Uk Nppl Air Law

Front 1

VFR: min visibility in class F/ G below 3000ft QNH, 140kts

Back 1

1500ft, clear of cloud, in sight of surface

Front 2

VFR: min visibility in class F/ G below 3000ft, 250kts

Back 2

5km, clear of cloud, in sight of surface

Front 3

VFR: min visibility class F/G 3000ft QNH - FL100

Back 3

5km, in sight of surface, 1500m from cloud horizontally, 1000ft vertically

Front 4

VFR: max speed below FL100

Back 4

250kts

Front 5

VFR: min visibility above FL100

Back 5

8km, 1500m from cloud horizontally, 1000ft vertically, in sight of surface

Front 6

NPPL: SVFR min visiblity

Back 6

10km, clear of cloud, in sight of surface

Front 7

NPPL: VFR min visibility

Back 7

3km, clear of cloud, in sight of surface

Front 8

VFR: min visibility class B-E below 3000ft

Back 8

5km, clear of cloud, in sight of surface

Front 9

Microlight: stall speed

Back 9

<=35kts (or restricted by wing loading)

Front 10

Microlight: wing loading

Back 10

<=25kg/m^2 (or restricted by stall speed)

Front 11

Microlight: MTWA landplane

Back 11

450 kg dual seat
300 kg single seat

Front 12

Microlight: MTWA seaplane

Back 12

495kg dual seat
330kg single seat

Front 13

Microlight: typical pitch/ roll limits

Back 13

60 degree bank
pitch down 45 degrees
pitch up 35 degrees

Front 14

SSDR: wing loading

Back 14

<=10kg/m^2

Front 15

SSDR: max weight

Back 15

115kg airframe + fuel + pilot
300kg MAUW?

Front 16

Class 1/2 medical: validity if issued 50-69 year old

Back 16

12 months

Front 17

Class 1/2 medical: validity if issued to >=70 yo

Back 17

6 months

Front 18

Period of illness after which CAA must be notified

Back 18

21 days

Front 19

NPPL: valid medical types

Back 19

JAR Class 1 or 2 medical or
medical declaration (cosigned by pilot's GP)

Front 20

Class 1/2 medical: validity if issued to under 40yo

Back 20

5 years

Front 21

Class 1/2 medical: validity if issed to 40-49yo

Back 21

2 years

Front 22

NPPL medical declaration: revalidation if issued at age &lt;=40

Back 22

Until 45th birthday (or min 5 years)

Front 23

NPPL: medical declaration: revalidation if issued at age 40&lt;=x&lt;=59

Back 23

5 years

Front 24

NPPL: medical declaration: revalidation if issued at age 60&lt;=x&lt;=63

Back 24

until 65th birthday

Front 25

NPPL: medical declaration: revalidation if issued at age >64

Back 25

12 months

Front 26

NPPL: min age for recording training

Back 26

14yo

Front 27

NPPL: min age for solo

Back 27

16yo

Front 28

NPPL: min age for license

Back 28

17yo

Front 29

NPPL: Certificate of Experience/ currency requirements

Back 29

* 12 hrs in 24 months (6 in final 12 mo)
* 12 to/ldg
* 1 hr with instructor (else single SEAT only)
* Signed off by instructor
* Must be revalidated within 24 months of previous certificate of experience or certificate of test (not date license issued)

Front 30

NPPL: Passenger carrying requirements

Back 30

3 to/ ldg in previous 90 days
Restricted license: min 10 hrs P1

Front 31

NPPL(M) training requirements

Back 31

25hrs logged
10 hrs P1 (GST not counting)
5 hrs nav training
3 hrs P1 nav (including QCC) QCC: 2x 40nm flight with 15nm outlanding
GST
5 exams

Front 32

NPPL(M) restricted: training requirements

Back 32

15hrs logged time
7 hrs P1 (GST not counting)
5 exams
P1 and exams within 9 months of application

Front 33

NPPL(M): restricted: restrictions

Back 33

visibility 10km
surface wind&lt;15kts
cloudbase >=1000ft over lz & route
max 8nm from aerodrome
no passengers until 10 hrs P1 & 25hrs total (and signed off by examiner)

Front 34

NPPL(PP): training requirements

Back 34

15 hrs total time
6 hrs P1
25 to/ full stop landings (6 as P1)
5 hrs nav training
3 hrs solo nav incl QCC
QCC:2* 25nm with 10mn outlanding
GST
5 exams

Front 35

NPPL: license lifetime

Back 35

For life

Front 36

What is a CTR

Back 36

“Control Zone” controlled airspace from surface to alt/ fl

Front 37

What is a CTA

Back 37

“Control Area” controlled aispace from alt/ fl to alt/fl

Front 38

What is a TMA

Back 38

“Terminal Control Area” controlled airspace from alt/fl to alt/fl covering several aerodromes

Front 39

What is an Airway

Back 39

Controlled airspace corridor 10nm wide

Front 40

What is an advisory route

Back 40

Class F corridor 10nm wide

Front 41

What is an ATZ

Back 41

“Aerodrome traffic Zone” (Rule 39) extends sfc-2000ft aal
rwy &lt;=1850m = radius 2nm; else radius 2.5nm

Front 42

What is a MATZ

Back 42

“Military ATZ” advisory area
5nm diameter sfc-3000ft aal
stubs: 5nm long 4nm wide, 1000-3000ft aal
The ATZ within is of standard dimensions

Front 43

What is a CMATZ

Back 43

Combined MATZ.
Altitude base is highest aerodrome in group
Altimeter usually QFE

Front 44

What are NOTAM

Back 44

Notices to Airmen Notice of temporary changes/ events/ navigation hazards

Front 45

Which section is AIC: Administrative

Back 45

White

Front 46

Which section is AIC: Operational

Back 46

Yellow

Front 47

Which section is AIC Safety

Back 47

Pink

Front 48

Which section is AIC: Airspace restrictions

Back 48

Mauve

Front 49

Which section is AIC: Maps

Back 49

Green

Front 50

Frequency of AIC publication

Back 50

28 days/ 4 weeks

Front 51

What is the AIP?

Back 51

Aeronautical Information Package, provides detailed information about operating aircraft in UK airspace. Includes information on aerodromes, procedures, en-route hazards, etc.

Front 52

What is an AIC?

Back 52

Aeronautical Information Circular. Originated by the CAA provide administrative and operational details outside the scope of NOTAM.

Front 53

SVFR: overflight of congested area

Back 53

Absolved from 1000ft/600m rule.
Must still be able to glide clear

Front 54

VFR: closest approach rule

Back 54

500ft (slant) to persons vehicles vessels and structures; except for landing, slope soaring in gliders, or with permission

Front 55

VFR: overflight of congested area

Back 55

1000ft above highest structure within 600m
Glide clear in event of engine failure

Front 56

VFR: exceptions to the 500ft rule

Back 56

* Taking off and landing
* Gliders while slope soaring
* Performance at a display where appropriate permission has been obtained

Front 57

VFR: exceptions to the 1000ft/ 600m rule

Back 57

* Taking off and landing
* Flying on an authorized SVFR route

Front 58

VMC: flying near an assembly of >=1000 people

Back 58

* Do not overfly below 1000ft
* Be able to glide clear
* Do not take off or land within 1000m except: a. at an aerodrome b. or with permission from the event organizer

Front 59

Where does military flying take place?

Back 59

Over the whole uk between sfc—2000ft
Mostly between 250—500ft agl

Front 60

Altimeter setting for cross-country flying in class F/G

Back 60

QNH

Front 61

Altimeter setting for local circuits

Back 61

QFE (or QNH)

Front 62

Altimeter setting above transition level

Back 62

Standard pressure setting 1013.2mb

Front 63

Altimeter setting flying below controlled airspace

Back 63

if base is alti, then QNH
if base is FL, then standard setting

Front 64

Altimeter setting within CMATZ

Back 64

QFE of highest in group

Front 65

Altitude change for 1mb drop of air pressure

Back 65

30ft (10m) rise

Front 66

Normal transition altitude

Back 66

3000ft QNH

Front 67

Transition level when QNH=990mb

Back 67

FL40

Front 68

What is the transition layer

Back 68

Region between the transition altitude (typ 3000ft) and the transition level.

Front 69

Light signal: Red pyro light or flare from ground to aircraft in flight

Back 69

Light signal: from ATC to aircraft in flight for: Do not land; await permission

Front 70

Light signal: Steady red light from ground to aircraft in flight

Back 70

Light signal: from ATC to acft in flight for: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

Front 71

Light signal: red flashing from ground to aircraft in flight

Back 71

Light signal: from ATC to acft in flight for: Do not land; aerodrome unavailable for landing

Front 72

Light signal: flashing green from ground to aircraft in flight

Back 72

Light signal: from ATC to acft in flight for: Return to aerodrome; await permission to land

Front 73

Light signal: steady green from ground to aircraft in flight

Back 73

Light signal: from ATC to acft in flight for: You may land

Front 74

Light signal: Steady red light from ground to aircraft on ground

Back 74

Stop

Front 75

Light signal: red flashing from ground to aircraft on ground

Back 75

Light signal: from ATC to acft on ground for: Move clear of the landing area

Front 76

Light signal: flashing green from ground to aircraft on ground

Back 76

Light signal: from ATC to acft on ground for: You may move onto the manouvering area/ apron

Front 77

Light signal: flashing green from ground to vehicle on ground

Back 77

Light signal: from ATC to vehicle on ground for: You may move onto the manouvering area

Front 78

Light signal: steady green from ground to aircraft on ground

Back 78

Light signal: from ATC to acft on ground for: You may take off

Front 79

Light signal: flashing white from ground to aircraft on ground

Back 79

Light signal: from ATC to acft on ground for: Return to starting point on the aerodrome

Front 80

Light signal: flashing white from ground to aircraft in flight

Back 80

Light signal: from ATC to acft in flight for: Land after receiving steady green then, after receiving green flashes move to apron

Front 81

Flare signal: aircraft in flight requesting immediate assistance

Back 81

Flare signal: red pyro light or red flare from aircraft in flight to ground

Front 82

Light signal: aircraft in flight requesting permission to land against landing T by day

Back 82

Light signal: green (steady, flashing or flare) from aircraft in flight to ground

Front 83

Light signal: aircraft in flight requesting permission to land at night

Back 83

Light signal: green (steady, flashing or flare) from aircraft in flight to ground

Front 84

Light signal: aircraft in flight compelled to land

Back 84

Light signal: white (steady, flashing or flare) or irregular flashing of nav lights from aircraft in flight to ground

Front 85

Signals area: yellow cross on a red background

Back 85

Signals area: aerodrome unsafe, landing prohibited

Front 86

Signals area: yellow diagonal on a red background

Back 86

Signals area: maneuvering area poor, take care on landing

Front 87

Signals area: white dumb-bell

Back 87

Signals area: movement of aircraft and gliders to be confined to hard surface at all times

Front 88

Signals area: white dumb-bell with black strips

Back 88

Signals area: landing of aircraft and gliders to be confined to hard surfaces, ground movement not restricted

Front 89

Signals area: red and yellow striped right hand arrow

Back 89

Signals area: right hand circuit in force

Front 90

Aerodrome flag: rectangular green flag

Back 90

Aerodrome flag: right hand circuit in force

Front 91

Signals area: Double white cross

Back 91

Signals area: gliding in progress

Front 92

Aerodrome mast: two red balls

Back 92

Aerodrome mast: gliding in progress

Front 93

Aerodrome marking: yellow cross

Back 93

Aerodrome marking: tow rope dropping area

Front 94

Signals area: White T

Back 94

Signals area: Land on rwy towards cross of T

Front 95

Signals area: White T with white disk at top

Back 95

Signals area: landing and takeoff directions may differ

Front 96

Aerodrome mast: One black ball

Back 96

Aerodrome mast: landing and takeoff directions may differ

Front 97

Aerodrome marking: area for take off/ landing of light aircraft only

Back 97

Aerodrome marking: White L

Front 98

Signals area: White dumbbell with red L

Back 98

Signals area: light aircraft can use runways designated by white L

Front 99

Signals area: White H

Back 99

Signals area: Helicopters to use area designated by white H

Front 100

Aerodrome markings: orange and white section/ slats/ flags

Back 100

Aerodrome marking: limit of serviceable areas

Front 101

Mil/ dcom aerodrome marking: Red L in signal square

Back 101

Mil/ dcom aerodrome marking: Light aircraft to use area marked by white corner markers

Front 102

Mil/ dcom aerodrome marking: White X at end of runway

Back 102

Mil/ dcom aerodrome marking: landing is dangerous

Front 103

Mil/ dcom aerodrome marking: White X with bar at end of runway

Back 103

Mil/ dcom aerodrome marking: land in emergency only

Front 104

Mil/ dcom aerodrome marking: yellow and black triangular sections

Back 104

Mil/ dcom aerodrome marking: areas unservicable due to bad ground, works, vehicles or other obstructions

Front 105

Mil/ dcom aerodrome marking: two yellow stripes on a red background

Back 105

Mil/ dcom aerodrome marking: manouvering area servicable but normal facilities not available

Front 106

Aerodrome mast: red flag

Back 106

Aerodrome mast: Left hand circuit in force

Front 107

Aerodrome marking: yellow ladder across taxiway

Back 107

Aerodrome marking: IFR hold point; pass only with permission from ATC

Front 108

Aerodrome marking: dashed and solid lines across taxiway

Back 108

Aerodrome marking: hold point; do not cross dotted to solid without permission from ATC

Front 109

Aerodrome marking: White H

Back 109

Aerodrome marking: area for helicopter landing

Front 110

Signal area: black numbers on yellow background

Back 110

Signals area: numeric designation on runway in use

Front 111

Aerodrome mast: red/ yellow chequered flag

Back 111

Aerodrome mast: aircraft can only move on the apron and manouvering area with permission of ATC

Front 112

Aerodrome marking: black C on yellow background

Back 112

Aerodrome marking: reporting point

Front 113

Aerodrome marking: unserviceable area of runway/ taxiway

Back 113

Aerodrome markings: two or more white crosses at 45 degrees to centreline

Front 114

Aerodrome marking: What colour is a civilian aerodrome beacon?

Back 114

Aerodrome marking: Green/ white flashing light visible from air

Front 115

Documents to be carried on flight abroad

Back 115

*Radio installation licence
* Aircrafts CoA (PtF advised but not officially recognised)
* Pilots licence
* Aircraft registration certificate
* Interception procedures

Front 116

What details must be recorded in your pilots logbook?

Back 116

* Date of flight
* Type of aircraft
* Aircraft Registration
* Commander
* Holder's status if not PIC
* Place/ time of departure
* Place/ time of arrival
* Total time
* details of any particular activity

Front 117

Documents to be produced on demand for police constable, CAA enforcement officer or other person designated by Secretary of State.

Back 117

Who must these documents be produced on demand for?
* Pilots licence
* Flying log book
* Aircraft registration certificate
* Aircraft airworthiness docs

Front 118

How long must your pilots log book be kept for?

Back 118

2 years after last entry

Front 119

How long must an aircraft log book be kept for?

Back 119

Two years after it is officially withdrawn from use or destroyed

Front 120

Documents required for a microlight to operate legally

Back 120

*Certificate of registration
* Permit to Fly and current Certificate of Validity
* Noise certificate
(* Third party insurance + pilots licence)
(* A current chart for the intended route)

Front 121

Vertical limits of the Upper Information Region

Back 121

Which Information Region covers FL 245—FL660

Front 122

Max class with no radio or ATC clearance

Back 122

Class E

Front 123

Vertical limit of Scottish and London FIR?

Back 123

FL245

Front 124

Who has right of way, an aircraft on the runway that has just landed, or one landing

Back 124

The aircraft on the runway

Front 125

Who has right of way out of two aircraft approaching to land

Back 125

The lower aircraft

Front 126

When two aircraft are approaching head on, what action should be taken

Back 126

Both aircraft turn right

Front 127

When two aircraft are approaching acutely, what action should be taken?

Back 127

The aircraft on the left should turn to the right until it has the other aircraft on its left.

Front 128

In the air,how should one aircraft overtake another on the same level?

Back 128

Overtake on the right (taking right of way)

Front 129

On the ground,how should one aircraft overtake another?

Back 129

Overtake on the left (giving priority to the other aircraft)

Front 130

An aircraft and a vehicle meet on the ground; who has right of way?

Back 130

The aircraft

Front 131

If there is no designated runway, where should an aircraft land in relation to parked aircraft?

Back 131

On their right

Front 132

What is the order of priority of flying machines?

Back 132

Balloons>Gliders>Powered

Front 133

Who has priority, an aircraft on the ground or a vehicle towing an aircraft?

Back 133

The vehicle towing an aircraft

Front 134

What is the normal RT frequency to use for distress calls?

Back 134

121.5MHz (or the current frequency if changing frequency is dangerous)

Front 135

How may an aircraft indicate an emergency?

Back 135

* “Mayday”*3 on 121.5MHz or current freq
* “SOS” in Morse code visually
* Succession of single red pyros
* red parachute flare
* Continuous sound by any means

Front 136

How may an aircraft indicate an urgent situation?

Back 136

* “PAN PAN” *3 on 121.5 or current freq
* XXX in Morse visually
* XXX in Morse audibly

Front 137

When must an accident be reported?

Back 137

If, after any person enters the aircraft with the intention to fly:
* Anyone is killed or seriously injured whilst in the aircraft or in contact wth it
* The aircraft suffers damage that affects it's strength or performance
* The aircraft is missing or inaccessible
Except: engine failure, damage to props, wing tips, tyres, brakes, fairings, small dents and punctures to skin

Front 138

Who must report a serious accident with an aircraft and to whom?

Back 138

The pilot in command (or other responsible person if unavailable) to the Chief Inspector of the Department of Transport AAIB

Front 139

Within what time must damage to the aircraft be recorded in the logbook?

Back 139

Before the aircraft is next flown or the end of the day, whichever is sooner.

Front 140

How should an Airprox be reported?

Back 140

* Immediately to the nearest ATSU
* if not possible, via telephone to any ATSU or ATCC upon landing
* Confirmed in writing to JAB within 7 days.

Front 141

How much time must be given between drinking alcohol and flying?

Back 141

8 hours

Front 142

When can articles be dropped from an aircraft?

Back 142

Except for tow ropes and banners at designated sites, and ballast in the form of water or fine sand, only with the permission of the CAA

Front 143

What is an ATSU?

Back 143

Air Traffic Service Unit

Front 144

What is an ATCC

Back 144

Air Traffic Control Centre (for an ATZ)

Front 145

What is the apron?

Back 145

The airport ramp; where aircraft are stored and prepared for flight.

Front 146

What is the manouvering area?

Back 146

Taxiways and runways, but not the apron

Front 147

What is QFE

Back 147

Air pressure at aerodrome altitude, measured on the apron.

Front 148

Microlight: overflight of congested area

Back 148

Microlight overflight of congested area prohibited at any altitude (though currently normalized with VFR by ANO exception)

Front 149

What are AIP Supplements

Back 149

Changes to information contained in the AIP

Front 150

How often are AIP Supplements published

Back 150

Every 28 days

Front 151

What is the normal lifetime of an AIC

Back 151

5 years

Front 152

What is the ANO

Back 152

Air Navigation Order. A Statutory Instrument providing details of regulation and licensing of aircraft and pilots in the UK (last updated 2005)

Front 153

What are the Rules of the Air Regulation

Back 153

A Statutory Instrument detailing operational restrictions of aircraft in the UK

Front 154

What documentation is required for flying a foot-launched powered flying machine

Back 154

None.

Front 155

Where does the NPPL entitle you to fly

Back 155

UK airspace only

Front 156

NPPL: between what hours may you fly

Back 156

Official dawn (30 minutes before sunrise) to
Official night (30 minutes after sunrise).

Front 157

NPPL: What is required to convert from flying flexwing to 3 axis aircraft?

Back 157

Complete differences training and have this signed off by instructor in logbook.

Front 158

NPPL: when is flying for reward permitted

Back 158

Only when one is a qualified flying instructor charging for training, and both instructor and student are members of a flying club.

Front 159

When an aircraft is owned jointly, what is the smallest share permitted

Back 159

5% (or 20 owners)

Front 160

When is a medical certificate suspended

Back 160

* When the holder suffers personal injury or incapacity
* Following illness or incapacity lasting 21 days or more
* When they suspect they are pregnant.

Front 161

How much of a contribution towards a flight can be made by passengers?

Back 161

Up to 50% of the direct costs.

Front 162

Under what circumstances may a flight by carried out for charity

Back 162

* 100hrs P1, 10hrs on type
* Aircraft limitations as permit
* No passengers

Front 163

When must a transponder be carried

Back 163

* Flights above FL100
* Within a TMZ (transponder mandatory zone)

Front 164

What does transponder code 7700 mean

Back 164

Mayday; assistance required

Front 165

What does transponder code 7600 mean

Back 165

Radio failure

Front 166

What does transponder code 7500 mean

Back 166

Hijack

Front 167

What does transponder code 7000 mean

Back 167

Conspicuity code

Front 168

What does a FRTOL entitle the holder to

Back 168

Use of an aircraft radio installed in an aircraft

Front 169

What is the lifetime of a FRTOL

Back 169

The lifetime of the pilots license, to a maximum of 10 years.

Front 170

When is a Display Authorisation required from the CAA

Back 170

When an event is open and advertised to the public, however many people are expected

Front 171

How long is a Flight Instructor (FI) rating valid for

Back 171

25 months

Front 172

What requirements are made of a pilot wishing to hold an AFI rating

Back 172

* Must have held license for 8 months (not restricted by start of course)
* 100hrs P1 incl 60hrs in microlights

Front 173

What is an AFI NOT permitted to do

Back 173

* Authorize or brief students for their first solo or cross-country

Front 174

What information must be recorded in an aircraft's logbook

Back 174

flight operating hours, maintenance, engine operating hours, engine maintenance, modifications and work carried out

Front 175

Anti collision lights: colours and angles of visibility

Back 175

from dead ahead to 110* right: green
from dead ahead to 110* left: red
140* at rear (+/-70*): white

Front 176

When and how may munitions of war be carried

Back 176

* With CAA permission only
* Separate from passengers
* Unloaded

Front 177

When is it permissible to ignore ATC signals directed towards you

Back 177

When it is necessary for the sake of safety.