• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off

Card Range To Study



Play button


Play button




Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

276 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
P.R.I.C.E. stands for what?
The primary purpose of professional certifications is to
protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet the established levels of minimum competence
Screening the clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design...True or False
Conducting a VO2 Max test to determine a client's need for referral to his or her physician... True or False
False. That test is outside the scope of practice for an ACE certified fitness professional
Helping clients gain a better understaind of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices is inside the scope of practice...True or False
A personal trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore muscles can do so only if
the personal trainer becoes a licensed massage therapist
What do the credentials fro registered dieticians (RD), occupational thereapist (ORT), athletic trainers (ATC) and registered nurses (RN) and massage therapists (LMT) all have in common with certifications from the American Council on Exercise?
They are all accredited by the National Commission for Certifiying Agencies
Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an RD or MD he or she does not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements...True or False
If an ACE cerified Personal Trainer is looking to advance their knowledge, skills, and abilities beyond their ACE cert what would be the best cert to obtain?
An advanced fitness certificaion that is NCCA accredited
What is the most important factor for an individual who is starting and exercise program?
Readiness to change behavior related to exercise
which personal attribute is the most reliable predictor of an individuals participation in an exercise program?
past exercise program participation
What is the most common excuse used by people when dropping out of an exercise program?
Lack of time
What is the best strtegy for personal trainers to implement to enhance the likelihood that aclient will continue working with them?
Encouraging client ownership of the program to facilitate development of intrinsic motivation
A person who is confident that he or she can successfully participate regularly in an exercise program
Has good self-efficacy related to exercise
Setting a series of progressively attainable short-term goals would moste likely enhance program participation and goal attainment....True or False
A strong social support network can provide an individual with
inproved program adherence, eztrinsic motivation and relapse-prevention support
Which type of exercise program would be expected to have the GREATEST drop out rate?
Vigorous-intensity exercise program
Age is gernerally unrelated to adherence levels in supervised exercise settings....True or False?
Instrinsic motivation is what?
Belief in one's own ablility to exercise or to be successful
Speaking in a firm voice with confidence, using fluid hand gestures while speaking and quiet hands while listening is agood way a trainer could develop rapport during the initial assessment...True or False?
To gain a better understanding of the client to facilitate rapport and program design a personal trainer must...
practice active listening
"I will run 4 days per week, gradually progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes to prepare for a 5K in four months" --that is an example of what?
a SMART goal
What is the most effective way to teach a new exercise to a client?
Tell the client what the exercise is, demonstrate the exercise and have the client perform the exercise while providing feedback
Stages of the client-trainer relationship
Motivational Interviewing
a method of speaking with people in a way that moativates them to make a decision to change their behavior
What are the 3 stages of motor learning
cognitive, associateve and autonomous
Cognitive Learning
clients are actively thinking about what to do. Their movements may appear shaky or jerky. Trainer will perfom the "tell, show, do" method.
Associative Learning
Client begins to master the basics and are ready for more specific feedback that will help them refine the motor skill
Autonomous Learning
clients are preforming motor skills effectively and naturally and the personal trainer is doing less teaching and more monitoring
What is the Health Belief Model?
predicts that people will engage in a health behavior based ont eh percieved threat they feel regarding a health problem and the pros and cons of adopting the behavior
What are the stages of CHANGE? The transtheoretical model of behavioral change?
People in this stage are sedentary and are nto even considering and activity program
Contemplation stage
People in this stage are still sedentary, however are starting to consider acitivity as important and have begun to identify the implications of being inactive
Preparation Stage
Marked by some physical activity, as individuals are mentally and physically preparing to adopt an activity program
Action Stage
people engage in regular physical activity
Maintenace stage
this stage is marked by regular physical activity participation for longer than six months
A personal trainer should help a client switch from primarily external feedback to...
Internal feedback
What is decisional balance?
the number of pros and cons percieved about adopting and or maintatining an activity program
Describe operant conditioning
the process by which behaviors are influenced by their consequences.
Shaping refers to what?
the process of using reinforcements to gradually achieve a target behavior
The foundational element is the ACE IFT Model built upon?
developing rapport
What assessments are essential according to the ACE IFT Model and should be completed prior to a client beginning an exercise program?
Collecting health history data to identify contraindications for exercise and the need for referral
What are the five primary movements that are the focus of the movement training phase?
Squatting, lunging, pushing, pulling and rotational movements
Zone 1:
at or below VT1 (RPE 3-4)
Zone 2:
between Vt1 and VT2 (RPE -5)
Zone 3:
just above VT2 (RPE 6-7)
Personal trainers can use this as an upper limit for exercise intensity to determine if a client is exercising below this?
The first ventilatory threshold (VT1)
What is empathy?
The ability to experience another person's world as if it were one's own
What is warmth?
An unconditional positive regard, or respect for another person regardless of his or her individuality and uniqueness. this quality will convey a climate that communicates safety and acceptance to the client.
What is genuiness?
Authenticity, or the ability to be honest and open
What is the defining criteria for age in the ACD Risk factor stratification?
Men greater than or equal to 45 yrs old.
Women greater than or equal to 55 yrs old.
Family history?
Myocardial infarction or cornary heart disease in father before the age of 55 and before the age of 65 in women.
cigarette smoking?
Current smoker or who quit within the past 6 months
sedentary lifestyle?
Must engage in moderate to intense activity for at least 30 minutes a day at least 3 days a week.
Body mass index- greater than or equal to 30

or waist girth >40 inches in men
and >35 inches in women
SBP greater than or equal to 140
DBP greater than or equal to 90
LDL greater than or equal to 130
HDL less than 40
Total serum cholesterol of >200
fasting plasma glucose greater than or equal to 100
Negative risk factor that would add one point to the score: HDL
greater than or equal to 60
Informed consent is a clients ...
"assumption of risk"
He or she is acknowleding having been specifically informed about the risks associated with activity
Personal trainers can use the talk test as an upper limit for exercise intensity to determine if a client is exercising below which cardiorespiratory markers
First Ventilatory Threshold (VT1)
Cardiorespiratory exercise in zone 2 is performed at what intensity?
From VT1 to just below VT2
What is the purpose of stability and mobility training?
Restorative exercise to improve posture and movement compensations
Scapular winging during the shoulder push stabilization screen would most likely be due to ___________.
scapulothoracic joint instability
What does android refer to?
an apple-shaped individual
What does gynoid refer to?
a pear shaped individual
waist to hip ratio.
waist circumference divided by the hip circumference
List 4 variables that should be monitored or recorded during an exercise test.
Hear rate
blood pressure
Signs and symptoms - (personal observations and comments from the client)
If a client is taking beta blockers, how might this affect the results of his treadmill test?
it will not show accurate heart rate levels=invalid results due to the heart rate lowering effect beta blockers have.
Convert Height from standard to metric
convert inches to centimeters - # of inches X 2.54. move decimal point two places to the left to get height in meters.
Convert lbs to kg
# of pounds X 0.45 = kg
Age predicted THR
MHR x % desired intensity (low)
MHR x % desired intensity (high)
= Target Heart Rate zone
Relative Vo2 Max
Oxygen uptake (mL/min) x 1,000
divided by body weight (kg)=
L/min/kg BW
Determine exercise expenditure
convert BW to Kg (x by .45)
x intesity of training volume by volume of oxygen consumed
Convert mL to L (by moving decimal point right and rounding the number)
Now calculate the total calories burned during a workout by:
multiplying oxygen consumed by 5 Kcal, then multiply that by length of time exercising
MET x 3.5 x BW (kg)
divided by 200= Kcal/min
Strength training
1 RM - 1 RM (lbs) x desired intensity

ex: 110lbs x 60% (.60) =66lbs
Caloric value
multiply # of grams by energy gram

(ex: 11g protein
11x4=44 g protein)

get all values of the macronutrients and then add all together to get a total and divide that by the total # of calories contained in a serving)
Recommended protein intake for endurance athletes
1.2 - 1.4
Recommended protein intake for weight training athletes
1.6 - 1.7
(220 - age) = MHR
Recommended % of calories consumed from Carbs
recommended % of calories consumed from protein
recommended % of calories consumed from fat
Normal blood pressure
Prehypertensive blood pressure
hypertension blood pressure
Stage 1
140/90 - 159/99
Hypertenstion stage 2
anything greater than 160/100
Karvonen formula for determining HRR
(220 - age=MHR) x (HRR x intensity)
multiply answer X RHR= THR
How to calculate HRR
Name 3 types of treadmill tests
Burce submaximal treadmill test
Balke and Ware treadmill test
Ebbeling single-stage treadmill test
Name 2 types of cycling tests
YMCA bike test
Astrand-Rhyming cycle ergometer test
Name 2 ventilatory threshold tests
Submaximal talk test for VT1 and VT2 threshold test
Name 2 types of field tests
RockPort fitness walking test (1mile)
1.5 mile run test
Name 2 types of step tests
YMCA submaximal step test (12 inches)
McArdle step test (16 inches)
ADL stands for what?
Activities of daily living
What type of person would the Bruce submaximal treadmill test NOT be appropriate for?
deconditoned individuals
Balke and Ware is ok for what type of client
deconditioned. because the test is held at a constant.
What does the Ebbeling single stage treadmill test consist of?
a four minute warm up stage and a single four minute testing stage that should elicit HRss.
Blood glucose levels should be over ______ before starting exercise
100 mg/dL
Recommended water intake
17-20 oz before exercise
7-10 during exercise, every 10-20 min
16-24oz for every lb lost
How to calculate a caloric deficit based on a weight loss goal
# lbs client wants to lose
x 3,500 kcal

take that # and divide by the goal time = cal deficit

ex: client wants to lose 10lbs in 60 days

10lbs x 3500 = 35000
35000/60days=583 daily deficit
Plyometric progression:
jumping in place
single linear jumps
multiple linear jumps
multipledirectional jumps
hops and bounds
depth jumps
Torso endurance test protocol
flexion:ext ratio less than 1.0
(divide into one another)

RSB:LSB no greater than 0.05 from 1.0

Side bridge score ext ratio:
less than 0.75
Metabolic syndrome symptoms:
Has the presence of 3 or more
Elevated waist circumference: men greater than or equal to 40 and women 35 in.
Elevated triglycerides: greater than or equal to 150
Reduced HDL : Men less than 40 women less than 50
Elevated BP: greater than or equal to 130/85
Elevated fasting blood glucose: greater than or equal to 100
A good predictor of low back health is..
endurance of core and postural muscles acting on the low back
Ebbeling single stage treadmill test is appropriate for who
low risk apparently hwalthy non athletic adults aged 20-59 yrs old
Cycle ergometer test would be appropriate for what type of clients?
for those with balance problems, or unfamiliarity with the treadmill
cycle ergometer test would NOT be appropriate for what type of clients?
obese individuals
those with orthopedic problems
those with neuromuscular problems and cannot maintain the proper cadence
YMCA bike test measures what?
the HR response to incremental 3 minute workloads that progressively elicit higher heart rate responses, determine maximal effort and estimate VO2 max.
Astrand Ryhming cycle test
est. VO2 max using a single stage six mn submaximal cycling protocol.
Submaximal Talk Test
Using VT1 and VT2 to provide heart rate data based on a clients unique metabolic response to exercise, allowing for very individualized program design
VT2 threshold
an important metabolic marker that determine a clients OBLA (onset blood lactate accumulation)
Rockport Fitness walking test
est. VO2 max from a clients HRss response. This involves the completion of a 1-mile walking course as fast as possible.
1.5 Mile Run test
used by the US navy to evaluate cardio fitness levels. It measures cardio endurance and muscular endurance of the legs
YMCA submaximal step test
using a 12 inch step, this test is for low rish apparently healthy non athletic individuals between the ages of 20-59. (four risers) goal is to step up and down for 3 minutes
McArdle step test
evaluates recovery HR and useful for clients of higher levels of aerobic fitness
(16.25 inches - common height of a bleacher)
Muscular fitness tests are:
push up test
curl up test
mcgills muscular endurance test battery
body weight squat test
Muscular strength tests are:
1 RM testing
1 RM bench press test
1 RM leg press test
1 RM squat test
Sport skill assessments are:
power testing : field tests
power = ______x______
Power = Force x Velocity
Power = work/time
Name the five anaerobic power tests.
standing long jump (lowerbody)
vertical jump (lower body)
kneeling overhead toss
(upper body)
margaria-kalamen test (lower body)
300- yard shuttle run (anaerobic capacity)
Standing long jump measures what?
the goal of the test is to jump as far as possible from a standing/stationary position and measure the distance.
Vertical Jump is performed how?
a client raises one arm and we mark the wall with chalk to get our starting point. Then with three attempts we mark the highes point the client can jump and touch the wall.
The kneeling overhead toss measures what?
this test is to measure power in the upper extremeties.
The Margaria-Kalamen stair climb tests what?
Assesses leg power and activation of the phosphagen energy system.
300 yard shuttle run assesses what?
Anaerobic capacity or the highest rate of sustainable power over a period of time. They must run back and fourth to each cone 6x's with the cones 25 yards apart.
Speed agility and quickness testing includes...
Pro Agility test
40 yard dash
What is the Pro Agility test?
sometimes called the 20 yeard agility test of the 5- 10- 5 shuttle run. Assesses a clients ability to accelerate, decelerate and change direction and accelerate again.
How does the T-Test work?
It is used to test agility by using multidirectional movement (forward, backward, lateral). Client sprints to one cone, shuffles to the net cone, suffles to the next 2 cones and runs backward to the start.
40 Yard dash
used to determine acceleration and speed. Only rule is to run as fast as they can for 40 yards.
weight/height 2 (squared)
bad cholesterol
good cholesterol
Where is the first place within the kinetic chain we should work towards developing stability?
lumbar spine
Lack of hip-joint mobility is most likely to lead to what?
compromised stability in the knees and lumbar spine
What are the 5 programming components of the stability and mobility training phase
proximal stability- lumbar spine
proximal mobility- pelvis and thoracic spine
proximal stability- scapulothoracic spine
proximal mobility- glenohumeral joint
distal mobility and stability- distal extremeties
static balance
What muscles are responsible for muscle stabilization?
Type 1 or slow twitch (endurance muscles)
What muscles are responsible for joint movement?
Type 2 or fast twitcch muschles (strength and power type training)
Which joint is classified as favoring stabliity over mobility?
scapulothoracic joint
Lack of hip-joint mobility is most likely to lead to what?
compromised stability in the knees and lumbar spine
What force couple creates posterior pelvic rotation to pull the pelvis out of anterior pelvic tilt?
Hamstrings and rectus abdominis
What muscles make up "the core"?
multifidi, quadratus lumborum, transverse abdominis, deep fibers of the internal oblique, diaphram and pelvic floor.
Having a client perform supine-lying shoulder depression and shoulder retraction helps them establish what?
Scapulothoracic stability. This teaches the client how to "pack" the scapula
Once a client can demonstrate good balance on two feet the next progression on balance would be to what?
Close eyes and lifts arms up
Static stretches
stretches taken to the point of tension and holding for 15-60 seconds
Myofascial release
using a foam roller, client performs a back and forth motion over the tight or tender region for 30-60 seconds
Active isoloated stretching
a client can perform one or two sets of five to ten reps at a controlled tempo holding the end range for one to two seconds
What is the progression for stance postitions
Hip-width stance
staggered stance (split stance)
tandem stance
single-leg stance
What are abilities?
inherited traits athat are stable and enduring
What are skills?
developed and modified with practice.
The ACL connects what? (Anterior Cruciate Ligament)
The posterior-lateral part of the femur to an anterior medial part of the tibia within the knee joint. A very impt stabilizer of the femur on the tibia during knee extension
How much muscle tissue will an average non-strength trained adult lose each decade due to disuse atrophy
5 lbs per decade loss of muscle tissure
Concentric contraction
muscle shortening
Eccentric contraction
muscle lengthening
Isometric contraction or static
with out changing the muscle length
muscular strength intensity should be what resistance?
between 80-90% of maximum resistance
Load training for muscular hypertrophy should be what resistance?
between 70-80% of maximum resistance
exercising the appropriate muscles based on the clients needs
The process of gradually adding more exercise resistance than the muscles have previously encountered
the principle that suggest any improvement in fitness is due to physical activity is entirely reversible with the discontinuation of the training program
diminishing returns
after a certain level of performance is achieved there will be a decline in effectiveness of training at furthering a persons performance level
performing back to back exercises with no rest in between working opposing muscles to fatigue
Name the variable that effect the intensity of lower body plyometrics
points of contact, speed, vertical height, body weight and complexity of the exercise
This is necessary for the synthesis of hemoglobin and myoglobin
This is an essential nutrient for energy production; used in times of muscular fatigue
important for immune function, protein synthesis and blood formation
important for the normal metabolism of nerve tissue, protein, fat and carbohydrates
Vitamin B12
Important for blood clotting, nerve transmission and muscle stimulation
necessary for calcium absorption
vitamin D
this is the source of the white color of milk
strength gains during the first few weeks of reisistance training are primarily due to ___________
imporved neuromuscular function
How do you calculate training volume?
multiply the sets by the reps by the weight to equal the training volume
which muscles are prime movers for external rotation of the shoulder?
teres minor and infraspinatus
As muscle fibers contract to provide the necessary movement force, they use 2 fuel sources called ______and _____ for energy production. The by product of these results in the build up of ___________
creatine phosphate and glycogen for ANAEROBIC energy production
-lactic acid
This is the product of musclyar strength and movement speed
muscular power
Recommended training volume for muscular endurance is
2-3 sets
12 or more reps
recommended training volume for muscular hypertrophy
3-6 sets
6-12 reps
Recommended training volume for muscular strength
2-6 sets
6 or less reps
For most general muscular conditioning, a ________ rest interval between exercises is sufficient
one minute
During a double progression method first add _______ then add ________
more reps,
then add weight increase by 5%
Macrocycle refers to what amount of time?
6-12 months
Mesocycle refers to how much time?
a division of the macrocycle
What is the appropriate rate of progression for muscular strength?
F- 72 hour recovery
I- 80-90% max
R- 4-8 reps
S- 3-4 sets
T- standard machine and free weights
What is the appropriate rate of progression for muscular hypertrophy?
F- 72 hr recovery between muscle groups (working 2 muscle groups a day)
I-70-80% max
R- 8-12 reps
S- 3-4 sets with 30-60sec rest interval
T- multimuscle and isolated exercises
Iron deficiency is known as
This is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute
cardiac output
this is known as the "power plant" of the cells where aerobic metabolism occurs
Talk test for VT1 is conducted during which phase?
phase 2- aerobic effiencency training
This method of monitoring exercise intensity is the most widely used but strongly discouraged
Use of this marker of intensity requires and estimation attained via mathematical formula and has a high degree of inherent error
Does not correlate strongly with performance and is generally not influenced by trainign
Discrepancies in individual resting heart rates are taken into account when using this method
Because of the debate regarding body postition when measureing resting heart rate when using this method, two sets of training zones may be necessary, one for seated recumbent positions and one for standing positions
This is a subjective method of gauging exercise intensity
Very sedentary individuals often find this difficule to use, as they find any level of exercise fairly hard
Moderate = 70% MHR; Somewhat hard= 80% MHR
Hard = 85% MHR
Although the evidence base for this method is very deep the very large rance of acceptable percentages makes it difficule to use when recommending exercise intensities
Though this is considered the "gold standard" it may be less useful that wedely believed
involves using multiples of an assumed average metabolic rate of 3.5 mL/kg/min
Calculated by measuring or estimating the total quantity of O2 consumed per minute and x-ing by 5 Kcal/liter O2
caloric expenditure
works on the premis that about at the intensity of VT1 the increase in ventilation is accomplighed by an invrease in breathing frequency
Talk test
Is based on an individual's unique metabolic or ventilatroy responses
Talk test
Seperates Zones 2 from Zone 3 int he three-zone trainign model
Is associated with the flattening of the heart rate response to increase intensity
When working with a beginner client, the most appropriate progression variable to manipulate is
List the 4 cardo training phases of the ACE IFT model
aerobic base
aerobic efficiency
anaerobic enduracne
anaerobic power
in what phase should the talk test for VT1 be conducted
Phase 2 - aerobic efficency
in what phase should the VT2 threshold test be conducted?
Phase 3- anaerboic endurance
When performing steady state exercise, what limits exercise duration?
avaliablity of oxygen
willingness to continue
availability of energy from stored glycogen and or blood glucose
what causes cardiovascular drift?
increase heart rate to compensate for reduced blood volume due to sweat production for thermoregulation
what is the primary reason for having all clients perform adequate cool down
to enhance venous return to prevent blood pooling in the extremeties
what is the greatest limitation associated with using heart rate reserve?
accuate programming using HRR requires actual measure max heart rate and resting heart rate
OBLA occurs in which threshold?
VT2 (onset of blood lactate accumulation)
What is the primary focus of aerobic base training in the ACE IFT model?
creating positive experience and early success through achievalbe zone 1 exercise of increasing duration
Reaserch shows well trained non-athletes will spend _____% of their time in zone 2
Decreasing the number of recovery days per week to accomodate additional interval work can cause this
overtraining syndrome
What are th 4 phases of Functional movement and resistance training of the ACE IFT model?
1- Stability and mobility
2- Movement training
3- Load training
4 - Performance Training
Regular participation of mind body exercise will have the following benefit...
increase self efficacy
The affective and neuroendocrine response to mind-body exercise is mediated through the hyphthalmic-pituitary-adrinal axis and results in a decreased production of which hormones that are associated with stress?
catecholamines and cortisol
What is considered a classical form of mind body exercise?
Hatha yoga
what is a metabolic benefit of practicing yoga and tia chi on a regular basis?
increased glucose tolerance and insulin sensitivity
What is the primary method for progressing the principal challenge in hatha yoga?
increasing the complexity of the asanas
a client who is deconditioned or has a chronic disease should avoid this during a mind body exercise
minimize poses with the head below the heart
This is a form of mind body exercise that re-educates the body to break ineffecient movemnt patterns
How can a personal trainer most effectively incorporate mind body into a session for a client?
include some Iyengar poses and yogic breathing in the cool down
Prior to exercising, a clients fasting blood glucose levels should be over this....
100 mg/dL
Wherre is the scapular plane?
30degrees anterior to the frontal plane
An inflammation of the wrist etensors near their origin is commonly referred to as
Tennis elbow
How many reps is recommended to stimulate bone change in clients who have osteopenia and or osteoporosis?
Wherre is the scapular plane?
30degrees anterior to the frontal plane
An inflammation of the wrist etensors near their origin is commonly referred to as
Tennis elbow
Wherre is the scapular plane?
30degrees anterior to the frontal plane
An inflammation of the wrist etensors near their origin is commonly referred to as
Tennis elbow
Which nerve is commonly compressed due to carpal tunnel syndrome?
Median nerve
Cliends returning to exercise following greater trochanteric bursitis should generally avoid __________.
side-lying positions that compress the lateral hip
When working with a client who has a history of iliotibial (IT) band syndrome, which muscle group acting on the hip is most likely to be weak?
hip abductors
Tightness in which of the following structures can be a cause of patellofemoral pain syndrome due to its lateral fascial connections to the patella?
IT band complex
Stretching which muscles has been shown to help relieve symptoms associated with medial tibial stress syndrome (MTSS) and or antierior shin splints?
soleus and anterior compartment of the lower leg
What exercises would be most importatn to include for a client who has recovered from Achilles tendinitis and wants to prevent it from returning?
eccentric strengthening for the calf complex through controlled dorsiflexion against gravity and stretching the calf muscles
When working with a client who has a history of plantar fasciitis, it would be most important to include stretching exercises fro the ______________
gastrocnemius, soleus and plantar fascia
What is the most important step a fitness facility can take to minimize risks of cardiovascular events?
Having each member complete a medical history form
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA) of 1996
It ensures individual privacy by requiring confidentiality of health documents
what should you do first when a person falls to the floor while exercising?
assess if the person is consious and asking if he or she is ok.
What is the most common heart rhythm during during cardiac arrest?
ventricular fibrillation
a heart attach is characterized by these signs and symptons?
a squeezing pressure in the chest that can be mistaken for indigestion or heart burn
How is a transient ischemic attach (TIA) different from a stroke?
signs of TIA last less than one hour
What should you do when you suspect a client is having a mild hypoglycemic incident?
help the client sit down and give him a sugary drink if he can swallow
Altered mental status
is a symptom of a heat stroke and needs to be treated as an emergency
What business structure puts a personal trainer at the greatest risk for losing personal assests in the event of a lawsuit filed by a client for an incident related to personal training services provided?
Sole proprietorship
What business structure combines the limited liablity and flow through taxation of the S-corp with easier creation and operation requirements?
Limited Liability partnership
Signed contract
ensures that all aspects of the client - personal trainer relationship are properly established
This is a legal term used to describe a situation where a trainer fails to act and a client is injured, but the client is determined to have played a role in his or her own injury?
contributory negligence
What form is used to have the clent acknowledge that her or she has been specifically informed about the risks associated with the activity in which he or she is about to engage?
informed consent
Before training a client in their home a personal trainer must check with their insurance company to see if they are covered for training in these settings or if they need to ass a _____________ policy to their existing professional liability insurance.
specific insurance rider
Using the ACE certified logo to promote nutritional products, DVD's, or equipments sold by the trainer is ______________
a violation of intellectual property laws
The mission statement and business model should be detailed in which component of the business plan?
business despcription
What is the primary energy system utilized during a resistance training exercise set that is 60-90 seconds in duration
anaerobic glycosis
How many carbs are recommended for long duration events?
30-60 grams of carbs per hour
The ASIS and pubic bone should be lined up____________-
To calculate how much protein or carbs a person should intake....
you multiply their wieght in Kg times the number range.
If the knees fall inward during a bend and lift screen what mucsles would be tight?
gluteus medius and maximus
5 components of effective leadership
effective listening
excitments for the craft
caring about each client siccess
SMART goal stands for
4 Personality styles
Stimuly that precede a behavior
Stimuly that follow a behavior
Reinforcement to gradually achieve a targetbehavior
Behavior chains
A series of behavior connections
Thoughts,which can either motivate or demotivate
Functional movement and Resistance Training Phases (ACE IFT Model)
Phase 1: Stability and Mobility
Phase 2: Movement Training
Phase 3: Load Training
Phase 4: Performance Training
Cardiorespratory Training Phases (ACE IFT Model)
Phase 1: Aerobic - base training
Phase 2: Aerobic - efficiency training
Phase 3: Anaerobic - endurance training
Phase 4: Anaerobis - power training
Using RPE is especially appropriate when working with a client with this type of medication
Beta Blockers
ACE inhibitors
Have no primary affect on heart rate, but will case a decrease in blood pressure at rest and during exercises.
Have no primary effect on heart rate, but they can cause water and electrolyte imbalances, which may lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias.
Do not have a direct effect on the heart rate or blood pressure, but produce a drying effect in the upper airways and may case drowsiness.
Act directly on the smooth muscle of the blood vessels to stimulate vasoconstriction.