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100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The body's rate of kilocalorie consumption needed to fuel all ongoing activities is called the __________.
Total metabolic rate
Which of the following would decrease body temperature?
a. eating a large meal
b. dilation of cutaneous blood vessels
c. enhanced thyroxine release
d. shivering
Dilation of cutaneous blood vessels
The hyperglycemia that occurs during diabetes mellitus is accompanied by ______.
Which hormone directs essentially all events of the absorptive state?
Glycogen is formed in the liver during the ________.
Absorptive sate
Glucose can be obtained from ________.
T/F: The increased use of noncarbohydrate molecules for energy to conserve glucose is called glucose sparing.
T/F: The preferred energy fuel for the brain is fat.
T/F: A growing child is likely to exhibit negative nitrogen balance.
Which of the following is not a function of LDLs?
a. regulate cholesterol synthesis in tissue cells
b. assist in the storage of cholesterol when supply exceeds demand
c. make cholesterol available to tissue cells for membrane or hormone synthesis
d. transport cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver
Transport cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver.
T/F: Triglycerides and cholesterol do not circulate freely in the bloodstream.
T/F: The major role of HDLs is to store energy in the form of fat.
T/F: High levels of HDLs are considered good.
T/F: Leptin is a short-term regulator of food intake.
Metabolism includes both anabolism and catabolism. In hyperthyroidism, the metabolic rate is increased because ______.
The rate of exergonic reactions is increased
(Exergonic reactions are chemical reactions that release energy.)
Heavy sweating can induce heat cramps due to ______.
a. abnormal electrolyte levels in muscle cells
b. abnormal electrolyte levels in neurons
c. abnormal electrolyte levels in interstitial fluid
d. All of the listed responses are correct.
All of the listed responses are correct.
Although both conditions share the common characteristic of elevated body temperature, hyperthermia is technically different from fever because ______.
fever is a condition in which there is a change in the body's temperature set-point
(Fever is the body's response to a systemic microbial invasion and release of pyrogens by the immune cells. These pyrogens modify the body's temperature set-point in the hypothalamus.)
Which brain region is the main integrating center for thermoregulation?
Heat loss during sweating.
Heat loss in the form of infrared waves.
Heat transfer into the chair you are sitting on.
Heat exchange when you are under a ceiling fan.
Many factors influence BMR. What is the most critical factor?
The ratio of surface area to volume (weight) of the body
When a person's hypothalamic thermostat is set to a higher level and the actual body temperature is below that level, the person may ________.
T/F: Peptides called NPY and AgRP are powerful appetite enhancers.
Lipogenesis occurs when ________.
Cellular ATP and glucose levels are high.
Gluconeogenesis is the process in which ________.
Glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate precursors.
Hank, a 17-year-old high school student, suffered a heart attack during a recreational swim. An autopsy revealed that he had had atherosclerosis and that his death had been caused by coronary artery disease. What might have been the cause of this disease that usually strikes a person much older than Hank?
He suffered from familial hypercholesterolemia.
Which of the following is NOT a homeostatic imbalance related to underactivity of the thyroid gland?
a. endemic goiter
b. cretinism
c. Graves' disease
d. myxedema
Graves' disease (The most common hyperthyroid pathology is an autoimmune disease called Graves' disease. In this condition, a person makes abnormal antibodies directed against thyroid follicle cells).
Which hormone is the body's major metabolic hormone?
Thyroid hormone
(Thyroid hormone is the body's major metabolic hormone and affects virtually every cell in the body)
T/F: Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine.
Which of the following best describes the main effects of insulin?
a. release glucose into the blood by liver cells
b. synthesis of glucose from lactic acid and noncarbohydrate molecules
c. catabolize glycogen into glucose
d. lower blood glucose levels
Lower blood glucose levels.
Which of the following is a hypoglycemic hormone?
a. glucagon
b. growth hormone (GH)
c. insulin
d. epinephrine
Which hormone is involved in diabetes mellitus (DM)?
a. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
b. glucagon
c. insulin
d. aldosterone
Which of the following triggers the release of glucagon?
a. release of insulin
b. a decrease in blood glucose levels
c. somatostatin
d. hyperglycemia
A decrease in blood glucose levels.
Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?
a. polyphagia
b. polydipsia
c. polycythemia
d. polyuria
Which of the following hormones suppresses appetite and increases energy expenditure?
a. leptin
b. secretin
c. renin
d. gastrin
Leptin is secreted by ________.
T/F: Type 2 diabetics may reflect declining receptor sensitivity to insulin rather than decreased insulin production.
What constitutes the body's first line of defense against disease?
Intact skin and mucous membranes.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Natural Killer (NK) cells?
a. NK cells attack transplanted organs.
b. NK cells attack infected or cancerous cells.
c. NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane.
d. NK cells induce the target cell to undergo “apoptosis” (cell suicide).
NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane.
(NK cells do not recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane. NK cells to do not have specific antigen receptors – like T cells do. NK cells look for the absence of normally occurring “self” proteins on infected or cancerous cells.)
Which of the following innate internal defenses work by interfering with viral replication?
a. phagocytes
b. interferons
c. complement proteins
d. T lymphocytes
(Interferons are antimicrobial proteins that interfere with viral replication. They are produced by a virus-infected cell. Although the infected cell will die, it sends out interferons that protect the neighboring cells from the virus.)
How do phagocytes recognize foreign cells or bacteria?
The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells.
(They use mannose and Toll-like receptors to bind to the molecules found on pathogens)
Which of the innate defense mechanisms can lyse bacteria and mark cells for phagocytosis?
Complement proteins
(The complement proteins can lyse microorganisms using the MAC (membrane attack complex) system to form pores, mark cells for phagocytosis (opsonization), and promote inflammation.)
Which of the following can act as opsonins on bacteria, thus enhancing phagocytosis?
a. natural killer (NK) cells
b. interferons
c. T cells
d. antibodies and complement proteins
Antibodies and complement proteins
(both antibodies and complement proteins can act as opsonins on bacteria).
With what does our immune system coat pathogens to facilitate their capture and accelerate phagocytosis?
Four (or five) cardinal signs indicate inflammation. What specific sign of inflammation is the result of exudate in the tissue spaces?
Edema (swelling)
Which of the following inflammatory chemicals is released by mast cells?
When do neutrophils enter the blood from the red bone marrow, in response to leukocytosis-inducing factors?
When do neutrophils enter the blood from the red bone marrow, in response to leukocytosis-inducing factors?
What is the main event of chemotaxis?
Neutrophils and other WBCs migrate up the gradient of chemotactic agents to the site of injury.
Neutrophils flatten and squeeze between the endothelial cells of the capillary walls during what process?
What protein can be released by infected cells to help protect cells that have not yet been infected?
Interferons (IFNs)
What is the specific target of interferons?
Nearby healthy cells
Which of the following is an effect of complement activation?
a. fever
b. tissue repair
c. T cell activation
d. opsonization
(Complement proteins stimulate inflammation, serve as opsonins to aid in the phagocytosis of targeted antigens, and facilitate cytolysis.)
Which of the following is a role of interferons (IFNs)?
a. IFNs help the body combat viral infections.
b. IFNs activate helper T cells by presenting antigens.
c. IFNs stimulate the release of histamine.
d. IFNs stimulate antibody production in response to a bacterial infection.
IFNs help the body combat viral infections.
(Interferons (IFNs) are a group of proteins that have antiviral effects. IFNs activate macrophages and mobilize natural killer cells (NK cells) as well. They also have an anticancer role.)
Which defense mechanism results in redness, heat, pain, and swelling?

(The cardinal signs of an inflammatory reaction are redness and heat (due to increased blood flow to the area), pain (due to increased blood flow and chemical mediators), and swelling (due to leakage of blood plasma into the injured area).)
A physician orders Tylenol for a temperature greater than 101 degrees F. The patient's temperature is 100.4 F. What is the rationale for not medicating a fever of 100.4 F?
A mild or moderate fever is an adaptive response that seems to benefit the body. Bacteria need large amounts of zinc and iron to multiply. During fever, the liver and spleen sequester iron and zinc that bacteria need to multiply.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in phagocytosis?
a. chemotaxis, ingestion, digestion, adherence, killing
b. chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing
c. adherence, digestion, killing, ingestion, chemotaxis
d. ingestion, adherence, chemotaxis, digestion, killing
Chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing.
Which of the following is not a role of activated complement?
a. prevention of immediate hypersensitivity reactions
b. insertion of MAC and cell lysis
c. enhancement of inflammation
d. opsonization
Prevention of immediate hypersensitivity reactions.
Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms?
a. keratin
b. cilia
c. gastric juice
d. phagocytes
Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed ________.
T/F: The respiratory burst produced by some macrophages releases free radicals.
T/F: The classical complement pathway involves antibodies.
T/F: MHC I proteins (major histocompatibility class I proteins) are found on most cells of the body.
Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens?
a. small molecules
b. reactivity with an antibody
c. inhibit production of antibodies
d. contain many repeating chemical units
Reactivity with an antibody.
Immunocompetence ________.
Is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it.
Select the correct statement about antigens.

a. Only small antigens exhibit reactivity.
b. One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.
c. "Self-antigens" is another name for incomplete antigens.
d. The largest type of antigen is called a hapten.
One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.
Which cells mature in the thymus?
T cells
How does a lymphocyte become immunocompetent?
Lymphocytes must be able to recognize their one specific antigen by binding to it.
What are B and T cells called that have not yet been exposed to an antigen?
What mobilizes the adaptive defenses and provokes an immune response?
(Antigens (anything the body recognizes as foreign) are substances that can mobilize the adaptive defenses and provoke an immune response. Antigens are the ultimate targets of all adaptive immune responses.)
Which of the following cells engulf antigens and present fragments of them on their own surfaces, where they can be recognized by cells that will deal with them?
a. dendritic cells
b. plasma cells
c. T lymphocytes
d. NK cells
Dendritic cells
(Dendritic cells are antigen-presenting cells that engulf antigens and then present fragments of them to their own surfaces, where they can be recognized by T cells.)
B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.
Bone marrow
Which of the following exemplifies passive immunity?
a. antitoxin
b. vaccine
c. vaccine booster shots
d. infection
Which of the following best illustrates artificially acquired active humoral immunity?
a. infection
b. vaccines
c. antivenoms
d. antibodies received in breast milk
What part of the antibody's structure determines its class?
Constant (C) region
What is the first antibody released in the primary response and usually indicates infection?
Which mechanism of antibody action results in cell lysis?
Complement fixation and activation.
__________ immunity protects a baby who is fed breast milk.
Natural passive
(Natural immunity is achieved through natural, non-manmade means. Natural passive immunity occurs when an individual gets antibodies from another source--they are not self-made. In the case of a nursing infant, the process is natural and the baby is protected by antibodies received from the mother.)
__________ is the most abundant class of antibodies in plasma.
(IgG is the most abundant class of antibodies in plasma. Additionally, IgG is the only class of antibodies that normally crosses the placenta to protect the baby in utero.)
Why are children given vaccinations?
To develop antibodies against various diseases.
(Active humoral immunity is acquired in two ways. It is (1) naturally acquired via an active viral or bacterial infection and (2) artificially acquired via vaccines. Vaccines "prime" the immune response by providing a first meeting with the antigen without an infection occurring. As a result, antibodies are developed against the disease without having to get the disease.)
Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies?

a. incapable of being transferred from one person to another
b. carbohydrate structure
c. composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains
d. three binding sites per antibody monomer
Composed of heavy and light peptide chains.
Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies.
a. Neutralization is the process by which antibodies cause invading cells to clump together.
b. The most potent agglutinating agent is IgG.
c. Antibodies may directly destroy "invaders."
d. Complement fixation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection.
Complement fixation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection.
Class II MHC proteins are found on which of the following cell types?
Antigen-presenting cells
(Class II MHC proteins are found only on antigen-presenting cells.)
Which class of MHC proteins presents exogenous antigens?
Class II MHC proteins
(Class II MHC proteins present antigens that originated from outside the cell (phagocytized extracellular pathogens).)
Class I MHC proteins are recognized by which of the following cell types (that are destined to become T cells)?
(Class I MHC proteins are recognized by CD8 cells)
Which of the following types of cells display protein fragments produced by the cancer within them?
a. macrophages
b. dendritic cells
c. all nucleated cells
d. B cell
All nucleated cells
(Nucleated body cells bring pieces of endogenous proteins to the surface to display on the MHC protein.)
Which major class of lymphocytes become cytotoxic T cells?
CD8 cells
(CD8 cells become cytotoxic T cells.)
What type of cell is a precursor to the cytotoxic T cell?
CD8 cell
What activates CD8 cells?
Antigen fragments on class I MHC proteins.
What occurs if a T cell binds to an antigen and the T cell does NOT receive a co-stimulatory signal?
The T cell enters a state of anergy.
(In order for a T cell to be activated and release interleukins to coordinate an immune response, the T cell must bind to an antigen and receive a co-stimulatory signal. If a T cell binds to an antigen, but does not receive a co-stimulatory signal, then the cell enters a state of anergy or non-responsiveness.)
Which cell of the immune system is absolutely required for an adaptive immune response in that it helps activate both humoral and cellular immune responses?
Helper T cell
(Helper T cells mobilize both the cellular and humoral arms of adaptive immunity. Once they have been primed by APC presentation of antigen, they help activate B and T cells and induce B and T cell proliferation. Without the helper T cells, there is no adaptive immune response.)
Regulatory T cells ________.
May function in preventing autoimmune reactions.
T-cell activation requires ________.
Antigen binding and co-stimulation.
Cytotoxic T cells ________.
Are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells.
Helper T cells ________.
Function in the adaptive immune system activation.
T/F: The mechanism of the "lethal hit" of cytotoxic T cells and NK cells involves a protein called perforin.
T/F: Anaphylactic shock can result from an immediate hypersensitivity where the allergen enters the blood.
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
a. glomerulonephritis
b. multiple sclerosis
c. systemic lupus erythematosus
d. type II diabetes
Type II diabetes