2014(2)

Front 1

Exfoliative cytology can be useful in detecting viral cytopathologic effects in all of the following except
A. Shingles
B. Cold sores
C. Chicken pox
D. Hairy leukoplakia
E. Acute herpetic gingivistomatitis

Back 1

D

Front 2

Metallic salts are included in root canal sealers
to make the sealers
A. stronger.
B. radiopaque.
C. set more rapidly.
D. tolerated by periapical tissues.
E. bond to dentin

Back 2

B

Front 3

Which of the following muscles is most likely
to be affected by a depressed fracture of the
zygomatic arch?
A. Lateral pterygoid.
B. Temporalis.
C. Masseter.
D. Medial pterygoid

Back 3

C

Front 4

The primary role of calcium hydroxide in
indirect pulp cap procedures is to
A. reduce bacterial load.
B. occlude the dentinal tubules.
C. build up the internal form of the cavity
preparation.
D. provide a hermetic seal.

Back 4

A

Front 5

To achieve adequate retention when placing a
post in a posterior tooth with a normal canal
configuration, the post requires a
A. length of 7 to 8 mm.
B. length equal to the restored crown height.
C. parallel sided design.
D. resin luting cement.

Back 5

B

Front 6

Which of the following statements is correct
with respect to root caries lesions?
A. A specific microoganism causes root
caries.
B. Early lesions involve adjacent enamel.
C. Colour of the lesion is a relaible indicator
of caries activity.
D. The majority of lesions begin
interpoximally

Back 6

probably A

Front 7

When closing a diastema with direct composite, care must be taken to ensure that
A. only supragingival enamel is etched.
B. primer is used to increase bond strength.
C. glass-ionomer cement is used subgingivally.
D. interproximal gingiva is adequately retracted.

Back 7

D

Front 8

When closing a diastema with direct
composite, care must be taken to ensure that the
A. width to height relationships are
appropriate.
B. entire embrasure is filled.
C. restoration does not extend subgingivally.
D. enamel is reduced 0.3 to 0.5mm prior to
etching.

Back 8

A

Front 9

C-factor (configuration factor) is defined as the
ratio of
A. width to height in the upper anterior teeth.
B. mercury to alloy in a dental amalgam.
C. bonded to unbonded surfaces in a
preparation.
D. filler to monomer in a composite resin

Back 9

C

Front 10

A common filler added to resin to produce
dental composites is
A. calcium salt.
B. quartz.
C. zinc oxide

Back 10

B

Front 11

A previously well-controlled periodontal
patient now demonstrates the presence of
bleeding in 60% of sites and significantly
increased probing depths. The patient has most
likely developed
A. diabetes mellitus.
B. hyperchromatosis.
C. osteoporosis.
D. hypercalcemia

Back 11

A

Front 12

Which of the following bacterial components is
considered to be of key importance in initiating
and sustaining inflammatory responses in
gingiva and other periodontal tissues?
A. Fimbriae.
B. Capsule.
C. Lipopolysaccharides.
D. Flagella.

Back 12

C

Front 13

A 50 year old edentulous patient is complaining that spicy foods are no longer enjoyable since he
received his new complete upper and lower dentures. The most likely reason for this occurrence is that the
A. dentures cover his taste buds.
B. free nerve endings are now covered by the dentures.
C. dentures are obstructing air flow to the olfactory epithelium.

Back 13

probably C

Front 14

Which of the following characteristics is NOT
seen in all patients with aggressive
periodontitis?
A. Rapid attachment loss and bone
destruction.
B. Amount of microbial deposits inconsistent
with disease severity.
C. Diseased sites infected with
Aggregatibacter (Actinobacillus)
actinomycetemcomitans.
D. Familial aggregation of diseased
individuals.

Back 14

C

Front 15

Which of the following has a direct effect on
periodontal tissues in diabetes mellitusassociated gingivitis?
A. Lipopolysaccharides.
B. Matrix metalloproteinases.
C. Proinflammatory cytokines.
D. Prostaglandins.
E. Leukotoxin

Back 15

probably B

Front 16

During rapid head movement, that occurs on activities such as running, the mandible is held in place due to activation of
A. temporomandibular proprioceptors.
B. fast adapting periodontal pressoreceptors.
C. slow adapting periodontal pressoreceptors.
D. primary muscle spindle fibres

Back 16

D

Front 17

Hypernatremia may be induced by
A. elevated synthesis of atrial natriuretic peptide.
B. excessive vasopressin secretion.
C. impaired aldosterone secretion.
D. diabetes insipidus

Back 17

D

Front 18

Which of the following would NOT be
expected to cause hypokalemia?
A. Metabolic acidosis.
B. Lactate accumulation.
C. Increased plasma insulin.
D. Excess aldosterone secretion.
E. Beta-adrenergic stimulation of cells

Back 18

probably A

Front 19

Dietary consumption of which of the following
inhibits the cytochrome P450 system?
A. Meat.
B. Broccoli.
C. Decaffeinated tea.
D. Grapefruit juice

Back 19

D

Front 20

A hereditary condition affecting odontoblasts
can result in
A. regional odontodysplasia.
B. fusion or gemination.
C. dilaceration.
D. hypercementosis.
E. radicular dentin dysplasia

Back 20

E

Front 21

Biopsy of a recent solitary painless ulcer on the
lip in a 20 year old patient shows the presence
of Treponema pallidum. The ulcer is called (a)
A. lupus vulgaris.
B. facies leprosa.
C. chancre.
D. noma

Back 21

C

Front 22

The sensation of sour is mediated by
A. transducin.
B. protons blocking K+ channels.
C. gustducin.
D. activation of T1R3 receptors

Back 22

B

Front 23

Which of the following is NOT used to inhibit
calcification of plaque?
A. Fluoride.
B. Magnesium.
C. Pyrophosphate.
D. Zinc

Back 23

B

Front 24

The most common permanent teeth to be
transposed are the
A. mandibular incisor and mandibular canine.
B. mandibular canine and mandibular first
premolar.
C. maxillary upper lateral incisor and
maxillary canine.
D. maxillary canine and maxillary first
premolar.

Back 24

D

1 In the maxilla, where transposition is more often encountered, the canine is most frequently transposed with the first premolar (Figure 1) followed by the lateral incisor.2 Interestingly, in the mandible, only canine-lateral incisor transpositions occur, with a majority being unilateral.3 There is a high incidence of congenitally absent teeth, peg-shaped lateral incisors, and/or supernumerary teeth associated with transposition, suggesting a genetic influence

Front 25

The permanent teeth most frequently to become
ankylosed are
A. canines.
B. incisors.
C. molars.
D. premolars.

Back 25

C

Front 26

A patient wants to reduce her caries risk and
asks her dentist to recommend an alternate
sweetener that can be used in baking. Which of
the following should NOT be recommended?
A. Equal® (aspartame).
B. Splenda® (sucralose).
C. Sugar Twin® (sodium cyclamate).
D. Xyla® (xylitol).

Back 26

A

Front 27

Diagnosis of periapical periodontitis
A. requires presence of a periapical
radiolucency.
B. is dependent on clinical signs and/or
symptoms.
C. can be made from panoramic images.
D. can be made from bitewing images.

Back 27

B

Front 28

A 35 year old female patient has multiple
petechial hemorrhages of the palatal mucosa
and ecchymoses of the right and left buccal
mucosae. Which of the following is the most
likely laboratory finding?
A. Anemia.
B. Prolonged PTT.
C. Elevated INR.
D. Thrombocytopenia.

Back 28

D

Front 29

Residual root tips will not be visible on
pantomographic images of completely
endentulous patients if
A. they are not close enough to the centre of
the image layer (focal trough) of the
panoramic machine.
B. the patient is wearing dentures when the
image is produced.
C. a digital panoramic machine is used.
D. the patient moves during production of the
image.

Back 29

A

Focal trough is 3 dimensional zone in which structures are well defined. Structures anterior to focal trough are blurred and diminished and posterior to focal trough are blurred and magnified.

Front 30

A patient has been receiving dental treatment
over a period of 1 year. A root canal treatment
has recently been started but not completed
when she declares that her husband has lost his
job and she is not able to pay the balance of the
fee assessed for her root canal treatment. She is
presently free of pain. The dentist can terminate
treatment
A. only after completion of the root canal
treatment.
B. for failure to honor financial commitments.
C. until the patient is able to pay for it.
D. only after completion of the root canal
treatment and a full crown restoration.
E. by referring the patient to an endodontist.

Back 30

probably C

Front 31

A 50 year old female reports having
intravenously administered bisphosphonate for
the past 3 years. She now has an area of
exposed necrotic bone with sharp edges in an
edentulous maxilla. The most appropriate
management is to perform
A. minimal surgical debridement
immediately.
B. aggressive surgical debridement
immediately.
C. minimal surgical debridement after
delaying 3 months.
D. aggressive surgical debridement after
delaying 3 months

Back 31

A

Front 32

Which of the following statements about
fats/lipids is correct?
A. Naturally occurring trans fats have been
confirmed to increase disease risk.
B. LDL-cholesterol is found in foods of only
animal origin.
C. Most of the cholesterol circulating in the
human body is synthesized by the body.
D. The essential fatty acids are only the
omega-3 fats

Back 32

C

Front 33

What is the appropriate film size for taking an
occlusal radiograph in a 3 year old patient?
A. 0.
B. 1.
C. 2.
D. 4.

Back 33

C

Front 34

The appropriate vertical angulation for a
bitewing radiograph in the primary dentition is
A. – 10º.
B. – 5º.
C. 0º.
D. + 5º.
E. + 10º

Back 34

E

Front 35

The percentage of documented child abuse
cases estimated to involve orofacial injuries is
A. 10-20.
B. 30-40.
C. 50-60

Back 35

C

Front 36

What percentage of natal teeth are
supernumerary?
A. 10.
B. 50.
C. 90.

Back 36

A

Front 37

The most appropriate recall interval for an 8
year old patient with high caries risk is
A. 3 months.
B. 6 months.
C. 9 months.
D. 12 months

Back 37

A

Front 38

In the Vita® Classical Shade Guide, the hue of
the D shade series is
A. red.
B. grey.
C. yellow.
D. brown

Back 38

shade D .

(ans A)

Front 39

In the Vita® Classical Shade Guide, the hue of
the A shade series is
A. red.
B. grey.
C. yellow.
D. brown

Back 39

shade A.

(ans B)

Front 40

Which of the following statements is true
regarding the radiographic appearance of
furcation involvements?
A. A definitive diagnosis can be made from a
radiograph.
B. Bone loss is greater than it appears on a
radiograph.
C. They are best evaluated with periapical
radiographs.
D. Furcation involvements cannot be seen on
radiographs

Back 40

B

Front 41

Which of the following impression materials
will still result in an accurate cast when poured
two weeks after making the impression?
A. Polyether.
B. Polysulfide.
C. Addition silicone.
D. Condensation silicone

Back 41

C

Front 42

Which of the following drugs inhibits salivary flow?
A. Alendronate.
B. Pilocarpine.
C. Glycopyrrolate.
D. Nystatin

Back 42

C!

(glycopyrrolate is similar to atropine

Pilocarpine is a drug used to treat dry mouth and glaucoma)

Front 43

Which of the following drugs inhibits salivary
flow?
A. Penicillin V.
B. Loratadine.
C. Probantheline.
D. Nystatin.

Back 43

C

antimuscarinic agent used for the treatment of excessive salivation, sweating (hyperhidrosis), cramps or spasms of the stomach, intestines (gut) or bladder, and involuntary urination (enuresis)

Front 44

The percent of elderly persons known to
colonize asymptomatic C. difficile in the gut is
typically in a range of up to
A. 3%.
B. 10%.
C. 30%.
D. 50%

Back 44

C

Front 45

Which of the following statements regarding
physiologic changes in an elderly patient is
NOT correct?
A. Reduced gastric emptying can lead to a
decrease in drug absorption.
B. Renal blood flow is decreased.
C. Lipid soluble drugs remain in the body for
a longer period of time.
D. Relative tissue perfusion is unaltered

Back 45

D

Front 46

Which of the following analgesics is
CONTRAINDICATED for a 76 year old
patient with angina?
A. Acetaminophen.
B. Ibuprofen.
C. Codeine.
D. Tramadol

Back 46

D?

Front 47

Which of the following statements regarding
geriatric patients is correct?
A. Drugs that primarily depend on pulmonary
excretion for elimination should be
prescribed in smaller doses or at greater
time intervals.
B. Multiple drug ingestion is less likely to
result in toxicity due to inhibition of
biotransformation.
C. Multiple drug use predisposes the elderly
to multiple side effects that may impact on
their oral health.

Back 47

C

Front 48

An 89 year old patient has rampant caries
secondary to vestibular food pocketing. The
LEAST likely predisposing disease is
A. Parkinson’s.
B. Lewy body dementia.
C. Alzheimer’s.
D. Addison’s.

Back 48

D

у них с головой впорядке

Front 49

Which of the following drugs is
CONTRAINDICATED in patients with Long
QT syndrome?
A. Azithromycin.
B. Clotrimazole.
C. Diazepam.
D. Acyclovir.

Back 49

A

Front 50

The CNS depressant effects of midazolam
(Versed®) are reversed by the administration
of
A. diphenhydramine.
B. flumazenil.
C. naloxone.
D. ranitidine

Back 50

B

Front 51

After latex gloves have been put on, washing
the gloved hands with an antimicrobial soap
A. adds a further layer of safety to barrier
protection.
B. is unnecessary but acceptable practice.
C. can compromise the integrity of the glove.
D. should be done if a surgical procedure is
planned

Back 51

C

Front 52

Infections transmitted in dental offices have
been documented
A. at a rate comparable to health care
associated infections in hospitals.
B. occasionally, primarily with hepatitis B.
C. with equal frequency for viruses and
bacteria.
D. primarily in offices, which do not control
bacterial levels in water from dental units

Back 52

B

Front 53

The metabolic clearance of which of the
following drugs is NOT reduced in an elderly
patient?
A. Carbamazepine.
B. Warfarin.
C. Morphine.
D. Clindamycin

Back 53

D

Front 54

Which of the following drugs can be
administered to manage pain following the
acute onset of a migraine?
A. Amitriptyline.
B. Nifedipine.
C. Propranolol.
D. Sumatriptan

Back 54

D

Front 55

Which of the following statements regarding
physiologic changes in an elderly patient is
correct?
A. Creatinine production is reduced.
B. Plasma albumin is increased.
C. Relative tissue perfusion is unaltered.

Back 55

A

Creatinine production ↓ with age

Front 56

What is the most common intraoral location of
squamous cell carcinoma?

A. Lateral tongue.
B. Buccal mucosa.
C. Tonsilar bed.
D. Attached gingiva.

Back 56

A

Front 57

A 20 year old has a solitary radiolucent lesion
in the left maxillary tuberosity. The histologic
diagnosis is an odontogenic
keratocyst/keratogenic odontogenic tumour.
What is the recurrence rate of this tumour?
A. It does not recur.
B. 10-30%.
C. 40-60%.
D. 70-90%

Back 57

B

Front 58

A 74 year old patient being treated for
hypertension requires deep scaling using local
anesthesia. It is appropriate to defer treatment
if the patient’s blood pressure is equal to or
above
A. 120/80.
B. 140/90.
C. 160/110.
D. 180/110

Back 58

C

Front 59

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be
associated with fissured tongue?
A. Oral lichen planus.
B. Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome.
C. Geographic tongue

Back 59

A

Front 60

Which of the following is LEAST likely to share histological features with lichen planus?
A. White sponge nevus.
B. Oral mucosal cinnamon reaction.
C. Oral graft-versus-host disease.
D. Lupus erythematosus

Back 60

A

Front 61

The palatine tonsils are found
A. surfacing the posterior third of tongue
dorsum.
B. between the palatoglossal and
palatopharyngeal arches.
C. on the posterior wall of the nasopharynx.
D. on the bilateral lateral ventral aspects of
the tongue.

Back 61

B

Front 62

A 10 year old girl has poorly formed, distorted permanent right maxillary canine, lateral and central incisors. The remaining teeth and supporting structures are unremarkable. The patient most likely has
A. ectodermal dysplasia.
B. segmental odontomaxillary dysplasia.
C. radicular dentin dysplasia.
D. regional odontodysplasia.
E. coronal dentin dysplasia.

Back 62

D

Front 63

When a tooth is completely impacted in bone and is never removed, what is the LEAST likely sequela?
A. Development of a dentigerous/follicular cyst around its crown.
B. External resorption of the tooth.
C. Osteonecrosis of the adjacent bone.
D. Development of a benign neoplasm adjacent to its crown.

Back 63

C

Front 64

On periapical radiographs, the lamina dura
A. is less evident around teeth in heavy occlusion.
B. may not be discernible around the roots of normal teeth.
C. is absent around the tooth roots of patients with chronic periodontitis.
D. is thicker in patients with hyperparathyroidism

Back 64

B

Front 65

A strong association exists between the
presence of fissured tongue and the presence of
A. geographic tongue.
B. hairy tongue.
C. lingual varicosities.
D. median rhomboid glossitis

Back 65

A

Front 66

A tissue-level implant should be used when
A. the edentulous site is in the esthetic zone.
B. platform switching is desired.
C. a 2-stage surgical approach is planned.
D. ease for oral hygiene is desired to preserve
crestal bone.

Back 66

D

Front 67

Crestal bone loss around implant prior occlusal loading is more significantly associated with
a. smooth collars
b. roughened collars
c. internal connections
d. external connections

Back 67

A

Front 68

Patients who are positive for the interleukin-1 (IL-1)
A. are at increased risk for severe periodontal disease.
B. have a decreased inflammatory response in the presence of bacteria.
C. are more likely to respond favourably to periodontal therapy.
D. have decreased bacterial pathogens associated with active periodontal disease

Back 68

A!

запомнить

Front 69

Which of the following is most radiopaque?
A. Calcifying odontogenic cyst.
B. Fibrous dysplasia of bone.
C. Ameloblastoma.
D. Complex composite odontoma

Back 69

D

Front 70

Bone tissue grows by
A. interstitial growth.
B. osteoclastic activity.
C. proliferation of endodermal tissue.
D. differentiation of cartilaginous tissue

Back 70

D

Front 71

Destruction of bone in periodontal disease
occurs
A. continuously.
B. in cycles lasting for about 3~months.
C. in random cycles.
D. None of the above

Back 71

C

Front 72

A radiographic term used to describe the dense
bone image of the socket and septal crest is
A. periodontal ligament space.
B. cancellous bone.
C. cribriform plate.
D. lamina dura.
E. cortical bone

Back 72

D

Front 73

The tooth surfaces LEAST susceptible to caries
are
A. mesial of the maxillary arch.
B. lingual of the mandibular arch.
C. distal of the maxillary arch.
D. occlusal of the mandibular arch.
E. lingual of the maxillary arch

Back 73

B

Front 74

The modulus of elasticity of a material is
determined by
A. dividing stress by strain below elastic
limit.
B. dividing strain by stress.
C. multiplying proportional limit by strain.
D. squaring proportional limit and dividing
by strain.

Back 74

A

Front 75

Which impression material can be stored for
more than 24 hours before being poured and
still produce accurate dies?
A. Polysulfide.
B. Condensation reaction silicone.
C. Reversible hydrocolloid.
D. Polyvinylsiloxane.
E. Irreversible hydrocolloid

Back 75

D

Front 76

A 72 year old male patient complains of bone
pain, fever and fatigue. Clinical examination
shows petechiae on the skin and oral mucosa.
The tongue has a nodular appearance. A
craniofacial radiograph shows punched-out
radiolucencies. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Burkitt’s lymphoma.
B. chondrosarcoma.
C. acute lymphocytic leukemia.
D. multiple myeloma

Back 76

D

Front 77

Enamel hypoplasia, blunted roots and abnormal
dentin are indicative of
A. hyperparathyroidism.
B. hyperthyroidism.
C. hypoparathyroidism.
D. hypothyroidism

Back 77

C

When hypoparathyroidism occurs in children,
it may cause hypoplasia of enamel and dentin, underdevelopment of the roots of forming
teeth, and delayed eruption

Front 78

A 22 year old patient has been experiencing
general malaise, fever, sore throat and
coughing for one week. There are multiple
ulcerations of the oral mucosa, crusting of the
lips and red circular lesions on the palms of the
hands. The most likely diagnosis is
A. gonorrhea.
B. infectious mononucleosis.
C. acute herpetic gingivostomatitis.
D. AIDS.
E. erythema multiforme

Back 78

E

Front 79

Ceramics used in dentistry exhibit
A. greater strength in tension than compression.
B. a tendency for tensile fracture.
C. chemical instability.
D. high thermal coefficients of expansion

Back 79

B

Front 80

An anterior bite plane will NOT result in
A. decrease of the freeway space.
B. increase of the freeway space.
C. increase of the vertical dimension.
D. extrusion of the posterior teeth.
E. downward and backward mandibular
rotation.

Back 80

B

freeway space will be decreased due to extrusion of posterior teeth

Front 81

Guided tissue regeneration is a surgical
procedure to
A. repair non-mineralized connective tissue.
B. repair cemental defects.
C. regenerate long junctional epithelial
attachment.
D. regenerate the periodontium.

Back 81

D

Front 82

In the initiation of dental caries, lactobacilli are
A. capable of surviving without nutrients.
B. abundant in calculus.
C. both acidogenic and aciduric.
D. the only acid-forming bacteria in the mouth

Back 82

C

Front 83

The rate of set of alginate impression materials
can be increased by
A. increasing the water/powder ratio.
B. increasing the temperature of the mixing water.
C. adding sodium phosphate to the mixing water.
D. decreasing the amount of mixing

Back 83

B

(sodium phosphate- retarder)

Front 84

Idiopathic osteosclerosis is
A. painful.
B. found mostly in the maxilla.
C. radiolucent.
D. nonexpansile

Back 84

D

Front 85

The most appropriate management of a painless
ulcer of two months duration affecting the
lateral border of the tongue is to
A. prescribe systemic antibiotics.
B. perform an incisional biopsy.
C. re-evaluate in 6 months.
D. obtain a complete blood count.
E. obtain a cytologic smear

Back 85

B

Front 86

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the mechanical propertiesof composite resin?
A. Modulus of elasticity of the filler particles.
B. Weight fraction of the filler particles.
C. Volume fraction of filler particles.
D. Hardness of filler particles.
E. Size of the filler particles

Back 86

?

Front 87

The orifice to the fourth canal in a permanent
maxillary first molar is most often found
A. under the distobuccal cusp.
B. lingual to the orifice of the mesiobuccal
canal.
C. between the distobuccal and the
mesiobuccal orifices.
D. between the palatal and the distobuccal
orifices

Back 87

B

Front 88

In gingivitis, the initial cellular immune
response predominantly involves
A. T lymphocytes.
B. B lymphocytes.
C. neutrophils.
D. plasma cells

Back 88

C

Front 89

A functional parathyroid adenoma would most
likely result in
A. generalized loss of lamina dura.
B. nervousness, exophthalmos and heat
intolerance.
C. an increased caries rate.
D. multiple recurrent periodontal abscesse

Back 89

A

Front 90

What is the most likely cause of voids in a
maxillary diagnostic cast?
A. Poor mix of the impression material,
incorporating air into the material.
B. Formation of saliva droplets on the palate
while the impression is setting.
C. Poor mix of the stone.
D. Too high a water:powder ratio of the stone.
E. Poor flow of the impression material.

Back 90

probably D

Front 91

Which clinical sign indicates palatal impaction
of the permanent maxillary canines?
A. Buccally positioned first premolars.
B. Early exfoliation of primary canines.
C. Midline central diastema.
D. Lack of canine labial bulges in a 10 year
old patient.

Back 91

D

Front 92

Which porcelain stain colour is added to give
the appearance of translucency?
A. Grey.
B. Blue.
C. Yellow.
D. White.
E. Orange

Back 92

B

Front 93

A patient presents with red patches bounded by
grayish-white lines on the lateral border of the
tongue. The papillae appear to be absent from
the red areas. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Benign migratory glossitis.
B. Kaposi’s sarcoma.
C. Leukoplakia.
D. Lichen planus

Back 93

A

Benign migratory glossitis-geographic tongue

Front 94

Sclerotic dentin
A. has a high permeability.
B. is non-reactive to external stimuli.
C. results from the collapse of collagen fibers.
D. has an opaque appearance

Back 94

probably B

Front 95

The statute of limitations states that the period
during which an action in negligence against a
dentist can be initiated starts when the
A. patient first meets the dentist.
B. treatment is rendered.
C. treatment is paid for.
D. patient first becomes aware of the problem.
E. patient seeks a second opinion about the problem

Back 95

D

Front 96

Which of the following increases the risk for
bronchospasm in asthmatic patients?
A. Prednisone.
B. Ibuprofen.
C. Lidocaine.
D. Nitrous oxide.
E. Oxycodone

Back 96

B

Front 97

The most likely diagnosis for a patient with an
interincisal opening of 30mm before feeling
pain and a maximum opening of 44mm with
pain is
A. internal derangement of the TMJ with
reduction.
B. internal derangement of the TMJ without
reduction.
C. tetani of the masticatory muscles.
D. subluxation of the TMJ.
E. myofascial pain

Back 97

B?

Front 98

For a patient taking warfarin, which laboratory
test provides the most accurate information on
coagulation time?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time.
B. Ivy bleeding time.
C. Platelet count.
D. INR.
E. Thrombin time

Back 98

D

Front 99

384-4-2014
Intraosseous nutrient canals are most frequently
seen on which of the following radiographs?
A. Mandibular posterior periapical.
B. Mandibular anterior periapical.
C. Maxillary posterior periapical.
D. Maxillary anterior periapical

Back 99

A

Front 100

The Periodontal Screening and Recording
System (PSR®) is designed to
A. document the progression of periodontitis.
B. assess the periodontal status of a patient.
C. measure loss of attachment for large
patient populations.
D. evaluate oral hygiene

Back 100

B