnerable to blind spots, longer range than primary radar, radar responses not degraded by weather or ground clutter.
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What are some disadvantages of secondary radar? |
"-Only displays aircraft with a transponder
-Does not provide weather information - The return is affected by aircraft orientation" |
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The operation of an airport beacon during the day indicates what condition? |
IFR conditions (visibility less than 3 miles, ceiling lower than 1,000 ft)
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Runway edge lighting is white except for when? |
On runways with approved instrument approaches for the last 2,000ft (yellow).
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What are VASI? |
Visual approach slope indicator, a system of lights arranged to provide visual descent guidance (glideslope) during approach to the runway.
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What are ALS, and what is there purpose? |
Approach lighting systems. They provide the basic means to transition from instrument flight to visual flight.
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What color are taxiway centerline lights? Edge lights? |
Centerline lights are green, edge lights are blue.
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What is a runway guard light? |
A row of in-pavement yellow lights across a taxiway that draw attention to a runway hold position marking.
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What is lateral separation? |
The lateral spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by requiring operation on different routes or in different geographic locations.
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"Category 1 following cat1/cat2 - 3,000 ft |
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What are the (7) types of Traffic Management Initiatives?
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"1. Altitude2. Miles-in trail or Minutes-in-trail3. Fix balancing or airborne holding4. Sequencing Programs5. Reroutes6. Ground Delay Programs7. Ground Stops"
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Explain operational priority:
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"ATC services are provided on a 1st-come 1st-serve basis as circumstances permit,EXCEPT:1. Aircraft in distress (always have right-of-way)2. Civilian Air Ambulance (MEDEVAC),Military air evacuation (AIR EVAC)and scheduled air carrier/taxi flights when requested3. Search and Rescue when performing SAR flights4. Presidential Aircraft5. Flight Check Aircraft6. Special military/civilian operations7. Diverted flights (may request priority handling using DVRSN in the remarks section of flight plan)"
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A radio detection device which provides information on range, azimuth, and/or elevation of objects.
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Radar
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What are the four major components of a primary radar system?
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Transmitter, Antenna, Receiver, Radar Display (TARR)
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What are the five major components of a secondary radar system?
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Transponder, Radar Display, Interrogator, Antenna, Decoder (TRIAD)
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FAA JO 7110.10
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Flight Service
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FAA JO 7110.65
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Air Traffic Control
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FAA JO 7210.3
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Facility Operations and Administration
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FAA JO 7340.2
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Contractions
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FAA JO 7350.9
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Location Identifiers
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FAA JO 7360.1
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Aircraft Type Designators
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AIM
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Aeronautical Information Manual
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Order
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Permanent Directive, stay in effect until cancelled
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Notice
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Temporary directive that expire one year from effective date or earlier
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Change
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Add, remove, or modify information or instructions in an order
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Supplement
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are issued by organizations other than the originator of the basic directive to provide additional internal guidance or instructions
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(FAA Order Prefix System) -JO -JC -JE -JW |
JO - Whole ATO JC- Central Region JE- Eastern Region JW - Western Region |
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GENOT
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General Notice - Issued by Washington Headquarters
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RENOT
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Regional Notice
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SERNOT
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Service Area Notice
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What does "need not" or "may" mean in an FAA order?
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Optional
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What does "must" or "shall" mean in an FAA order?
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Mandatory
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What does "shall not" or "must not" mean in an FAA order?
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Prohibited
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What does "should" mean in an FAA order? |
Recommended
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Who is the review authority for an LOA? Who else can it be delegated to?
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Service Area Office - Air Traffic Representative (ATREP) - Air Traffic Manager or designee - Regional Air Defense Liason Officer (RADLO) |
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Who issues an SOP?
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Air Traffic Manager
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Regarding SOPs and LOAs, which is for interfacility use? Intrafacility?
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Interfacility - LOAIntrafacility - SOP
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