Anatomy & Physiology 1 Test 2

Front 1

The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________.

Back 1

Myoglobin

Front 2

The term aponeurosis refers to ________.

Back 2

a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element

Front 3

In skeletal muscle contraction, calcium apparently acts to ________

Back 3

remove the blocking action of tropomyosin

Front 4

Which of the following is true about smooth muscle contraction?

Back 4

Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers

Front 5

The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________.

Back 5

Sarcomeres. They are the smallest functional 'contractile unit' of a muscle cells that includes myofibilaments, such as actin and myosin.

Front 6

With muscular dystrophy ________.

Back 6

muscle fibers degenerate and atrophy

Front 7

T/F Although there are no sarcomeres, smooth muscle still possesses thick and thin filaments.

Back 7

True. Although there are no sarcomeres, smooth muscle still possesses thick and thin filaments.

Front 8

The muscle cell membrane is called the ________.

Back 8

Sarcolemma

Front 9

T/F Smooth muscle is significantly different from striated muscle in several ways. Which of the following is true?

Back 9

True. Smooth muscle is significantly different from striated muscle in several ways. Which of the following is true?

Front 10

Which of the following is not a usual result of resistance exercise?
A) Increase in muscle size
B) Increase in the number of muscle cells

Back 10

Increase in the number of muscle cells is not a result of resistance exercise.

Front 11

The main effect of the warm-up period of athletes, as the muscle contractions increase in strength, is to ________.

Back 11

enhance the availability of calcium and the efficiency of enzyme systems

Front 12

T/F Eccentric contractions are more forceful than concentric contractions.

Back 12

True. Eccentric contractions are more forceful than concentric contractions.

Front 13

Rigor mortis occurs because ________.

Back 13

no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules

Front 14

T/F Myoglobin stores oxygen in muscle cells.

Back 14

True. Myoglobin stores oxygen in muscle cells.

Front 15

Smooth muscles that act like skeletal muscles but are controlled by autonomic nerves and hormones are ________.

Back 15

multiunit muscles

Front 16

T/F During isotonic contraction, the heavier the load, the faster the velocity of contraction.

Back 16

This is false.

Front 17

T/F The thin filaments (actin) contain a polypeptide subunit G actin that bear active sites for myosin attachment.

Back 17

This is true.

Front 18

Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell?
Permiycium
Lymph
Endomycium
Myomycium

Back 18

endomysium surrounds the individual muscle cells

Front 19

The strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by ________.

Back 19

increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus

Front 20

When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods?
Relaxation Period
Fatigue Period
Latent Period
Refractory Period

Back 20

Refractory Period: During repolarization, a muscle fiber is said to be in a refractory period because the cell cannot be stimulated again until repolarization is complete.

Front 21

The warm-up period required of athletes in order to bring their muscles to peak performance is called ________
A) Treppe
B) Twitch
C) Incomplete Tetanus
D) Wave Summation

Back 21

A) Treppe

Front 22

T/F A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric.

Back 22

True. A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric.

Front 23

One functional unit of a skeletal muscle is ________.

Back 23

A Sarcomere

Front 24

T/F The effect of a neurotransmitter on the muscle cell membrane is to modify its ion permeability properties temporarily.

Back 24

True. The effect of a neurotransmitter on the muscle cell membrane is to modify its ion permeability properties temporarily.

Front 25

Of the following muscle types, which has only one nucleus, no sarcomeres, and rare gap junctions?
A) Multiunit Smooth Muscle
B) Cardiac Muscle
C) Skeletal Muscle
D) Visceral Smooth Muscle

Back 25

A) Multiunit Smooth Muscle

Front 26

Fatigued muscle cells that recover rapidly are the products of ________.

Back 26

intense exercise of short duration

Front 27

T/F Although there are no sarcomeres, smooth muscle still possesses thick and thin filaments.

Back 27

True. Although there are no sarcomeres, smooth muscle still possesses thick and thin filaments.

Front 28

In skeletal muscle contraction, calcium apparently acts to ________.

Back 28

remove the blocking action of tropomyosin

Front 29

T/F Recruitment is an option in a single-unit smooth muscle cell.

Back 29

False.

Front 30

Smooth muscles that act like skeletal muscles but are controlled by autonomic nerves and hormones are ________.

Back 30

Multiunit Muscles

Front 31

Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped ________.

Back 31

no muscle tension could be generated

Front 32

Which of the following does not act as a stimulus to initiate a muscle contraction
a) hormonal activity
b) change in temperature
c) change in pH of muscle
d) neurotransmitters

Back 32

B) Change in Temperature

Front 33

Smooth muscle is significantly different from striated muscle in several ways. Which of the following is true?
A) Smooth muscle contracts in a twisting way.
B) The fibers of smooth muscle are arranged quadrangulary.
C) Smooth muscle has transverse tubules.
D) Smooth muscle is larger and more powerful than striated muscle.

Back 33

A) Smooth muscle contracts in a twisting way.

Front 34

The cells of single-unit visceral muscle ________.

Back 34

exhibit spontaneous action potentials

Front 35

T/F The more slowly a skeletal muscle is stimulated, the greater its exerted force becomes.

Back 35

False.

Front 36

Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate?

Back 36

Smooth

Front 37

The functional role of the T tubules is to ________.

Back 37

enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction

Front 38

T/F Peristalsis is characteristic of smooth muscle.

Back 38

True. Peristalsis is characteristic of smooth muscle.

Front 39

T/F Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract

Back 39

False.

Front 40

One functional unit of a skeletal muscle is ________

Back 40

A Sarcomere

Front 41

T/F The force of muscle contraction is controlled by multiple motor unit summation or recruitment.

Back 41

True. The force of muscle contraction is controlled by multiple motor unit summation or recruitment.

Front 42

The most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue is ________.
A) Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
B) Diversity of the activity of muscle tissue
C) Design of the Fibers
D) Ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy

Back 42

D) The ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy.

Front 43

The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________.

Back 43

Myoglobin

Front 44

In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________.

Back 44

changes in length and moves the "load"

Front 45

T/F A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric.

Back 45

True. A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric.

Front 46

Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers?

Back 46

a long, relaxing swim

Front 47

During vigorous excercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________.

Back 47

lactic acid

Front 48

T/F Recruitment is an option in a single-unit smooth muscle cell.

Back 48

False.

Front 49

T/F During isotonic contraction, the heavier the load, the faster the velocity of contraction.

Back 49

False.

Front 50

Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ________.
A) Contractility
B) Secretion
C) Excitability
D) Extensiblity

Back 50

Secretion

Front 51

T/F A resting potential is caused by a difference in the concentration of certain ions inside and outside the cell.

Back 51

True. A resting potential is caused by a difference in the concentration of certain ions inside and outside the cell.

Front 52

The strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by ________.

Back 52

increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus

Front 53

Muscle tone is ________.

Back 53

a state of sustained partial contraction

Front 54

The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.

Back 54

actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlap

Front 55

Calcium ions bind to the ________ molecule in skeletal muscle cells.

Back 55

Troponin

Front 56

T/F Single-unit smooth muscle is found in the intestines.

Back 56

True Single-unit smooth muscle is found in the intestines.

Front 57

T/F Although there are no sarcomeres, smooth muscle still possesses thick and thin filaments.

Back 57

True. Although there are no sarcomeres, smooth muscle still possesses thick and thin filaments.

Front 58

The role of calcium ions in muscle contraction is to ________

Back 58

bind to regulatory sites on troponin, changing the configuration

Front 59

T/F Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.

Back 59

True. Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.

Front 60

T/F The more slowly a skeletal muscle is stimulated, the greater its exerted force becomes

Back 60

False.

Front 61

T/F One of the important functions of skeletal muscle contraction is production of heat.

Back 61

True. One of the important functions of skeletal muscle contraction is production of heat.

Front 62

T/F Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract.

Back 62

False.

Front 63

The main effect of the warm-up period of athletes, as the muscle contractions increase in strength, is to ________.

Back 63

enhance the availability of calcium and the efficiency of enzyme systems

Front 64

T/F A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric.

Back 64

True.

Front 65

T/F The effect of a neurotransmitter on the muscle cell membrane is to modify its ion permeability properties temporarily.

Back 65

True. The effect of a neurotransmitter on the muscle cell membrane is to modify its ion permeability properties temporarily.

Front 66

T/F Movements of the thigh are accomplished by muscles anchored to the pelvic girdle.

Back 66

True. Movements of the thigh are accomplished by muscles anchored to the pelvic girdle.

Front 67

What do geniohyoid, hyoglossus, and stylohyoid have in common?

Back 67

All act on the tongue.

Front 68

Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the knee?

Back 68

Hamstring Muscles

Front 69

T/F The arrangement of a muscle's fascicles determines its range of motion and power.

Back 69

True. The arrangement of a muscle's fascicles determines its range of motion and power.

Front 70

In a pennate muscle pattern ________.

Back 70

muscles look like a feather

Front 71

The extensor carpi radialis brevis ________.

Back 71

extends and abducts the wrist and is short

Front 72

To produce horizontal wrinkles in the forehead, which of the following muscles is involved?

Back 72

the frontal belly of the epicranius

Front 73

Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles?
A) Muscle Location
B) Type of Muscle Fibers
C) Action Muscles Perform

Back 73

the type of muscle fibers

Front 74

Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants?
A) Vastus Intermidius
B) Vastus Medius
C) Vastus Lateralis
D) Rectus Femoris

Back 74

the vastus lateralis

Front 75

What primarily determines the power of a muscle?

Back 75

Arrangement of Muscle's Fascicles

Front 76

The extensor digitorum longus has which type of fascicle arrangement?

Back 76

Unipennate

Front 77

T/F The calcaneal tendon (Achilles tendon) is the largest, strongest tendon in the body.

Back 77

True. The calcaneal tendon (Achilles tendon) is the largest, strongest tendon in the body.

Front 78

T/F During contraction the two articulating bones move equally.

Back 78

False

Front 79

T/F The chewing muscle covering the ramus of the mandible is the buccinator.

Back 79

False.

Front 80

In flexing the forearm at the elbow, which muscle acts as antagonist?

Back 80

triceps brachii acts as antagonist

Front 81

The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. When the term levator is part of the descriptive term for a muscle's action, this means that ________.

Back 81

the muscle elevates and/or adducts a region

Front 82

What muscle is responsible for keeping your toes from dragging when walking?

Back 82

Fibularis Tertius

Front 83

T/F The soleus is a synergist of the gastrocnemius used in plantar flexion.

Back 83

True. The soleus is a synergist of the gastrocnemius used in plantar flexion.

Front 84

T/F In order to propel food down to the esophagus, the pharyngeal constrictor muscles would be used.

Back 84

True.

Front 85

Which of the following does not compress the abdomen?
A)Internal Oblique
B) External Oblique
C) Transversus Abdominus
D) Coccygeus

Back 85

Coccygeus

Front 86

T/F The epicranius or occipitofrontalis has two bellies, the frontal and occipital.

Back 86

True. The epicranius or occipitofrontalis has two bellies, the frontal and occipital.

Front 87

Which of the following muscles inserts by the calcaneal tendon?
Rectus Femoris
Gastrocnemius
Sartorius
Tibialis Anterior

Back 87

Gastrocnemius

Front 88

T/F The broadest muscle of the back is the latissimus dorsi.

Back 88

True. The broadest muscle of the back is the latissimus dorsi.

Front 89

What is the major factor controlling the manner in which levers work?
A) Weight of the load
B) Direction the load is moved
C) the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum

Back 89

C) the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum

Front 90

T/F Muscles that help to maintain posture are often called synergists.

Back 90

False.

Front 91

The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action?

Back 91

to stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction

Front 92

Spasms of this straplike muscle often result in wryneck or torticollis

Back 92

sternocleidomastoid

Front 93

T/F In order to propel food down to the esophagus, the pharyngeal constrictor muscles would be used.

Back 93

True. In order to propel food down to the esophagus, the pharyngeal constrictor muscles would be used.

Front 94

A muscle group that works with and assists the action of a prime mover is a(n) ________.

Back 94

Synergist

Front 95

Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the thigh?
A) Tibialis Posterior
B) Vastus Lateralis
C) Adductor Magnus
D) Gluteus Maximus

Back 95

C) adductor magnus

Front 96

Which group of muscles flexes and rotates the neck?

Back 96

The Scalenes

Front 97

If a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it means that the ________.

Back 97

load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum

Front 98

A muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement is called ________.

Back 98

An Agonist

Front 99

To exhale forcibly, one would contract the:

Back 99

internal intercostals and rectus abdominus.

Front 100

T/F Movements of the thigh are accomplished by muscles anchored to the pelvic girdle.

Back 100

True. Movements of the thigh are accomplished by muscles anchored to the pelvic girdle.

Front 101

Which of the following is not a member of the hamstrings?
A) Gracilis
B) Semitendinosus
C) Semimembraneous
D) Biceps Femoris

Back 101

Gracilis

Front 102

T/F Both first- and second-class levers operate at a mechanical disadvantage.

Back 102

False.

Front 103

T/F Muscles connecting to the hyoid bone are important for swallowing and speech

Back 103

True. Muscles connecting to the hyoid bone are important for swallowing and speech

Front 104

A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling called the ________

Back 104

Buccinator

Front 105

The muscles that are found at openings of the body are collectively called ________.

Back 105

Circular Muscles

Front 106

The suprahyoid muscles ________.

Back 106

are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity

Front 107

T/F Electromyography is the recording and interpretation of graphic records of the electrical activity of contracting muscles.

Back 107

True. Electromyography is the recording and interpretation of graphic records of the electrical activity of contracting muscles.

Front 108

Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the knee?

Back 108

Hamstring Muscles

Front 109

The suprahyoid muscles ________.

Back 109

are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity

Front 110

T/F Severing of the patellar tendon would inactivate the hamstring group.

Back 110

False.

Front 111

T/F The insertion of the biceps brachii is on the radius.

Back 111

True. The insertion of the biceps brachii is on the radius.

Front 112

T/F Muscles that help to maintain posture are often called synergists.

Back 112

False.

Front 113

Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions?

Back 113

Brachioradialis

Front 114

A muscle located on the dorsal side of the body is the ________.

Back 114

Infraspinatus

Front 115

Adductor magnus, adductor longus, and adductor brevis are parts of a large muscle mass of the ________.

Back 115

Medial Compartment of the Thigh

Front 116

T/F Plantar flexion at the ankle joint is accomplished by the tibialis anterior muscle.

Back 116

False.

Front 117

A pair of tweezers is a good example of a second-class lever.

Back 117

False.

Front 118

Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint?

Back 118

Tibialis Anterior

Front 119

T/F The soleus is a synergist of the gastrocnemius used in plantar flexion.

Back 119

True. The soleus is a synergist of the gastrocnemius used in plantar flexion.

Front 120

T/F Severing of the patellar tendon would inactivate the hamstring group.

Back 120

False.

Front 121

T/F Movements of the thigh are accomplished by muscles anchored to the pelvic girdle.

Back 121

True. Movements of the thigh are accomplished by muscles anchored to the pelvic girdle.

Front 122

T/F Although all skeletal muscles have different shapes, the fascicle arrangement of each muscle is exactly the same.

Back 122

False.

Front 123

T/F Muscle power does not depend on the direction of the fascicles.

Back 123

True. Muscle power does not depend on the direction of the fascicles.

Front 124

Orbicularis oris ________.

Back 124

closes, purses, and protrudes the lips

Front 125

When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, you can assume that ________.

Back 125

the muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively

Front 126

What primarily determines the power of a muscle?

Back 126

the total number of muscle cells available for contraction

Front 127

Scissors demonstrate which type of lever?

Back 127

a first-class lever

Front 128

Which group of fibers spreads impulses at up to 1 meter per second?

Back 128

group C fibers

Front 129

Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________.

Back 129

oligodendrocytes

Front 130

T/F A graded potential that is the result of a neurotransmitter released into the synapse between two neurons is called a postsynaptic potential.

Back 130

True. A graded potential that is the result of a neurotransmitter released into the synapse between two neurons is called a postsynaptic potential.

Front 131

The sympathetic and parasympathetic are subdivisions of the ________.

Back 131

autonomic nervous system

Front 132

The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the ________.

Back 132

absolute refractory period

Front 133

T/F Neurons that are far away from the center of the neuron pool and that are not easily excited by an incoming stimulus are in the discharge zone.

Back 133

False.

Front 134

Ependymal cells ________.

Back 134

help to circulate the cerebrospinal fluid

Front 135

In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting (nonconducting) neuron differ from the external environment? The interior is ________

Back 135

negatively charged and contains less sodium

Front 136

T/F A synapse formed between the axon ending of one neuron and the cell body of another neuron is called an axosomatic synapse

Back 136

True. A synapse formed between the axon ending of one neuron and the cell body of another neuron is called an axosomatic synapse

Front 137

T/F In myelinated axons the voltage-regulated sodium channels are concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier.

Back 137

True. In myelinated axons the voltage-regulated sodium channels are concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier.

Front 138

T/F Saltatory conduction occurs because of the presence of salt (NaCl) around the neuron.

Back 138

False.

Front 139

T/F The all-or-none phenomenon as applied to nerve conduction states that the whole nerve cell must be stimulated for conduction to take place.

Back 139

False.

Front 140

T/F Action potentials can be generated by virtually all cells of the body because all cells possess cell membranes.

Back 140

False.

Front 141

The term central nervous system refers to the ________.

Back 141

Brain and Spinal Cord

Front 142

The point at which an impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell is the ________.

Back 142

Synapse

Front 143

Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which cellular gates open?

Back 143

Potassium

Front 144

T/F Neurons in the CNS are organized into functional groups.

Back 144

True. Neurons in the CNS are organized into functional groups.

Front 145

If a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint along the length of the axon ________.

Back 145

the impulse would spread bidirectionally

Front 146

T/F If bacteria invaded the CNS tissue, microglia would migrate to the area to engulf and destroy them.

Back 146

True. If bacteria invaded the CNS tissue, microglia would migrate to the area to engulf and destroy them.

Front 147

Which of the following is not a structural feature of a neuron?
A) Nissil Bodies
B) Dendrites
C) Synaptic Cleft
D) Axon

Back 147

C) Synaptic Cleft

Front 148

T/F Unipolar neurons have axons structurally divided into peripheral and central processes.

Back 148

True. Unipolar neurons have axons structurally divided into peripheral and central processes.

Front 149

T/F The oligodendrocytes can myelinate several axons.

Back 149

True. The oligodendrocytes can myelinate several axons.

Front 150

T/F Action potentials can be generated by virtually all cells of the body because all cells possess cell membranes

Back 150

False.

Front 151

T/F Efferent nerve fibers may be described as motor nerve fibers.

Back 151

True. Efferent nerve fibers may be described as motor nerve fibers.

Front 152

T/F A stimulus traveling toward a synapse appears to open calcium channels at the presynaptic end, which in turn promotes fusion of synaptic vesicles to the axonal membrane.

Back 152

True. A stimulus traveling toward a synapse appears to open calcium channels at the presynaptic end, which in turn promotes fusion of synaptic vesicles to the axonal membrane.

Front 153

Nerve cell adhesion molecules (N-CAMs) ________.

Back 153

are crucial for the development of neural connections

Front 154

T/F Strong stimuli cause the amplitude of action potentials generated to increase.

Back 154

False.

Front 155

T/F Reflexes are rapid, automatic responses to stimuli.

Back 155

True. Reflexes are rapid, automatic responses to stimuli.

Front 156

A neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a(n) ________.

Back 156

association neuron

Front 157

An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________.

Back 157

hyperpolarization

Front 158

T/F In myelinated axons the voltage-regulated sodium channels are concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier.

Back 158

True. In myelinated axons the voltage-regulated sodium channels are concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier.

Front 159

T/F The two major classes of graded potentials are transmitter potentials and receptor potentials.

Back 159

False.

Front 160

A neuronal circuit that concentrates or directs a large number of incoming impulses to a rather small number of neurons is called a(n) ________

Back 160

converging circuit

Front 161

The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called a(n) ________

Back 161

axon

Front 162

T/F Large-diameter nerve fibers conduct impulses much faster than small-diameter fibers.

Back 162

True. Large-diameter nerve fibers conduct impulses much faster than small-diameter fibers.

Front 163

Select the correct statement about serial processing:
A) Memories are triggered by serial processing.
B) Input travels along several different pathways
C)Smells are processed by serial pathways
D) Spinal reflexes are an example of serial processing.

Back 163

D) Spinal reflexes are an example of serial processing.

Front 164

Ciliated CNS neuroglia that play an active role in moving the cerebrospinal fluid are called ________

Back 164

Ependymal Cells

Front 165

Neurons may be classified according to several characteristics. Which of the following is correct?

Back 165

Group C fibers are not capable of saltatory conduction.

Front 166

All of the following are true of graded potentials except that they ________.

Back 166

increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point

Front 167

T/F Saltatory conduction occurs because of the presence of salt (NaCl) around the neuron.

Back 167

False.

Front 168

When a sensory neuron is excited by some form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a(n) ________.

Back 168

generator potential

Front 169

Select the correct statement about synapses.
A) Cells with interconnected cytoplasm are chemically coupled.
B) The release of neurotransmitter molecules gives cells the property of being electrically coupled.
C) Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the axons of cells.
D) The synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron to another.

Back 169

D) The synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron to another.

Front 170

A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ________.

Back 170

the membrane potential has been reestablished

Front 171

Which of the following is/are involved with motor activity (either initiation or coordination)?

Back 171

red nuclei

Front 172

Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called

Back 172

Gyrus. Groove is a sulcus. A deep sulcus is referred to as a fissure

Front 173

The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?

Back 173

arachnoid and pia

Front 174

The suprachiasmatic nucleus is found in the ________.

Back 174

hypothalamus

Front 175

The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensations of the full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the ________.

Back 175

Visceral Sensory Area

Front 176

Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________

Back 176

pyramidal and corticospinal

Front 177

Declarative memory ________.

Back 177

is the ability to learn specific information

Front 178

The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________.

Back 178

medulla

Front 179

Mr. Hom was injured in an accident that completely severed his spinal cord at the level of T12. You would expect to find all of the following except:
A) loss of sensation below the level of injury
B) perspiration in the affected area
C) slurred speech
D) paralysis of the lower extremitie

Back 179

slurred speech

Front 180

Spastic paralysis suggests involvement of the ________.

Back 180

upper motor neurons

Front 181

T/F Nondeclarative memories preserve the circumstances in which they are learned.

Back 181

False.

Front 182

All of the following are structures of the limbic system except the ________.
A) cingulate gyrus
B) caudate nucleus
C) amygdaloid nucleus
D) hippocampu

Back 182

B) caudate nucleus

Front 183

Neural tracts that convey life-saving information to the brain concerning burning pain would be ________.

Back 183

lateral spinothalamic

Front 184

Important nuclei of the indirect (multineural) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium apparatus of the inner ear and help to maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the ________.

Back 184

vestibular nuclei

Front 185

Which of the following would you not find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?
Protein
Glucose
Red Blood Cells
Potassium

Back 185

Red Blood Cells

Front 186

T/F Sorting of sensory information and relaying it to the appropriate cerebral sensory area occurs in the hypothalamus.

Back 186

False.

Front 187

The limbic association area of the multimodal association areas provides our ________.

Back 187

Emotional Impact

Front 188

Which of the following is not a midbrain structure?
red nucleus
third ventricle
corpora quadrigemina

Back 188

third ventricle

Front 189

An individual accidentally transected the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in ________.

Back 189

Paraplegia

Front 190

T/F Petit mal seizures found in children generally go away with age.

Back 190

True. Petit mal seizures found in children generally go away with age.

Front 191

Which of the following structures is probably not directly involved in memory?
Amygdala
Prefrontal Cortex
Medulla
Hippocampus

Back 191

medulla

Front 192

T/F Meningitis is the most accurate term for inflammation of neurons.

Back 192

False.

Front 193

T/F Theta waves are a brain wave pattern that can be seen during deep sleep and during anesthesia.

Back 193

False

Front 194

Which of the following is/are involved with motor activity (either initiation or coordination)?
A) postcentral gyrus.
B) gustatory cortex.
C) red nuclei

Back 194

Red Nuceli

Front 195

Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________.
A) gyri
B) sulci
C) fissures
D) ganglia

Back 195

A) Gyri

Front 196

The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?

Back 196

Arachnoid and Pia

Front 197

The suprachiasmatic nucleus is found in the ________.

Back 197

hypothalamus

Front 198

A lateral tract in the spinal cord would be ________.
A) rubrospinal
B) vestibulospinal
C) tectospinal
D) pyramidal

Back 198

A) rubrospinal

Front 199

The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensations of the full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the ________.

Back 199

visceral sensory area

Front 200

Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________.
A) pyramidal and corticospinal
B) extrapyramidal and rubrospinal
C) segmental and nigrostriatal
D) supplementary and cerebellar-pontine

Back 200

A) pyramidal and corticospinal

Front 201

T/F Declarative memory is the ability to learn specific information.

Back 201

True. Declarative memory is the ability to learn specific information

Front 202

The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________.

Back 202

Medulla

Front 203

Mr. Hom was injured in an accident that completely severed his spinal cord at the level of T12. You would expect to find all of the following except ________.
Lower limb paralysis
Slurred Speech

Back 203

Slurred Speech

Front 204

Spastic paralysis suggests involvement of the ________.
A) Lower Motor Neurons
B) Upper Motor Neurons
C) Medial Motor Neurons

Back 204

B) Upper Motor Neurons

Front 205

T/F Nondeclarative memories preserve the circumstances in which they are learned.

Back 205

False

Front 206

All of the following are structures of the limbic system except the ________.
A) hippocampus
B) cingulate gyrus
C) amygdaloid nucleus
D) caudate nucleus

Back 206

D) Caudate Nucleus. The caudate nuclei are located near the center of the brain, sitting astride the thalamus. They form part of the lateral ventricle.

Front 207

Neural tracts that convey life-saving information to the brain concerning burning pain would be ________.

Back 207

Lateral Spinothalmic

Front 208

Important nuclei of the indirect (multineural) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium apparatus of the inner ear and help to maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the ________.

Back 208

Vestibular Nuclei

Front 209

Storing information in long-term memory ________.
A) depends on the remaining capacity of long-term memory
B) is interfered with by emotional arousal
C) is facilitated by the release of norepinephrine
D) is always dependent on the formation of conscious impressions

Back 209

C) Is facilitated by the release of norepinephrine

Front 210

Which of the following would you not find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?
Glucose
RBCs

Back 210

Red Blood Cells

Front 211

T/F Sorting of sensory information and relaying it to the appropriate cerebral sensory area occurs in the hypothalamus.

Back 211

False.

Front 212

The limbic association area of the multimodal association areas provides our ________.
A) emotional impact
B) working memory
C) recall and personality
D) learning abilities

Back 212

Emotional Impact

Front 213

Which of the following is not a midbrain structure?
A) third ventricle
B) cerebral peduncles
C) corpora quadrigemina
D) red nucleus

Back 213

A) Third Ventricle.

Front 214

Which of the following structures is probably not directly involved in memory?
A) hippocampus
B) medulla
C) amygdala
D) prefrontal cortex

Back 214

B) Medulla

Front 215

T/F Meningitis is the most accurate term for inflammation of neurons

Back 215

False.

Front 216

Nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, and VII are found in the ________.
A) midbrain
B) medulla
C) pons
D) cerebrum

Back 216

Pons

Front 217

T/F Embryonic damage to the mesencephalon could result in improper formation of the midbrain.

Back 217

True. Embryonic damage to the mesencephalon could result in improper formation of the midbrain

Front 218

Important nuclei of the indirect (multineural) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium apparatus of the inner ear and help to maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the ________.

Back 218

vestibular nuclei

Front 219

Which is the mildest consequence of traumatic brain injury?

Back 219

Concussion

Front 220

Brain wave amplitude ________.
A) reflects the number of neurons firing synchronously
B) is an average of about 1 V
C) results from subtraction of delta waves from theta waves
D) is the measure of activity of specific individual neurons

Back 220

A) reflects the number of neurons firing synchronously

Front 221

White matter (myelinated fibers) is found in all of the following locations, with the exception of the ________.
A) corpus callosum
B) cerebral cortex
C) corticospinal tracts
D) outer surface of the spinal cord

Back 221

B) Cerebral Cortex

Front 222

T/F The primary visual cortex contains a map of visual space.

Back 222

True. The primary visual cortex contains a map of visual space.

Front 223

T/F Epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection, and tumor.

Back 223

True. Epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection, and tumor.

Front 224

Tremor at rest, shuffling gait, stooped posture, and expressionless face are characteristics of ________.

Back 224

Parkinson's Disease

Front 225

The function of commissures is to connect ________.
A) adjacent areas of gray matter within a cerebral hemisphere
B) corresponding areas of the two hemispheres
C) areas of cortex with lower centers
D) pyramidal cells with corresponding cerebellar cells

Back 225

B) corresponding areas of the two hemispheres

Front 226

The corpus striatum plays a special role in ________
A) face recognition
B) fact learning
C) spatial learning
D) skill learning

Back 226

D) skill learning

Front 227

T/F Sensory areas of the cortex for the genitals are located deep in the postcentral gyrus.

Back 227

True. Sensory areas of the cortex for the genitals are located deep in the postcentral gyrus.

Front 228

The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.

Back 228

metabolic waste such as urea

Front 229

The nonspecific ascending pathways ________.
A) are evolutionarily newer than the specific pathways
B) receive inputs from a single type of sensory receptor
C) are involved in the emotional aspects of perception
D) are also called the lemniscal system

Back 229

C) are involved in the emotional aspects of perception

Front 230

An individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her finger but could not recognize it as a bicycle is most likely to have sustained damage to the ________.

Back 230

Visual Association Area

Front 231

T/F Most of the ascending and descending pathways to and from the brain cross over from one side of the body to the other.

Back 231

True. Most of the ascending and descending pathways to and from the brain cross over from one side of the body to the other.

Front 232

T/F Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and in the subarachnoid space outside the brain

Back 232

True. Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and in the subarachnoid space outside the brain

Front 233

Which statement about aging is most accurate?
A) The brain reaches its maximum weight around the seventh decade of life.
B) Synaptic connections are too fixed to permit a great deal of learning after the age of 35.
C) Despite some neuronal loss, changing synaptic connections support additional learning throughout life.
D) Learning throughout the adult and aging years is supported primarily by glial proliferation.

Back 233

C) Despite some neuronal loss, changing synaptic connections support additional learning throughout life.

Front 234

The brain stem consists of the ________.

Back 234

midbrain, medulla, and pons

Front 235

T/F One disorder of the substantia nigra is Parkinson's disease

Back 235

True. One disorder of the substantia nigra is Parkinson's disease

Front 236

Babinski's sign is ________.

Back 236

when the great toe dorsiflexes and the other toes fan laterally

Front 237

Regeneration within the CNS ________.

Back 237

is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes

Front 238

The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves?

Back 238

common fibular and tibial

Front 239

The projection level of the brain does not include the ________.
A) reticular formation
B) cerebellum
C) brain stem nuclei
D) basal nuclei

Back 239

D) Basal Nuclei

Front 240

A patient who received a blow to the side of the skull exhibits the following signs and symptoms on that side of the face: he is unable to close his eye, and the corner of his mouth droops. Which cranial nerve has been damaged?

Back 240

Facial

Front 241

If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies?

Back 241

a complete loss of voluntary movement

Front 242

The ________ nerve is not a branch of the trigeminal nerve.
A) ophthalmic
B) mandibular
C) cervical
D) maxillary

Back 242

C) Cervical

Front 243

The circuit level of the somatosensory system delivers impulses to the appropriate level of the ________.
A) cerebral cortex
B) brain stem
C) spinal cord
D) thalamus

Back 243

A) Cerebral Cortex

Front 244

T/F Dermatomes are skin segments that relate to sensory innervation regions of the spinal nerves.

Back 244

True. Dermatomes are skin segments that relate to sensory innervation regions of the spinal nerves.

Front 245

T/F Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face.

Back 245

True. Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face.

Front 246

T/F The second cranial nerve forms a chiasma at the base of the brain for partial crossover of neural fibers.

Back 246

True. The second cranial nerve forms a chiasma at the base of the brain for partial crossover of neural fibers.

Front 247

T/F The meningeal branch of a spinal nerve actually reenters the vertebral canal to innervate the meninges and blood vessels.

Back 247

True. The meningeal branch of a spinal nerve actually reenters the vertebral canal to innervate the meninges and blood vessels.

Front 248

Striking the "funny bone" is actually stimulation of (or injury to) the ________
Radial Nerve
Ulnar Nerve

Back 248

Ulnar Nerve

Front 249

he cranial nerve with a dual origin (brain and spinal cord) is the ________.
A) accessory
B) glossopharyngeal
C) vagus
D) hypoglossal

Back 249

Accessory

Front 250

Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the following?
A) trigeminal
B) facial
C) oculomotor
D) olfactory

Back 250

Olfactory

Front 251

T/F The obturator nerve branches from the sacral plexus.

Back 251

False.

Front 252

A fall or an improperly delivered gluteal injection could result in ________.
A) paresthesia
B) postpoliomyelitis muscular atrophy
C) sciatica
D) neurofibromatosis

Back 252

Sciatica

Front 253

The three primary levels of neural integration in a somatosensory system include all of the following except the ________.
A) perceptual level
B) effector level
C) circuit level
D) receptor level

Back 253

B) Effector Level

Front 254

Which nerve does not use the jugular foramen as a route of exit from the skull?
A) glossopharyngeal
B) accessory
C) trigeminal
D) vagus

Back 254

C) Trigeminal

Front 255

Which of the following is at the lowest level of the CNS?
a) direct system
b)indirect system
c)projection level
d)CPG

Back 255

D) CPG

Front 256

T/F In the somatosensory system there are no third-order neurons in the cerebellum

Back 256

True. In the somatosensory system there are no third-order neurons in the cerebellum

Front 257

A fracture of the ethmoid bone could result in damage to which cranial nerve?

Back 257

Olfactory

Front 258

Select the statement that is most correct.
A) Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies in the CNS that are associated with efferent fibers.
B) Afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.
C) The dorsal root ganglion is a motor-only structure.
D) The cell bodies of afferent ganglia are located in the spinal cord

Back 258

B) Afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.

Front 259

T/F Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons

Back 259

True.

Front 260

Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________.

Back 260

Afferent Nerves

Front 261

The projection level of the brain does not include the ________.
A) basal nuclei
B) brain stem nuclei
C) reticular formation
D) cerebellum

Back 261

Basal Nuclei

Front 262

T/F The only cranial nerves to extend beyond the head and neck region are the vagus nerves

Back 262

True. The only cranial nerves to extend beyond the head and neck region are the vagus nerves

Front 263

If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies?
A) complete loss of sensation
B) a complete loss of voluntary movement
C) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control
D) a complete loss of sensation and movement

Back 263

B) a complete loss of voluntary movement

Front 264

The trochlear nerve conveys proprioceptor impulses from the ________ to the brain.

Back 264

Superior Rectus Muscle

Front 265

Transduction refers to conversion of ________.

Back 265

stimulus information to nerve impulses

Front 266

T/F Bell's palsy is characterized by paralysis of facial muscles.

Back 266

True. Bell's palsy is characterized by paralysis of facial muscles

Front 267

The three primary levels of neural integration in a somatosensory system include all of the following except the _______
A) receptor level
B) circuit level
C) perceptual level
D) effector level

Back 267

D) Effector Level

Front 268

T/F The musculocutaneous nerve is a major nerve of the brachial plexus.

Back 268

True. The musculocutaneous nerve is a major nerve of the brachial plexus.

Front 269

A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ________

Back 269

Golgi Tendon Reflex

Front 270

The posterior side of the thigh, leg, and foot is served by the ________ nerve.
A) obturator
B) common fibular
C) tibial
D) femoral

Back 270

C) Tibial

Front 271

T/F Irritation of the phrenic nerve may cause diaphragm spasms called hiccups.

Back 271

True. Irriatation of the phrenic nerve may cause diaphragm spasms called hiccups

Front 272

The abducens nerve ________.
A) supplies innervation to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye
B) relays sensory information from taste buds on the tongue
C) exits from the medulla
D) if paralyzed, exhibits Bellʹs palsy

Back 272

A) supplies innervation to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye

Front 273

The thickest and longest nerve of the body is found in the _______

Back 273

sacral plexus

Front 274

The peripheral nervous system includes ________
A) sensory receptors
B) basal nuclei
C) the spinal cord
D) the corpus callosum

Back 274

sensory receptors

Front 275

Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?
A) abducens
B) vestibulocochlear
C) trigeminal
D) accessory

Back 275

B) Vestibulocochlear

Front 276

All processing at the circuit level going up to the perceptual level must synapse in the ________
A) pons
B) thalamus
C) reticular formation
D) medulla

Back 276

Thalamus

Front 277

Regeneration within the CNS ________
A) is more successful than with the PNS
B) typically allows axonal sprouting of 20 mm
C) is complicated by secondary demyelination
D) is promoted by growth inhibitors and glial scars

Back 277

C) is complicated by secondary demyelination

Front 278

True/False In order to regulate motor activity, to start and stop movements, and to coordinate postural movements, the cerebellum and basal nuclei are involved.

Back 278

True. In order to regulate motor activity, to start and stop movements, and to coordinate postural movements, the cerebellum and basal nuclei are involved.

Front 279

Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are, in order _______:
A) rami/roots, trunks, divisions, and cords
B) rami, divisions, cords, and trunks
C) divisions, rami, trunks, and cords
D) trunks, divisions, cords, and rami

Back 279

A) rami, trunks, divisions, and cords

Front 280

The flexor muscles in the anterior arm (biceps brachii and brachialis) are innervated by what nerve?
A) radial
B) median
C) ulnar
D) musculocutaneous

Back 280

D) musculocutaneous

Front 281

T/F The second cranial nerve forms a chiasma at the base of the brain for partial crossover of neural fibers.

Back 281

True. The second cranial nerve forms a chiasma at the base of the brain for partial crossover of neural fibers.

Front 282

Feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the following except ________.
A) Meissnerʹs corpuscles
B) Merkel discs
C) Pacinian corpuscles
D) root hair plexuses

Back 282

C) Pacinian corpuscles

Front 283

A simple spinal reflex goes along which of the following reflex arcs?
A) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor
B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
C) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor
D) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector

Back 283

B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector

Front 284

T/FThe dorsal ramus consists only of motor fibers bringing information to the spinal cord.

Back 284

False.

Front 285

Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the following?
A) oculomotor
B) olfactory
C) trigeminal
D) facial

Back 285

B) Olfactory (also given with vestibulocochlear as an answer)

Front 286

After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________

Back 286

Schwann Cells

Front 287

Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________.

Back 287

Sacral Plexus

Front 288

CPG is at the lowest level of the CNS. What does CPG stand for?

Back 288

Central Pattern Generators (CPGs)

Front 289

Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________.

Back 289

sacral plexus

Front 290

Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________
Afferent or Efferent

Back 290

Afferent Nerves

Front 291

If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies?
A) complete loss of sensation
B) a complete loss of voluntary movement
C) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control
D) a complete loss of sensation and movement

Back 291

B) a complete loss of voluntary movement

Front 292

The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves?

Back 292

Common Fibular and Tibia

Front 293

A patient who received a blow to the side of the skull exhibits the following signs and symptoms on that side of the face: he is unable to close his eye, and the corner of his mouth droops. Which cranial nerve has been damaged?

Back 293

Facial

Front 294

In a crossed extensor reflex, if the right arm were grabbed it would flex and the left arm would ________

Back 294

Extend

Front 295

T/F External strabismus and ptosis could be caused by damage to the oculomotor nerve.

Back 295

True. External strabismus and ptosis could be caused by damage to the oculomotor nerve.

Front 296

Which of the following nerves does not arise from the brachial plexus?
A) median
B) phrenic
C) radial
D) ulnar

Back 296

B) phrenic

Front 297

A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ________
A) femoral
B) iliohypogastric
C) sciatic
D) ilioinguinal

Back 297

A) Femoral

Front 298

T/F The obturator nerve branches from the sacral plexus.

Back 298

False.

Front 299

The patellar "knee jerk" reflex is an example of a(n) _______reflex.

Back 299

Stretch Reflex

Front 300

T/F There are 41 pairs of spinal nerves..

Back 300

False.

Front 301

T/F Dorsal and ventral rami are similar in that they both contain sensory and motor fibers.

Back 301

True. Dorsal and ventral rami are similar in that they both contain sensory and motor fibers.

Front 302

Which of the following is not a nerve plexus?
A) brachial
B) cervical
C) lumbar
D) thoracic

Back 302

D) Thoracic

Front 303

T/F Through direct neural stimulation, the sympathetic division promotes many metabolic effects via hormone release.

Back 303

True. Through direct neural stimulation, the sympathetic division promotes many metabolic effects via hormone release.

Front 304

Parasympathetic functions include ________.
A) a stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction.

B) allowing the body to cope with an external threat.

C) Lens accommodation for close vision.

Back 304

"rest and digest"
lens accomodation for close vision

Front 305

T/F The gray rami communicantes consist of myelinated postganglionic fibers

Back 305

False.

Front 306

The route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is the ________.

Back 306

Vagus Nerve

Front 307

T/F The chain ganglion, like the dorsal root ganglion, contains soma from sensory neurons

Back 307

False.

Front 308

Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________.

Back 308

Sympathetic Nervous System

Front 309

T/F Cranial nerves VII, IX, and X contain postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system.

Back 309

False.

Front 310

The vagus nerve does not innervate the ________.
A) pancreas
B) kidneys
C) parotid gland
D) gallbladde

Back 310

C) Parotid Gland

Front 311

Sympathetic fibers leave the spinal cord in the ________.
A) craniosacral regions, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
B) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine
C) craniosacral region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine
D) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine

Back 311

D) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine

Front 312

8) Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ________.
A) V Trigeminal
B) VII Facial
C) X Vagus
D) XII Hypoglossal

Back 312

C) X Vagus

Front 313

Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________
A) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow
B) single preganglionic axons make multiple synapses with ganglionic neurons
C) preganglionic fibers are short
D) preganglionic fibers are long

Back 313

B) single preganglionic axons make multiple synapses with ganglionic neurons

Front 314

Raynaud's disease ________.

Back 314

is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremitie

Front 315

Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebrae?

Back 315

First Thoracic T1

Front 316

The possibility of some control over autonomic responses is demonstrated by ________
A) split brain studies
B) stress-induced hypertension
C) biofeedback
D) nightmares

Back 316

biofeedback

Front 317

T/F Autonomic reflex centers occur in the spinal cord, medulla, and midbrain

Back 317

False

Front 318

T/F Since many of the same cardiac cells are innervated by both parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers, the influence of the two divisions on the heart is synergistic.

Back 318

False.

Front 319

T/F The sympathetic chain is composed of collateral ganglia.

Back 319

True. The sympathetic chain is composed of collateral ganglia.

Front 320

T/F The craniosacral division is another name for the parasympathetic division.

Back 320

True. The craniosacral division is another name for the parasympathetic division.

Front 321

T/F The autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition, depending on the division that is active and the target that is affected.

Back 321

True. The autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition, depending on the division that is active and the target that is affected.

Front 322

T/F The rami communicantes are associated only with the sympathetic division of the ANS.

Back 322

True. The rami communicantes are associated only with the sympathetic division of the ANS.

Front 323

Autonomic dysreflexia ________.

Back 323

involves uncontrolled activation of autonomic neurons

Front 324

T/F Since the ANS is a visceral motor system, afferent pathways are of no importance and actually are rarely found.

Back 324

False.

Front 325

Which is a uniquely sympathetic function?
A) regulation of pupil size
B) regulation of cardiac rate
C) regulation of respiratory rate
D) regulation of body temperature

Back 325

D) regulation of body temperature

Front 326

T/F Events recorded in a lie detector examination are controlled by the sympathetic division.

Back 326

True. Events recorded in a lie detector examination are controlled by the sympathetic division.

Front 327

The ________ division causes erection of the penis and clitoris

Back 327

parasympathetic

Front 328

Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________.
A) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow
B) single preganglionic axons make multiple synapses with ganglionic neurons
C) preganglionic fibers are short
D) preganglionic fibers are long

Back 328

B) single preganglionic axons make multiple synapses with ganglionic neurons

Front 329

T/F The parasympathetic division is a branch of the somatic nervous system.

Back 329

False.

Front 330

T/F Since many of the same cardiac cells are innervated by both parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers, the influence of the two divisions on the heart is synergistic.

Back 330

False.

Front 331

Emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the ________.
A) lateral horn of the spinal cord
B) hypothalamus
C) lateral geniculate of the thalamus
D) inferior colliculus

Back 331

B) Hypothalamus

Front 332

In contrast to the somatic nervous system, the autonomic nervous system ________.
A) has two efferent neurons
B) has two afferent neurons
C) stimulates its effector cells
D) has both afferent and efferent fibers

Back 332

A) has two efferent neurons

Front 333

T/F The adrenal medulla is considered a "misplaced" sympathetic ganglion by some

Back 333

True. The adrenal medulla is considered a "misplaced" sympathetic ganglion by some

Front 334

T/F Acetylcholine is the substance released by the axonal endings of the somatic efferent fibers and by the parasympathetic nerve fiber endings

Back 334

True. Acetylcholine is the substance released by the axonal endings of the somatic efferent fibers and by the parasympathetic nerve fiber endings

Front 335

T/F The sympathetic chain is composed of collateral ganglia.

Back 335

True. The sympathetic chain is composed of collateral ganglia

Front 336

T/F Most body organs are innervated by only the sympathetic division of the nervous system.

Back 336

False.

Front 337

T/F The structures that specifically exhibit vasomotor tone are mostly under sympathetic control

Back 337

True. The structures that specifically exhibit vasomotor tone are mostly under sympathetic control

Front 338

T/F The autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition, depending on the division that is active and the target that is affected.

Back 338

True. The autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition, depending on the division that is active and the target that is affected.

Front 339

Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________.
A) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
B) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
D) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure

Back 339

C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

Front 340

Match Sympathetic and Parasympathetic to the following: "Fight or Flight"
"Sex, Sandwiches and Sleep"

Back 340

Sympathetic: "Fight or Flight"
Parasympathetic: "Sex, Sandwiches and Sleep"

Front 341

The autonomic nervous system ________.
A) cannot be self-controlled
B) has one primary division
C) is not affected by drugs
D) is directly controlled by the reticular formation of the brain stem

Back 341

D) is directly controlled by the reticular formation of the brain stem

Front 342

The vagus nerve does not innervate the ________.
A) pancreas
B) kidneys
C) parotid gland
D) gallbladder

Back 342

C) Parotid Gland

Front 343

T/F β-adrenergic receptors are the only receptors found on the heart.

Back 343

False.

Front 344

Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.

Back 344

Hypothalamus

Front 345

Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________.
A) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons
B) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess
C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons
D) visceral arcs do not use integration centers

Back 345

C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons

Front 346

All preganglionic axons of the autonomic nervous system release ________.
A) dopamine
B) serotonin
C) the same transmitter as the only one released by the sympathetic postganglionic axons
D) the same transmitter as the one released by parasympathetic postganglionic axons

Back 346

D) the same transmitter as the one released by parasympathetic postganglionic axons

Front 347

The site of origin of the preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system is the ________.
A) thoracolumbar region of the spinal cord
B) higher brain centers
C) sympathetic chain
D) brain stem and the sacral region of the cord

Back 347

D) brain stem and the sacral region of the cord

Front 348

Fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic chain without synapsing form structures called ________.
A) white rami communicantes
B) gray rami communicantes
C) spinal nerves
D) splanchnic nerves

Back 348

D) splanchnic nerves

Front 349

T/F Most disorders of the autonomic nervous system reflect abnormalities of smooth muscle control.

Back 349

True. Most disorders of the autonomic nervous system reflect abnormalities of smooth muscle control.

Front 350

Where would you not find an autonomic ganglion?
A) in the head
B) in the cervical region
C) close to the visceral effectors they serve
D) in the armpit

Back 350

D) in the armpit

Front 351

The route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is the ________.
A) sympathetic trunk
B) phrenic nerve
C) vagus nerve
D) sacral nerve

Back 351

C) Vagus Nerve

Front 352

List Cranial Nerves 1-XII

Back 352

Mnenomic
Oh, Oh, Oh, To Touch A Female Vagina Gives Virgins Amazing Happiness

Olfactory
Optic
Oculomotor
Trochlear
Trigeminal
Abducens
Facial
Vestibulocochlear nerve
Glossopharyngeal
Vagus
Accesory
Hypoglossal

Also You have 1 nose, 2 eyes, and 3,4,6 makes my eyes do tricks! :This rhyme will help to remember Cranial nerve I is olfactory,II is optic and also to remember that III,IV & VI are nerves that innervate extraocular muscles attached to the eyeballs ie., cranial nerves III,IV & VI make our eyes move.

Front 353

What's the mnemonic to remember if the cranial nerves are sensory, motor, or both?

Back 353

Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Business Makes Money

Front 354

T/F The structures that specifically exhibit vasomotor tone are mostly under sympathetic control.

Back 354

True. The structures that specifically exhibit vasomotor tone are mostly under sympathetic control.

Front 355

T/F Since many of the same cardiac cells are innervated by both parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers, the influence of the two divisions on the heart is synergistic.

Back 355

False.

Front 356

he parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye which cause the lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision.

Back 356

Oculomotor

Front 357

T/F All splanchnic nerves are sympathetic.

Back 357

False.

Front 358

T/F The sympathetic chain is composed of collateral ganglia.

Back 358

True. The sympathetic chain is composed of collateral ganglia.

Front 359

The parasympathetic ganglion that serves the eye is the ________.
A) ciliary ganglion
B) pterygopalatine ganglion
C) submandibular ganglion
D) otic ganglion

Back 359

A) ciliary ganglion

Front 360

T/F Most body organs are innervated by only the sympathetic division of the nervous system

Back 360

False.

Front 361

The white rami ________.
A) are found only in the C1‐T1 cord segments
B) are unmyelinated
C) carry preganglionic axons to the sympathetic chain
D) carry postganglionic fibers to the periphery

Back 361

C) carry preganglionic axons to the sympathetic chain

Front 362

The white rami communicantes ________

Back 362

carry preganglionic axons to the sympathetic chain

Front 363

T/F Alpha-adrenergic effects are usually stimulatory and mediatory

Back 363

True. Alpha-adrenergic effects are usually stimulatory and mediatory

Front 364

Which is not a plexus of the vagus nerve?
A) cardiac
B) pulmonary
C) celiac
D) esophageal

Back 364

C) celiac

Front 365

The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________.

Back 365

sympathetic stimulation

Front 366

Raynaud's disease ________.

Back 366

is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities

Front 367

T/F Since the ANS is a visceral motor system, afferent pathways are of no importance and actually are rarely found.

Back 367

False.

Front 368

T/F Norepinephrine-releasing fibers are called cholinergic fibers.

Back 368

False. Norepinephrine-releasing fibers are called adrenegic fibers.

Front 369

T/F Autonomic reflex centers occur in the spinal cord, medulla, and midbrain.

Back 369

True. Autonomic reflex centers occur in the spinal cord, medulla, and midbrain.

Front 370

T/F The blood vessels of the skin are one of the few areas of the body where the vessels are innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

Back 370

False.

Front 371

All preganglionic axons of the autonomic nervous system release ________.
A) dopamine
B) serotonin
C) the same transmitter as the only one released by the sympathetic postganglionic axons
D) the same transmitter as the one released by parasympathetic postganglionic axons

Back 371

D) the same transmitter as the one released by parasympathetic postganglionic axons

Front 372

T/F Acetylcholine is the substance released by the axonal endings of the somatic efferent fibers and by the parasympathetic nerve fiber endings.

Back 372

True. Acetylcholine is the substance released by the axonal endings of the somatic efferent fibers and by the parasympathetic nerve fiber endings.

Front 373

T/F Thermoregulatory responses to increased heat are mediated by the sympathetic nervous division.

Back 373

True. Thermoregulatory responses to increased heat are mediated by the sympathetic nervous division.

Front 374

Beta-blockers_______________.

Back 374

decrease heart rate and blood pressure

Front 375

T/F In contrast to the parasympathetic division, the sympathetic division has numerous postganglionic neurons in the gray matter of the spinal cord

Back 375

False.

Front 376

Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebrae?

Back 376

1st Thoracic

Front 377

T/F The craniosacral division is another name for the parasympathetic division.

Back 377

True. The craniosacral division is another name for the parasympathetic division.

Front 378

T/F The adrenal medulla is considered a "misplaced" sympathetic ganglion by some.

Back 378

True. The adrenal medulla is considered a "misplaced" sympathetic ganglion by some.

Front 379

T/F The bending of light rays is called reflection.

Back 379

False. The bending of light rays is called refraction.

Front 380

The receptor for static equilibrium is the _______

Back 380

macula.

Front 381

U.S. employees must wear hearing protection at ________ dB or above.

Back 381

90 dB

Front 382

Damage to the medial recti muscles would probably affect ________.

Back 382

convergence

Front 383

T/F Like the cornea, the lens is vascular.

Back 383

False.

Front 384

Visual inputs to the ________ serve to synchronize biorhythms with natural light and dark

Back 384

suprachiasmatic nucleus

Front 385

Information from balance receptors goes directly to the ________.

Back 385

brain stem reflex centers

Front 386

T/F The photoreceptor cells are sensitive to damage from light.

Back 386

True. The photoreceptor cells are sensitive to damage from light.

Front 387

T/F The fluid contained within the membranous labyrinth is called perilymph.

Back 387

False.

Front 388

T/F Presbyopia is the unequal curvature of refracting surface

Back 388

False.

Front 389

Conscious perception of vision probably reflects activity in the ________.

Back 389

occipital lobe of the cortex

Front 390

T/F In order for sound to reach the spiral organ (of Corti), the auditory ossicles must vibrate the oval window and set the endolymph in motion.

Back 390

True. In order for sound to reach the spiral organ (of Corti), the auditory ossicles must vibrate the oval window and set the endolymph in motion.

Front 391

Which of the following could not be seen as one looks into the eye with an ophthalmoscope?
optic disc
optic chiasma
retina

Back 391

optic chiasma

Front 392

Visual processing in the thalamus does not contribute significantly to ______.
a. depth perception
b. high-acuity vision
c. night vision
d. movement perception

Back 392

Visual processing in the thalamus does not contribute significantly to night vision.

Front 393

Which of the following is true about photoreceptors?
A) Three types of color-sensitive photoreceptors exist: red, green, and yellow.
B) Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision.
C) In dim light, images are focused directly on the rods in the fovea centralis.
D) If all cones are stimulated equally, all colors are absorbed by the cones and the color
perceived is black.

Back 393

B) Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision.

Front 394

T/F Without a functioning crista ampullaris, the semicircular canals would not function

Back 394

True. Without a functioning crista ampullaris, the semicircular canals would not function

Front 395

As sound intensity increases, we hear the sound as a louder sound at the same pitch. This suggests that ________.

Back 395

cochlear cells that respond to the same pitch vary in responsiveness

Front 396

T/F High-frequency sounds will stimulate the hair cells of the basilar membrane near the oval window.

Back 396

True. High-frequency sounds will stimulate the hair cells of the basilar membrane near the oval window.

Front 397

Ordinarily, it is not possible to transplant tissues from one person to another, yet corneas can be transplanted without tissue rejection. This is because the cornea ________

Back 397

has no blood supply.

Front 398

Inhibitory cells in the olfactory bulbs are called ________

Back 398

granule cells.

Front 399

T/F The optic disk is the spot where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball

Back 399

True. The optic disk is the spot where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball

Front 400

Tinnitis, vertigo, and gradual hearing loss typify the disorder called ________

Back 400

Ménière's syndrome

Front 401

Which pairing of terms is incorrectly related?
a. frequency: loudness
b. quality:multiple frequencies
c. frequency:pitch
d. frequency-wavelength

Back 401

A. Frequency: Loudness

Front 402

T/F Sound is generally perceived in the cerebral cortex of the occipital lobe

Back 402

False.

Front 403

Damage to the medial recti muscles would probably affect ________.

Back 403

Convergence

Front 404

T/F Each olfactory cortical neuron receives input from one receptor at a time.

Back 404

False.

Front 405

Taste buds are not found ________.
a. in fungiform papillae
b. in circumvallate papillae
c. in filiform papillae
d. lining the buccal cavity

Back 405

C. In filiform papillae

Front 406

Nerve fibers from the medial aspect of each eye ________.

Back 406

cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma

Front 407

T/F Researchers have found that retinal ganglionic fields are of two types: on-center or off-center

Back 407

True. Researchers have found that retinal ganglionic fields are of two types: on-center or off-center

Front 408

The oval window is connected directly to which passageway?

Back 408

Scala Vestibuli

Front 409

Which of the following is true about gustatory receptors?
a. in order for a chemical to
be sensed, it must be hydrophilic
b. the reactions generate an action potential in response
to chemical stimuli
c. complete adaptation takes place in about one to five minutes
d. all gustatory receptors have the same threshold for activation.

Back 409

C. Complete adaptation takes place in about one to five minutes

Front 410

Information from balance receptors goes directly to the ________

Back 410

Brain Stem Reflex Centers

Front 411

T/F Sound localization requires processing at the cortical level.

Back 411

False.

Front 412

T/F The mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and is reflected over the anterior surface of the eyeball is the conjunctiva.

Back 412

True. The mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and is reflected over the anterior surface of the eyeball is the conjunctiva.

Front 413

T/F Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision

Back 413

True. Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision

Front 414

The blind spot of the eye is ________.

Back 414

where the optic nerve leaves the eye

Front 415

Which of the following structures is NOT part of the external ear?
a. auditary tube
b. external auditary meatus
c. tympanic membrane
d. pinna

Back 415

a. auditary tube

Front 416

T/F High-frequency sounds will stimulate the hair cells of the basilar membrane near the oval window.

Back 416

True. High-frequency sounds will stimulate the hair cells of the basilar membrane near the oval window.

Front 417

T/F When one has a cold, swelling of the lacrimal mucosa may result in watery eyes due to impaired drainage of tears

Back 417

True When one has a cold, swelling of the lacrimal mucosa may result in watery eyes due to impaired drainage of tears

Front 418

T/F The function of the lens of the eye is to allow precise focusing of light on the retina.

Back 418

True. The function of the lens of the eye is to allow precise focusing of light on the retina.

Front 419

The first vestiges of eyes in the embryo are called ________.

Back 419

optic vesicles

Front 420

During dark adaptation ________

Back 420

rhodopsin accumulates in the rods

Front 421

Visible light fits between ________.

Back 421

UV and Infrared

Front 422

T/F Theoretically, an individual born without a middle ear would be able to hear by bone conduction with a hearing aid

Back 422

True. Theoretically, an individual born without a middle ear would be able to hear by bone conduction with a hearing aid

Front 423

Inhibitory cells in the olfactory bulbs are called ________.

Back 423

granule cells

Front 424

________ is a disorder of the olfactory nerves

Back 424

Anosmias

Front 425

Information from balance receptors goes directly to the ________.

Back 425

brain stem reflex centers

Front 426

Conscious perception of vision probably reflects activity in the ________.

Back 426

occipital lobe of the cortex

Front 427

An essential part of the maculae involved in static equilibrium is (are) the ________.

Back 427

otoliths

Front 428

T/F Most newborns often use only one eye at a time

Back 428

True. Most newborns often use only one eye at a time.

Front 429

The receptor membranes of gustatory cells are ________.

Back 429

gustatory hairs

Front 430

T/F Sour taste receptors are stimulated by hydrogen ions of acidic food substances

Back 430

True. Sour taste receptors are stimulated by hydrogen ions of acidic food substances.

Front 431

T/F Each olfactory cortical neuron receives input from one receptor at a time.

Back 431

False.

Front 432

Are olfactory receptor cells unipolar neurons?

Back 432

No.

Front 433

What is Brocca's area?

Back 433

the motor speech area

Front 434

Visual inputs to the ________ serve to synchronize biorhythms with natural light and dark.

Back 434

suprachiasmatic nucleus

Front 435

T/F When we see the color of an object, all light is being absorbed by that object except for the color being experienced.

Back 435

True. When we see the color of an object, all light is being absorbed by that object except for the color being experienced.

Front 436

T/F Contraction of the ciliary muscle causes the lens to bend the light less

Back 436

False.

Front 437

What is a modiolus?

Back 437

a bone pillar in the center of the cochlea

Front 438

T/F Visual pigments of the rod are found in the inner segment.

Back 438

False.

Front 439

The receptor for static equilibrium is the ________.

Back 439

macula

Front 440

Farsightedness is more properly called ________.

Back 440

hyperopia

Front 441

T/F The only known effect of prolactin in humans is to produce impotence in males.

Back 441

False.

Front 442

T/F Follicle cells of the thyroid gland produce thyroglobulin, while follicle cells of the parathyroid produce calcitonin.

Back 442

False.

Front 443

The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________

Back 443

binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP

Front 444

The major targets of growth hormone are ________.

Back 444

bones and skeletal muscles

Front 445

Thyroid hormone exerts its influence by ________.

Back 445

entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei

Front 446

Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to ________.

Back 446

steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells

Front 447

Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through the ________.

Back 447

hypophyseal portal system

Front 448

The only amine hormone to act like a steroid is ________

Back 448

TH

Front 449

T/F Growth hormone always exerts its influence by targeting other endocrine glands to produce hormones.

Back 449

True. Growth hormone always exerts its influence by targeting other endocrine glands to produce hormones.

Front 450

Eicosanoids do not include ________.

Back 450

hydrocortisones

Front 451

Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to ________.

Back 451

cortisol

Front 452

T/F The prime metabolic effect of cortisol is gluconeogenesis.

Back 452

True. The prime metabolic effect of cortisol is gluconeogenesis.

Front 453

T/F All adenohypophyseal hormones except GH affect their target cells via a cyclic AMP second-messenger.

Back 453

True. All adenohypophyseal hormones except GH affect their target cells via a cyclic AMP second-messenger.

Front 454

T/F Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine.

Back 454

True. Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine.

Front 455

In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as ________.

Back 455

up-regulation

Front 456

T/F Direct control of the nervous system is NOT a change that may be caused by hormonal stimulus.

Back 456

True. Direct control of the nervous system is NOT a change that may be caused by hormonal stimulus.

Front 457

T/F ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones.

Back 457

True. ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones.

Front 458

T/F Both "turn on" factors (hormonal, humoral, and neural stimuli) and "turn off" factors (feedback inhibition and others) may be modulated by the activity of the nervous system.

Back 458

True. Both "turn on" factors (hormonal, humoral, and neural stimuli) and "turn off" factors (feedback inhibition and others) may be modulated by the activity of the nervous system.

Front 459

T/F The thyroid gland is a large gland that controls metabolic functions throughout the life of an individual.

Back 459

True. The thyroid gland is a large gland that controls metabolic functions throughout the life of an individual.

Front 460

A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Why?

Back 460

FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.

Front 461

When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-flight response, a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is ________.

Back 461

epinephrine

Front 462

T/F Both "turn on" factors (hormonal, humoral, and neural stimuli) and "turn off" factors (feedback inhibition and others) may be modulated by the activity of the nervous system

Back 462

True. Both "turn on" factors (hormonal, humoral, and neural stimuli) and "turn off" factors (feedback inhibition and others) may be modulated by the activity of the nervous system

Front 463

T/F The endocrine gland that is probably malfunctioning if a person has a high metabolic rate is the parathyroid.

Back 463

False.

Front 464

Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones produced by the ________.

Back 464

Thymus Gland

Front 465

Chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids that regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body are called ________

Back 465

hormones

Front 466

Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP?

Back 466

the heart

Front 467

T/F Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions.

Back 467

True. Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions.

Front 468

Thyroid hormone exerts its influence by ________.

Back 468

entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei

Front 469

T/F All of the following hormones are secreted by the adenohypophysis: ACTH, FSH, and LH.

Back 469

True. All of the following hormones are secreted by the adenohypophysis: ACTH, FSH, and LH.

Front 470

Sometimes prolonged excessive exposure to high hormone concentrations causes a phenomenon known as ________.

Back 470

down-regulation

Front 471

T/F ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones.

Back 471

True. ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones.

Front 472

T/F LH is also referred to as a gonadotropin.

Back 472

True. LH is also referred to as a gonadotropin

Front 473

T/F Follicle cells of the thyroid gland produce thyroglobulin, while follicle cells of the parathyroid produce calcitonin.

Back 473

False.

Front 474

Which of the following organs is affected by thyroid hormone in adults?
A) liver
B) spleen
C) testes
D) brain

Back 474

liver

Front 475

T/F The thyroid gland is embedded in the parathyroid tissue.

Back 475

False.

Front 476

T/F All peptide hormone synthesis requires gene activation that produces mRNA.

Back 476

True.

Front 477

T/F Direct gene activation involves a second-messenger system.

Back 477

False.

Front 478

T/F The stimulus for calcitonin release is usually excessive amounts of growth hormone synthesis.

Back 478

False.

Front 479

Insulin, a small (51-amino-acid) protein, is synthesized by the beta cells of the pancreas. This hormone is released ________.

Back 479

when the body's glucose level rises

Front 480

Which of the following would be associated with the action of steroids on cells?

A) extracellular receptors with a specificity for only a single amino acid sequence on the hormone
B) an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP
C) second-messenger systems
D) a hormone-receptor complex that interacts directly with the cell's DNA

Back 480

D) a hormone-receptor complex that interacts directly with the cell's DNA

Front 481

T/F Peptide hormones enter the target cells and elicit a response by mediating neurotransmitter effects.

Back 481

False.

Front 482

T/F Re: the structure or function of chemical messengers:
An amino acid derivative can be a hormone.

Back 482

True. An amino acid derivative can be a hormone.

Front 483

T/F Gonadocorticoid(s) production by the adrenal gland is insignificant compared with sex hormone release from the gonads during late puberty

Back 483

True. Gonadocorticoid(s) production by the adrenal gland is insignificant compared with sex hormone release from the gonads during late puberty

Front 484

The hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract ________.

Back 484

is partly contained within the infundibulum

Front 485

T/F Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine.

Back 485

True. Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine.

Front 486

T/F All adenohypophyseal hormones except GH affect their target cells via a cyclic AMP second-messenger.

Back 486

True. All adenohypophyseal hormones except GH affect their target cells via a cyclic AMP second-messenger.

Front 487

T/F Direct gene activation involves a second-messenger system.

Back 487

False.

Front 488

T/F The endocrine structure that develops from the nervous system is the anterior pituitary.

Back 488

False.

Front 489

Aldosterone ________.

Back 489

functions to increase sodium reabsorption

Front 490

T/F Calcitonin is a peptide hormone that has destructive effects on the skeletal system.

Back 490

False.

Front 491

Chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids that regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body are called ________.

Back 491

hormones\

Front 492

One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism?

Back 492

humoral stimulation

Front 493

In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as _______

Back 493

up-regulation

Front 494

When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-flight response, a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is ________.

Back 494

epinephrine

Front 495

T/F ACTH secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic secretion

Back 495

True. ACTH secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic secretion

Front 496

T/F Aldosterone is the most potent mineralocorticoid produced in the adrenals but the least abundant.

Back 496

False.

Front 497

T/F All peptide hormone synthesis requires gene activation that produces mRNA.

Back 497

True. All peptide hormone synthesis requires gene activation that produces mRNA.

Front 498

Which of the following does not act as a second messenger in second-messenger systems of hormone action?
a. inositol triphosphate
b. cyclic GMP
c. cyclic AMP
d. calmodulin

Back 498

d. calmodulin

Front 499

T/F Follicle cells of the thyroid gland produce thyroglobulin, while follicle cells of the parathyroid produce calcitonin.

Back 499

False.

Front 500

Which of the following would be associated with the action of steroids on cells

a. second-messenger systems
b. extracellular receptors with a specificity for only a single amino acid sequence on the hormone
c. an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP
d. a hormone-receptor complex that interacts directly with the cell's DNA

Back 500

d. a hormone-receptor complex that interacts directly with the cell's DNA

Front 501

Is epinephrine a steroid-based hormone?

Back 501

No. Epinephrine is not a steroid based hormone.

Front 502

Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of ________.

Back 502

cortisol

Front 503

T/F Both "turn on" factors (hormonal, humoral, and neural stimuli) and "turn off" factors (feedback inhibition and others) may be modulated by the activity of the nervous system.

Back 503

True. Both "turn on" factors (hormonal, humoral, and neural stimuli) and "turn off" factors (feedback inhibition and others) may be modulated by the activity of the nervous system.