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154 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What are the four inspection concepts?

Periodic, phased, isochronal, and programmed depot maintenance.

What are the basic scheduled inspections that are common to the four inspection concepts?

Pre-flight(PR), End of runway (EDR), Thru-flight(TH), and Basic post flight (PBO)

When are TH inspections performed?

Between Flights

Which basic scheduled inspection is a more thorough check than the PR or TH inspections?

Basic post-flight

What three inspections are based on hours of operation?

Hourly post flight (HPO), Periodic (PE), and Phase (PH)

Which inspection is a combination of the BPO, PE, and/or HPO inspection requirements?

Phase inspection

What three inspections are peculiar to the isochronal inspection system?

Minor, Major, and Home Station Check (HSC)

What is the AFTO Form 781 A used for?

Document each discrepancy discovered by aircrew or maintenance (except for battle damage)

When can you erase symbols in the symbol block?


What is required in the CORRECTIVE ACTION block when clearing a red X discrepancy?

A complete TO reference

What documentation is required if you cannot accomplish the operational check immediately after completion of the maintenance?

Close out original entry by describing the corrective action, also include a statement that an op check is required.

What is purpose of the AFTO Form 781C

Provide configuration and load status.

What is the aircraft commander's role relating to the AFTO Form 781C?

Check the form prior to flight to make sure that the avionics equipment status and configuration conform to mission requirements.

What is the role of maintenance personnel for the AFTO Form 781C?

Maintenance personnel ensure the validity and legibility of all required entries.

What is the purpose of the AFTO Form 781H?

Document maintenance status and servicing information.

What is the purpose of the exceptional release?

serves as a certification that the authorized individual who enters their minimum signature has reviewed the active forms to ensure the aircraft is safe for flight.

What is block 11 used for on the AFTO Form 781H?

Used to document servicing data for fuel, oil, oxygen, and nitrogen/water.

What is the purpose of the AFTO Form 781J?

Used to document airframe time and engine data

Who is responsible for making entries on the AFTO Form 781J?

aircraft maintenance technician.

Which AFTO forms are used to document oil servicing?

781J and 781H

What is the purpose of the AFTO Form 781K?

record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data.

What is block D used for?

Enter all delayed discrepancies, urgent action TCTOs, Category I routine action, safety modification TCTOs, outstanding routine action TCTOs, or commercial equivalents

At what point are red X entries entered on the AFTO Form 781K?


What type of equipment is the AFTO Form 244 used for?


What does part V of the AFTO Form 244 provide?

A means to document equipment discrepancies and corrective actions

What is the AFTO Form 245 for?

As a continuation sheet for part V of the AFTO Form 244

What is the purpose of an AF Form 1492?

To facilitate safe maintenance by preventing the inadvertent activation of a system that should not be activated.

Where are warning tags placed on an aircraft?

Where undesirable activation of system is possible

The perforated bottom portion of the tag is used for what purpose?

Provide a "Cross-check" with the aircraft forms.

What is the most common type of insulated wire used on aircraft called?

Kapton wiring

What does a coaxial consist of?

An inner conductor and outer conductor separated by an insulated dielectric.

What type of impedance do coaxial cables have?

Characteristic impedance of 50, 70, or 93 ohms

when is triaxial cable used?

When further shielding is required

What is the most common type of thermocouple wiring?

Alumel/chromel wiring

Why is it important to make sure equal lengths of both wires are removed when cutting thermocouple wiring?

wrong temperature indications will occure

What are some precautions to observe during maintenance of thermocouple wiring?

Support thermocouple wiring so it will not come into contact with heat producing surfaces.

Do not bend thermocouple leads sharply.

Only splice thermocouple leads where specifically indicated.

Protect adjacent wiring against abrasion from thermocouple splices

Distribute excess slack evenly between wire supports.

Route thermocouple wiring away from hot spots

What is a major factor to consider when using fiber optic cables in place of conventional wire?

Their elasticity

Twisting a fiber optic cable during installation can have what effect?

Disturbances in lay uniformity, resulting in reduced optical power transmission.

What are some sources of EMI?

Lighting, power lines, engines, generators, radar, and other electrical circuits and wiring.

Describe a simple way to identify sources of EMI

Turn off everything but affected system, turn them back on one at a time until interference symptoms return

What are the advantages of fiber optics?

Immunity to EMI, wide bandwidth, low attenuation, small size, light weight, safety, security, and speed

Which components protect the fiber optic cable and add tensile strength?

Outer jacket, strength members, and buffer jacket

What is the active component in a fiber optic communication system?

Optical source

What are the two types of light sources used in a fiber optic system?


What two types of photodiodes are used in fiber optic systems

PIN and avalanche (APD)

What does proper use of a wire stripping tool accomplish?

Remove the insulation without damaging the wire.

What is the first step to ensure the wire is properly stripped?

choose correct size hole that matches wire gauge.

What are wire splices use for?

Join wires together in a strong mechanical and electrical bond.

What must you do after the crimp barrel is properly installed?

Ensure the wires cannot be pulled out of the splice.

What is an EMP cable?

A hardened compact wire bundle with self-contained wire assemblies

What is the first thing you must do before repairing an EMP cable jacket?

Examine the damaged area to determine if it's limited to only the jacket.

What is the final step in outer cable shield repair?

Wrap the repair area and at least 1/2 inch of cable on each side of the repair with self bonding silicone tape.

What must you do prior to repairing a wire at an EMP connector?

Check applicable wiring TOs to ensure you have the proper materials for the job.

What does lacing and tying provide?

ease of installation, maintenance, and inspection

What is the recommended type of material for lacing and tying?

Narrow flat tape.

Where can continuous lacing be used?

Wire groups or bundles which are installed in panels or junction boxes.

What are the spacing requirements for tying wire groups or bundles?

Tie all wire groups or bundles when the supports more than 12 inches apart, space the ties 12 inches (or less) apart.

What warning must you always heed you are using cable straps?

The strap must be cut flushed with the boss surface in order to eliminate painful cuts and scratches from protruding strap ends.

What are torque wrenches designed to measure?

The specific degree of tightness of nuts and bolts.

What is the working range of a torque wrench?

Not lower than 20%, nor greater than the rated capacity of the torque wrench.

How do you prepare a torque wrench for storage?

Set it to its lowest increment torque value or mechanical stop, whichever comes first.

What does a cable tensiometer measure?

Specific degree of tightness of installed aircraft flight control cables.

Why is it important to check flight control cables for proper tension?

Improper tightness can lead to increased cable wear or sluggish flight control surface response, can also create or contribute to vibration.

Why are panels sealed?

Protect against corrosion and fill out and level gaps between the panel and airframe.

What is used to prevent sealant from contacting adjacent areas during application?

Marking tape

What needs to be avoided when applying sealant?

Entrapment of air.

What is a gasket?

A mechanical seal which fills the space between 2 or more mating surfaces.

Why must you ensure gaskets are properly seated during installation?

To avoid leaks and improper operation of equipment.

What does an aircraft air-conditioning system provide?

Conditioned air fro crew comfort, cooling of avionic systems, defogging of windows, and cabin pressurization.

Where does the aircraft receive power from in-flight?

The electrical system.

What system provides the power to move flight control surfaces and landing gear?

The hydraulic system.

What is the function of the propulsion system?

Provide thrust.

What systems provide line-of-sight air-to-air and air-to-ground voice communications?

VHF and UHF radios

What navigation system in an independent system?

Inertial Navigation Systems

What ground-based transmitting stations does ILS operate in conjunctions with?

Localizer, glides scope, and marker beacon.

What system provides steering data to the autopilot?

Inertial Navigation System.

What is the purpose of engine indicating instruments?

monitor the "vital signs" of the engines.

What components are attached to the fuselage?

The wings, engines, and empennage

What does the engine nacelles provide?

Smooth airflow around an into the engines.

What flight controls are included on the wing?

Ailerons, flaps, and spoilers

What does the empennage consist of?

Horizontal stabilizer, elevator, vertical stabilizer, and rudder.

Name the four aerodynamic forces that affect aircraft flight.

gravity, lift, thrust, and drag

What produces thrust?

Aircraft engines

When an aircraft is flying at a constant altitude with a constant airspeed, what does lift and thrust equal?

Lift=gravity and thrust=drag

What must be increased for airspeed to increase?


What are the three axes of rotation and what motions does an aircraft make on these axes?

Lateral(pitch), Longitudinal (roll), and vertical (yaw)

What movement takes place on the X-axis?


At what point on the aircraft do all three axes meet?

Center of gravity

What do the primary flight controls consist of?

Ailerons, elevators, and rudder.

What controls roll motion of the aircraft?


What is used to control the pitch attitude of the aircraft?


What provides directional control or yaw of the aircraft?


Why is the cable system the most widely used type of mechanical flight control?

deflections of the structure to which it is attached do not affect its operation

why do some aircraft incorporate flight control systems that automatically revert to servo-tab control?

In case of total hydraulic system failure.

What links the flight deck controls with the hydraulic system?

Conventional cable or push-pull systems

why are artificial feel systems incorporated into the design of hydro-mechanical flight control systems?

To prevent over stressing the structure of the plane.

why does an electro-mechanical system eliminate the need for high pressure hydraulic lines?

Actuators use electrical power instead of hydraulic power.

What can be prevented through electronic flight control computer programming?

Undesirable and dangerous characteristics, such as stalling.

What is the flap position indicator designed to display?

The percentage of flap extension.

What does the elevator trim indicator display?

Elevator trim tab position in degree nose up or down from the neutral position.

What do synchros convert?

Mechanical shaft angles to electrical signals or vice versa.

What is one main difference between a synchro and selsyn system?

A selsyn system uses 28 VDC instead of 115 or 26 VAC

What does the selsyn system transmitter consist of?

A circular resistance winding with three taps positioned 120 degrees apart.

Why must selsyn transmitters and indicators be replaced together?

They come in matched sets

What does the autopilot control to automatically correct for any out-out-trim- condition in the pitch axis?

Elevator trim tabs

What ensures the autopilot system engages and operates correctly during all functions?

Electro-mechanical interlocks.

What controls the activation of engage signals, switch hold signals, and clutches for the rudder, aileron, and elevator servos?

Automatic flight control processor

Where are lateral guidance commands derived from?

Inertial navigation, flight director, and radio navigation systems.

What is annunciated on the flight progress/warning unit?

AFCS flight progress, cautions, and warnings

What does an AUTO TRIM FAIL annunciation indicate?

A pitch axis out of trim condition may exist

What does the FCP provide?

Autopilot engagement and displacement, pitch and lateral couple control, pitch or lateral axis disengage control, altitude hold mode engagement, and BIT initiate.

When will the pitch wheel be inoperative?

The altitude hold or "speed on pitch" modes are selected after glidescope capture, or when the pitch axis is in the OFF position.

What will automatically deselect the "speed on pitch" mode, if active, and deactivate the pitch wheel on the flight control panel?

Altitude hold

What is the purpose of the three identical servos?

Position the aircraft control surfaces in response to AFCP guidance commands.

What AFCS modes are considered both lateral and vertical modes?

Flight director and approach.

How is selection of navigation sources controlled?

By positioning flight director mode select switches on the pilot and copilot instrument panels.

Which switches determine what flight data controls AFCS mode selection?

The AP1 and AP2 engage switches on the flight control panel.

How are navigation system interfaces to the autopilot determined?

By the pilot and copilot flight director switch positions located on the aircraft main instrument panel.

When does the power-on state occur?

Immediately following application of power to the AFCP.

What is the normal state for the AFCS?

The flight control state

What must the calibrated airspeed be in order to activate the maintenance BIT?

Less than 50 knots

How far to the rear of an engine may be required to be considered a safe distance away from engine exhaust?

Up to 600 ft

How can you determine the plane of rotation of an engine?

A red or black band around the fuselage of the aircraft or engine nacelle.

How long should you remain clear of the 300-foot hazard area after an aircraft has stopped during a hot brakes situation?

At least 45-60 minutes.

From which direction should you approach an aircraft with hot brakes? Why?

From the nose an tail direction because the areas on both sides of the tire and wheel are where fragments would be hurled should the tire explode.

What can happen if you operate power actuated surfaces carelessly?

You can damage equipment or severely injure or kill someone.

What must you first do prior to performing any maintenance on the aircraft?

Review the forms to check for any potentially hazardous conditions.

What is the purpose of landing gear safety pins?

Prevent inadvertent retraction of the landing gear while on the ground.

What is the purpose of grounding an aircraft?

Dissipate dangerous built-up static electricity

Why is RF radiation a particularly dangerous hazard?

The source is often hidden from view.

A sound level of how many decibels can rupture the eardrum and cause permanent damage?


What is the typical operating pressure of hydraulic systems?

3,000 PSI

What is the process for storing flammable liquids in buildings?

Stored in approved and labeled containers in areas approved by the fire chief.

Besides lift, what else does the main rotor provide on a helicopter?

Lateral and longitudinal movement

What is the purpose of the tail rotor on a helicopter?

To stabilize and move the Helicopter

What are the three controls used to maneuver a helicopter?

Collective, cyclic, and foot pedals

Raising what helicopter control will cause a helicopter to increase in altitude?

The collective

What do the foot pedals on a helicopter control?

The tail rotor.

To tilt a helicopter forward, what must the pilot do?

Push the cyclic forward

Which AHHS component is the brain of the system?

The system interface unit.

What controls the AHHS fail and BOOST SERVO OFF light on the caution advisory panel?

The forward relay unit

What VSI indication is illuminated when AHHS is engaged?


What information does the collective command pointer provide?

Indicates AHHS vertical velocity up to 500 feet per minute.

How are the four modes of AHHS operation selected?

through the system control unit.

How does boost assist the pilots with the flight controls?

Adding hydraulic power to the flight controls.

When cycled, what AHHS component decreases the aircraft speed to zero knots?

The AHHS zero button in conjunction with the HOV mode.

What does the BAR ALT hold mode control?

the collective position to maintain the pilot's selected altitude.

What is the operational range of the BAR ALT mode?

-1,000ft to +10,000 ft

What is the operational range of the radar altimeter mode?

0 to 1,500 ft above ground level

What must the helicopter's ground speed be for hover stabilization?

less than 20 knots

Which helicopter control mode provides control of the left and right, forward and aft, and altitude axes?

The hover radar altitude mode

What interrupts the AHHS system from driving if the helicopter lands with the HOV/RA mode engaged?

The loss of the weight on wheels airborne signal interrupts the AHHS system from driving.

What provides the SIU with a WOW discrete?

The stability augmentation system/ flight path stabilization.

what component tells the SIU which mode has been selected?