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262 Cards in this Set

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P.R.I.C.E. stands for what?
Protection
Rest
Ice
Compression
Elevation
What is the primary purpose of professional certifications
To protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet the established levels of minimum competence.
Trainers should screen clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design...True or False
True
Conducting a VO2 Max test to determine a client's need for referral to his or her physician... True or False
False. That test is outside the scope of practice for an ACE certified fitness professional
ACE personal trainers must complete a minimum of _______ hours of continuing education every 2 years to maintain their certifications, and stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health.
Twenty (20)
Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices is inside the scope of practice...True or False
True
A personal trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients with tight or sore muscles can do so only if?
The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist.
What do the credentials for registered dietitians (RD), occupational therapists (ORT), athletic trainers (ATC), registered nurses (RN), and licensed massage therapists (LMT) have in common with certifications from the American Council on Exercise?
They are all accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies.
Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an RD or MD, he or she does not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements...True or False
True
If an ACE cerified Personal Trainer is looking to advance their knowledge, skills, and abilities beyond their ACE certification; what they should obtain?
An advanced fitness certification that is NCCA accredited.
What is the most important factor for an individual who is starting an exercise program?
Readiness to change behavior related to exercise
Which personal attribute is the most reliable predictor of an individuals participation in an exercise program?
Past exercise program participation
What is the most common excuse used by people when dropping out of an exercise program?
Lack of time
What is the best strategy for personal trainers to implement to enhance the likelihood that clients will continue working with them?
Encouraging client ownership of the program to facilitate development of intrinsic motivation.
A person who is confident that he or she can successfully participate regularly in an exercise program has?
Good self-efficacy related to exercise
Setting a series of progressively attainable short-term goals would most likely enhance program participation and goal attainment...True or False
True
A strong social support network can provide an individual with
improved program adherence, extrinsic motivation, and relapse-prevention.
Which type of exercise program would be expected to have the GREATEST drop out rate?
A vigorous-intensity exercise program
Age is gernerally unrelated to adherence levels in supervised exercise settings....True or False?
True
What is instrinsic motivation?
Belief in one's own ability to preform an activity or be successful in an activity.
Speaking in a firm and confidence voice, using fluid hand gestures while speaking, and quiet hands while listening is a good way for trainers to develop rapport during the initial assessment...True or False?
True
In order to gain a better understanding of the client, facilitate rapport building, and provide an effective program design a personal trainer must...
practice active listening.
What is a SMART goal?
Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-bound.
"I will run 4 days per week, gradually progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes to prepare for a 5K in four months"
Is an example of a SMART goal.
What is the most effective way to teach a new exercise to a client?
Tell, Show, Do...Tell the client what the exercise is, demonstrate the exercise, then have the client perform the exercise while providing feedback.
What are the stages of the client-trainer relationship?
Rapport>Investigation>Planning>Action
What is motivational Interviewing?
A method of speaking with people in a way that motivates them to make a decision to change their behavior.
What are the 3 stages of motor learning?
Cognitive, Associative, and Autonomous
What is Cognitive Learning?
The client is actively thinking about what to do. Their movements may appear shaky or jerky. The trainer performs the "tell, show, do" method.
What is Associative Learning?
Clients begin to master the basics and are ready for more specific feedback to help them refine the motor skill.
What is Autonomous Learning?
Clients preform motor skills effectively and naturally, with the personal trainer teaching less and monitoring more.
What is the Health Belief Model?
A predictor that people will engage in a health behavior based on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem, and the pros and cons of adopting the behavior.
What are the stages of the Transtheoretical Model of Behavioral Change/Stages of Change?
Precontemplation>Contemplation>Preparation>Action>Maintenance
What is the Precontemplation Stage?
People in this stage are sedentary and not considering and activity program.
What is the Contemplation stage?
People in this stage are still sedentary, however they start to consider activity as important and have begun to identify the implications of being inactive.
What is the Preparation Stage?
Marked by some physical activity, as individuals are mentally and physically preparing to adopt an activity program.
What is the Action Stage?
People engaged in irregular physical activity, or engaged in regular physical activity for less than 6 months.
What is the Maintenance Stage?
This stage is marked by regular physical activity participation for longer than six months.
A personal trainer should help a client switch from primarily external feedback to...
Internal feedback
What is decisional balance?
The perceived pros and cons of adopting and/or maintaining an activity program.
What is operant conditioning?
The process by which behaviors are influenced by their consequences.
What is shaping?
The process of using reinforcements to gradually achieve a target behavior.
What foundational element is the ACE IFT Model built upon?
Rapport Building
What assessment(s) are essential according to the ACE IFT Model and should be completed prior to a client beginning an exercise program?
Collecting health history data to identify contraindications and the need for referral.
What are the five primary movements that are the focus of the movement training phase?
Squatting, Lunging, Pushing, Pulling, and Rotational Movements
Cardiorespiratory exercise in zone 1 is performed at what intensity?
At or below the first ventilatory threshold "VT1" (RPE 3-4)
Cardiorespiratory exercise in zone 2 is performed at what intensity?
Between the first ventilatory threshold "VT1" and secondary ventilatory threshold "VT2" (RPE -5)
Cardiorespiratory exercise in zone 3 is performed at what intensity?
Just above the secondary ventilatory threshold "VT2" (RPE 6-7)
Personal trainers can use the talk test as an upper limit for exercise intensity to determine if a client is exercising below which cardiorespiratory marker?
First Ventilatory Threshold (VT1)
What is empathy?
The ability to experience another person's world as if it were one's own.
What is warmth?
An unconditional positive regard, or respect for another person regardless of his or her individuality and uniqueness. this quality will convey a climate that communicates safety and acceptance to the client.
What is genuineness?
Authenticity, or the ability to be honest and open.
What is the defining criteria for age in the CAD Risk factor stratification?
Men ≥ 45 yrs old.
Women ≥ 55 yrs old.
When is family history a risk for CAD?
Myocardial infarction or cornary heart disease in father before the age of 55 and before the age of 65 in women.
When is cigarette smoking a risk for CAD?
Current smoker or who quit within the past 6 months
What is a sedentary lifestyle?
Engaging in moderate to vigorous activity for <30 minutes a day at least 3 days a week.
What is obesity?
Body mass index ≥30
Waist girth >40" in men and >35" in women
What is hypertension?
Systolic Blood Pressure (SBP) ≥140 mmHg
Diastolic Blood Pressure (DBP) ≥90 mmHg
What is dyslipidemia?
LDL ≥130 mg/dL
HDL <40 mg/dL
Total serum cholesterol of >200 mg/dL
What is prediabetes?
A fasting blood glucose between 100-125 mg/dL.
What is a negative risk factor that would subtract one point from a CAD score?
A HDL ≥60 mg/dL
Informed consent is a clients...
"assumption of risk"
He or she is acknowledging having been specifically informed about the risks associated with activity.
What is the purpose of stability and mobility training?
Restorative exercise to improve posture and movement compensations.
Scapular winging during the shoulder push stabilization screen is likely caused by ___________.
scapulothoracic joint instability
What does android refer to?
An apple-shaped individual
What does gynoid refer to?
A pear-shaped individual
What is the acronym WHR?
Waist to Hip Ratio
=waist circumference/hip circumference
List 4 variables that should be monitored or recorded during an exercise test.
Heart Rate
Blood Pressure
Rating of Perceived Exertion "RPE"
Signs and symptoms (personal observations and comments from the client)
If a client is taking beta blockers, how might this affect the results of their treadmill test?
Beta blockers may not show an accurate heart rate, due to their heart rate lowering effect.
How to convert height from standard to metric:
Convert height to inches, multiply the inches by 2.54, and move decimal point two places to the left to get height in meters (or multiple by 100).
How to convert lbs to kg:
Multiple weight in pounds by 0.45 to get kilograms

lbs*0.45 = kg
How to calculate age predicted Target Heart Rate (THR):
220-age = MHR
MHR x % desired intensity (low)
MHR x % desired intensity (high)
= Target Heart Rate zone
How to calculate relative VO2:
Oxygen uptake (mL/min) multiplied by 1000 mL/L divide by body weight in kilograms

Relative VO2 = (mL/min*1000)/kg
How to calculate caloric expenditure during exercise:
Caloric expenditure = [VO2 (mL/kg/min)*BW(kg)/1000] * 5 Kcal/L/min
How to calculate caloric expenditure during exercise with METs:
Caloric expenditure = MET x 3.5mL/kg/min x BW (kg)
How to calculate strength training level using a clients one repetition max (1RM):
Desired weight = 1 RM (lbs) x desired intensity

ex: 110lbs x 60% (.60) =66lbs
How to calculate caloric value of a food or drink:
Multiply # of grams by the energy of macronutrient. Get all values for the macronutrients, add values together, then divide by the total # of calories contained per serving.

Fat=9 calories/gram
Alcohol=7 calories/gram
Protein=4 calories/gram
Carbohydrates=4 calories/gram
What is the recommended protein intake for athletes?
1.2-1.7 g/kg (0.5-0.8 g/lb) of body weight per day
What is the recommended carbohydrate intake for athletes?
6-10 g/kg (3-5 g/lb) of body weight per day
What is the recommended fat intake for athletes?
20-25% of total calorie intake per day.
How to calculate age predicted MHR:
(220 - age) = MHR
What is The Institute of Medicine's (IOM) 2005 Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) recommended % of calories consumed from carbohydrates?
45-65%
What is The Institute of Medicine's (IOM) 2005 Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) recommended % of calories consumed from proteins?
10-35%
What is The Institute of Medicine's (IOM) 2005 Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) recommended % of calories consumed from fats?
20-35%
What is normal blood pressure?
120/80
Prehypertensive blood pressure
139/89
hypertension blood pressure
Stage 1
140/90 - 159/99
Hypertenstion stage 2
anything greater than 160/100
Karvonen formula for determining THR:
220 - age = age predicted MHR
Age predicted MHR - RHR = HHR
(HRR * % intensity) + RHR = THR
Name 3 types of treadmill tests:
Burce submaximal treadmill exercise test
Balke & Ware treadmill exercise test
Ebbeling single-stage treadmill test
Name two (2) types of cycling tests:
YMCA bike test
Astrand-Rhyming cycle ergometer test
Name two (2) ventilatory threshold tests:
Submaximal talk test for VT1
VT2 threshold test
Name two (2) types of field tests:
Rockport fitness walking test (1 mile)
1.5 mile run test
Name two (2) types of step tests:
YMCA submaximal step test (12 inches)
McArdle step test (16 inches)
What is the Bruce submaximal treadmill, and who would this test NOT be appropriate for?
Four (4), three (3) minute stages till HRss, with test termination at 85% MHR, or signs or symptoms

Deconditoned and/or elderly individuals
What is the Balke and Ware treadmill test, and who is this test appropriate for?
One (1) to three (3) minute stages till THR, with test termination at 85% MHR, or signs or symptoms

De-conditioned, elderly, and individuals with a history of cardiovascular disease, because the test is held at a constant.
What does the Ebbeling single stage treadmill test consist of, and who is it appropriate for?
A four (4) minute warm up stage and a single four (4) minute testing stage that should elicit HRss.

Low-risk, apparently health, non-athletic adults 20-59 years of age.
A cycle ergometer test would be appropriate for what type of clients?
Individuals with balance problems, or unfamiliarity with the treadmill.
A cycle ergometer test would NOT be appropriate for what type of clients?
Obese individuals
Those with orthopedic problems
Those with neuromuscular problems and cannot maintain the proper cadence
The YMCA bike test measures what?
The HR response to incremental 3 minute workloads that progressively elicit higher heart rate responses, to determine maximal effort and estimate VO2 max.
The Astrand Ryhming cycle test:
Estimates VO2 max using a single stage six (6) minute submaximal cycling protocol.
The Submaximal Talk Test:
Uses VT1 and VT2 to provide heart rate data based on a clients unique metabolic response to exercise, allowing for very individualized program design
ADL stands for what?
Activities of daily living
Blood glucose levels should be above ______ before starting exercise.
100 mg/dL
Recommended water intake
17-20 oz. before exercise
7-10 oz. during exercise, every 10-20 min
16-24 oz. for every lb lost
How to calculate a caloric deficit based on a weight loss goal:
Body weight client wants to lose x 3,500 kcal divided by the goal time = cal deficit

ex: client wants to lose 10lbs in 60 days

10lbs x 3500 = 35000
35000/60days=583 daily deficit
Plyometric progression:
Jumping in place
Single linear jumps
Multiple linear jumps
Multipledirectional jumps
Hops and bounds
Depth jumps
Torso endurance test protocol
flexion:ext ratio less than 1.0
(divide into one another)

RSB:LSB no greater than 0.05 from 1.0

Side bridge score ext ratio:
less than 0.75
Metabolic syndrome symptoms:
Has the presence of 3 or more
Elevated waist circumference: men ≥40 and women 35 in.

Elevated triglycerides: ≥150
Reduced HDL : Men <40 women <50
Elevated BP: ≥130/85
Elevated fasting blood glucose: ≥100
A good predictor of low back health is...
endurance of core and postural muscles acting on the low back
VT2 threshold is...
an important metabolic marker that determine a clients OBLA (onset blood lactate accumulation)
The Rockport Fitness Walking Test...
estimates VO2 max from a clients HRss response to the completion of a 1-mile walking course as fast as possible.
The 1.5 Mile Run Test...
is used by the U.S. navy to evaluate cardiorespitory fitness levels, by measuring cardiovascular endurance and muscular endurance of the legs.
The YMCA Submaximal Step Test...
utilizes a 12 inch step (four risers), with the individual stepping up and down for 3 minutes. Appropriate for low risk apparently healthy, non-athletic individuals between the ages of 20-59.
The McArdle Step Test...
evaluates recovery HR and useful for clients of higher levels of aerobic fitness
(16.25 inches - common height of a bleacher)
Muscular fitness tests include:
Push-up test
Curl-up test
McGills muscular endurance test battery
Body weight squat test
Muscular strength tests include:
1 RM testing
1 RM bench press test
1 RM leg press test
1 RM squat test
Sport skill assessments include:
Power testing
Field tests
Power = ______x______
Force x Velocity
or
work/time
Name the five anaerobic power tests.
Standing long jump (lower body)
Vertical jump (lower body)
Kneeling overhead toss (upper body)
Margaria-kalamen test (lower body)
300- yard shuttle run (anaerobic capacity)
The Standing long jump measures?
The distance an individual can jump from a standing/stationary position.
The Vertical Jump Test is performed...
by a client raising one arm and the trainer marks the wall with chalk for a starting point. Then with three attempts the trainer records the highest point the client can jump and touch the wall.
The kneeling overhead toss measures...
the power in the upper extremeties.
The Margaria-Kalamen stair climb...
assesses leg power and activation of the phosphagen energy system.
The 300 Yard Shuttle Run
assesses anaerobic capacity or the highest rate of sustainable power over a period of time. Individuals run back and fourth over the 25 yard course to each cone 6 times.
Speed, agility, and quickness testing includes...
Pro Agility test
T-test
40 yard dash
The Pro Agility test...
assesses a clients ability to accelerate, decelerate, change direction, and accelerate again.
Sometimes called the 20 yard agility test or the 5-10-5 shuttle run.
How does the T-Test work?
It is used to test agility by using multidirectional movement (forward, backward, lateral). The client sprints to one cone, shuffles to the net cone, shuffles to the next 2 cones, then runs backward to the start.
The 40 Yard dash is...
used to determine acceleration and speed. The only rule is to run as fast as they can for 40 yards.
BMI:
weight/height squared
Low Density Lipoprotein
bad cholesterol
High Density Lipoprotein
good cholesterol
Where is the first place within the kinetic chain that should develop stability?
Lumbar spine
What are the 5 programming components of the stability and mobility training phase
Proximal stability of the lumbar spine
Proximal mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine
Proximal stability of the scapulothoracic spine
Proximal mobility of the glenohumeral joint
Distal mobility and stability of the distal extremities
static balance
What muscles are responsible for muscle stabilization?
Type 1 or slow twitch (endurance muscles)
What muscles are responsible for joint movement?
Type 2 or fast twitch muscles (strength and power type training)
Which joint is classified as favoring stability over mobility?
Scapulothoracic joint
Lack of hip-joint mobility will likely lead to...
compromised stability in the knees and lumbar spine
What force couple creates posterior pelvic rotation to pull the pelvis out of anterior pelvic tilt?
Hamstrings and rectus abdominis
What muscles make up "the core"?
multifidi, quadratus lumborum, transverse abdominis, deep fibers of the internal oblique, diaphram, and pelvic floor.
Having a client perform supine-lying shoulder depression and shoulder retraction helps them establish?
Scapulothoracic stability. This teaches the client how to "pack" the scapula.
Once a client can demonstrate good balance on two feet the next progression on balance would be to...
narrow the base of support.
Static stretches are:
Stretches taken to the point of tension and holding for 15-60 seconds
Myofascial release:
Using a foam roller, client performs a back and forth motion over the tight or tender region for 30-60 seconds.
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF):
Clients perform a hold-relax stretch, holding the isometric contraction of the agonist for a minimum of six seconds, followed by a 10-30 second assisted or passive static stretch.
Active isoloated stretching is:
A client can perform one or two sets of five to ten repetitions at a controlled tempo, holding the end range for one to two seconds.
Dynamic and ballistic stretches:
Perform one or two sets of 10 repetitions.
What is the progression for stance positions?
Hip-width stance
Staggered stance (split stance)
Tandem stance
Single-leg stance
What are abilities?
Inherited traits that are stable and enduring.
What are skills?
Developed and modified with practice.
The ACL connects?
The posterior-lateral part of the femur to an anterior medial part of the tibia within the knee joint. A very important stabilizer of the femur on the tibia during knee extension.
How much muscle tissue will an average non-strength trained adult lose each decade due to disuse atrophy?
5 lbs per decade loss of muscle tissue (~.5lbs/yr)
Concentric contraction is...
muscle shortening
Eccentric contraction is...
muscle lengthening
Isometric contraction or static
with out changing the muscle length
Muscular strength intensity should be at what resistance?
between 80-90% of maximum resistance
Load training for muscular hypertrophy should be at what resistance?
between 70-80% of maximum resistance
Specificity is...
exercising the appropriate muscles based on the clients needs
Overload is...
the process of gradually adding more exercise resistance than the muscles have previously encountered.
Reversibility is...
the principle that suggests any improvement in fitness due to physical activity is entirely reversible with the discontinuation of the training program.
Diminishing Returns:
After a certain level of performance is achieved, there will be a decline in effectiveness of training at furthering a persons performance level.
Supersets are...
performing back to back exercises with no rest in between while working opposing muscles to fatigue
Name the variable(s) that effect the intensity of lower body plyometrics:
Points of contact, Speed, Vertical height, Body weight, and Complexity of the exercise
This is necessary for the synthesis of hemoglobin and myoglobin
Iron
This is an essential nutrient for energy production; used in times of muscular fatigue
riboflavin
This is important for immune function, protein synthesis, and blood formation
zinc
This is important for the normal metabolism of nerve tissue, protein, fat, and carbohydrates
Vitamin B12
This is important for blood clotting, nerve transmission, and muscle stimulation
calcium
This is necessary for calcium absorption
vitamin D
This is the source of the white color of milk
casein
Strength gains during the first few weeks of resistance training are primarily due to ___________
improved neuromuscular function
How do you calculate training volume?
Multiply the sets by the repetitions by the weight to equal the training volume
Which muscles are prime movers for external rotation of the shoulder?
teres minor and infraspinatus
As muscle fibers contract to provide the necessary movement force, they use 2 fuel sources called ______and _____ for energy production. The by product of these results in the build up of ___________
creatine phosphate and glycogen
-lactic acid
This is the product of muscular strength and movement speed
muscular power
Recommended training volume for muscular endurance is...
2-3 sets
12 or more reps
Recommended training volume for muscular hypertrophy is...
3-6 sets
6-12 reps
Recommended training volume for muscular strength is...
2-6 sets
6 or less reps
For most general muscular conditioning, a ________ rest interval between exercises is sufficient.
one minute
During a double progression method first add _______ then ________
more reps
increase weight by 5%
Macrocycle refers to what amount of time?
6-12 months, and program timeframe
Mesocycle refers to how much time?
A division of the macrocycle (generally 3 months), and provides specific training goals
Microcycles refers to how much time?
two (2) to four (4) weeks, and progressive training segments for each mesocycle
What is the appropriate rate of progression for muscular strength?
Frequency- 72 hour recovery
Intensity- 80-90% max
Repetitions- 4-8
Sets- 3-4
Type- standard machine and free weights
What is the appropriate rate of progression for muscular hypertrophy?
Frequency- 72 hour recovery (2 muscle groups/day)
Intensity-70-80% max
Repetitions- 8-12
Sets- 3-4 with 30-60sec rest interval
Type- multi-muscle and isolated exercises
Iron deficiency is known as
anemia
This is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute
cardiac output
This is known as the "power plant" of the cells where aerobic metabolism occurs
mitochondria
This method of monitoring exercise intensity is the most widely used but strongly discouraged
% MHR
Use of this marker of intensity requires an estimation attained via mathematical formula and has a high degree of inherent error
% MHR
Does not correlate strongly with performance and is generally not influenced by training
% MHR
Discrepancies in individual resting heart rates are taken into account when using this method
% HRR
Because of the debate regarding body position when measuring resting heart rate when using this method, two sets of training zones may be necessary, one for seated recumbent positions and one for standing positions
% HRR
This is a subjective method of gauging exercise intensity
Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE)
Very sedentary individuals often find this difficult to use, as the find any level of exercise fairly hard
Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE)
Moderate = 70% MHR
Somewhat hard= 80% MHR
Hard = 85% MHR
Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE)
Although the evidence base for this method is very deep the very large range of acceptable percentages makes it difficult to use when recommending exercise intensities
VO2
Though this is considered the "gold standard" it may be less useful that widely believed
VO2
Involves using multiples of an assumed average metabolic rate of 3.5 mL/kg/min
Metabolic Equivalents (METs)
Calculated by measuring or estimating the total quantity of O2 consumed per minute and multiplying by 5 Kcal/liter O2
caloric expenditure
Works on the premise that about at the intensity of VT1 the increase in ventilation is accompanied by an increase in breathing frequency
Talk test
Is based on an individual's unique metabolic or ventilatroy responses
Talk test
Separates Zones 2 from Zone 3 in the three-zone training model
VT2
Is associated with the flattening of the heart rate response to increase intensity
VT2
When working with a beginner client, the most appropriate progression variable to manipulate is
duration
List the 4 cardo training phases of the ACE IFT model
Aerobic base
Aerobic efficiency
Anaerobic endurance
Anaerobic power
The Talk Test for VT1 is conducted during which phase?
Phase 2 - Aerobic efficency
In what phase should the VT2 threshold test be conducted?
Phase 3- anaerboic endurance
When performing steady state exercise, what limits exercise duration?
Availability of oxygen
Willingness to continue
Availability of energy from stored glycogen and or blood glucose
What causes cardiovascular drift?
Increased heart rate to compensate for reduced blood volume due to sweat production for thermoregulation
What is the primary reason for having all clients perform an adequate cool down?
To enhance venous return to prevent blood pooling in the extremities
What is the greatest limitation associated with using heart rate reserve?
Accurate programming using HRR requires actually measuring max heart rate and resting heart rate
The onset of blood lactate accumulation (OBLA) occurs in which threshold?
VT2
What is the primary focus of aerobic base training in the ACE IFT model?
Creating a positive experience and early success through achievable zone 1 exercise of increased duration
Research shows a full cardiorespiratory exercise program should be composed of:
Zone 1 (below VT1): 70-80%
Zone 2 (VT1 to just below VT2): <10%
Zone 3 (at or above VT2): 10-20%
Decreasing the number of recovery days per week to accommodate additional interval work can cause
overtraining syndrome
What are the 4 phases of Functional movement and resistance training of the ACE IFT model?
1- Stability and mobility
2- Movement training
3- Load training
4- Performance Training
The affective and neuroendocrine response to mind-body exercise is mediated through the hyphthalmic-pituitary-adrinal axis and results in a decreased production of which hormones that are associated with stress?
catecholamines and cortisol
Regular participation of mind body exercise will have the following benefit...
increase self efficacy
What is considered a classical form of mind body exercise?
Hatha yoga
Tai Chi
Qigong
Spiritual and ethnic dance
Some ancient martial arts (karate, judo, aikido)
What is a metabolic benefit of practicing yoga and Tai Chi on a regular basis?
Increased glucose tolerance and insulin sensitivity
What is the primary method for progressing the principal challenge in hatha yoga?
increasing the complexity of the asanas
A client who is deconditioned or has a chronic disease should avoid this during a mind body exercise
poses with the head below the heart
This is a form of mind body exercise that re-educates the body to break inefficient movement patterns
Pilates
How can a personal trainer most effectively incorporate mind body into a session for a client?
include some Iyengar poses and yogic breathing in the cool down
Prior to exercising, a clients fasting blood glucose level should be over...
100 mg/dL
When working with people who have lower back pain, exercises most benefit when performed how often?
on a daily basis
How many repetitions are recommended to stimulate bone change in clients who have osteopenia and or osteoporosis?
6-8
Where is the scapular plane?
30 degrees anterior to the frontal plane
An inflammation of the wrist etensors near their origin is commonly referred to as
Tennis elbow
Which nerve is commonly compressed due to carpal tunnel syndrome?
Median nerve
Clients returning to exercise following greater trochanteric bursitis should generally avoid __________.
side-lying positions that compress the lateral hip
When working with a client who has a history of iliotibial (IT) band syndrome, which muscle group acting on the hip is most likely to be weak?
Hip Abductors
Tightness in which of the following structures can be a cause of patellofemoral pain syndrome due to its lateral fascial connections to the patella?
IT band complex
Stretching which muscles has been shown to help relieve symptoms associated with medial tibial stress syndrome (MTSS) and or anterior shin splints?
soleus and anterior compartment of the lower leg
What exercises would be most important to include for a client who has recovered from Achilles tendinitis and wants to prevent it from returning?
eccentric strengthening for the calf complex through controlled dorsiflexion against gravity and stretching the calf muscles
When working with a client who has a history of plantar fasciitis, it would be most important to include stretching exercises for the ______________
gastrocnemius, soleus and plantar fascia
What is the most important step a fitness facility can take to minimize risks of cardiovascular events?
Having each member complete a medical history form
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA) of 1996
Ensures individual privacy by requiring confidentiality of health documents
What should you do first when a person falls to the floor while exercising?
Assess if the person is conscious and asking if they are alright.
What is the most common heart rhythm during during cardiac arrest?
ventricular fibrillation
A heart attack is characterized by these signs and symptoms?
A squeezing pressure in the chest that can be mistaken for indigestion or heart burn
How is a transient ischemic attack (TIA) different from a stroke?
Signs of TIA last less than one hour
What should you do when you suspect a client is having a mild hypoglycemic incident?
Help the client sit down and give them a sugary drink if they can swallow
Altered mental status
is a symptom of a heat stroke and needs to be treated as an emergency
What business structure puts a personal trainer at the greatest risk for losing personal assets in the event of a lawsuit filed by a client for an incident related to personal training services provided?
Sole proprietorship
What business structure combines the limited liability and flow through taxation of the S-corp with easier creation and operation requirements?
Limited Liability partnership
A Signed contract
ensures that all aspects of the client - personal trainer relationship are properly established
This is a legal term used to describe a situation where a trainer fails to act and a client is injured, but the client is determined to have played a role in his or her own injury?
contributory negligence
What form is used to have the client acknowledge that they have been specifically informed about the risks associated with the activity in which they are about to engage?
Informed consent
Before training a client in their home a personal trainer must check with their insurance company to see if they are covered for training in these settings or if they need to add a _____________ policy to their existing professional liability insurance.
specific insurance rider
Using the ACE certified logo to promote nutritional products, DVD's, or equipments sold by the trainer is ______________
a violation of intellectual property laws.
The mission statement and business model should be detailed in which component of the business plan?
Business description
What is the primary energy system utilized during a resistance training exercise set that is 60-90 seconds in duration?
Anaerobic glycosis
How many carbohydrates are recommended for long duration events?
30-60 grams of carbs per hour
The Anterior Superior Iliac Spine (ASIS) and pubic bone should be lined up____________-
vertically
To calculate how much protein or carbohydrates a person should intake....
you multiply their weight in Kg by the number range.
If the knees fall inward during a bend and lift screen what muscles would be tight?
gluteus medius and maximus
Deliberators are:
Low Dominance and Low Sociability
More cognitive/thinking, and less affective/emotional
Directors are:
High Dominance and Low Sociability
More cognitive/thinking, and less affective/emotional
Collaborators are:
Low Dominance and High Sociability
Less cognitive/thinking, and more affective/emotional
Expressors are:
High Dominance and High Sociability
Less cognitive/thinking, and more affective/emotional