Step 2 Ck: Pearls

Front 1

Dx algorithm: presumed head and neck SCC of unknown origin

Back 1

Triple endoscopy: esophagoscopy, bronchoscopy, laryngoscopy

Front 2

Criteria for managing HBV with interferon/lamivudine

Back 2

Persistently elevated ALT with + HbSAg, HbeAg, and DNA

Front 3

Two key ventilator settings for ARDS

Back 3

Low TV, high PEEP

Front 4

Tx: hairy cell leukemia

Back 4

Cladribine

Front 5

Tx: NHL

Back 5

CHOP regimen

Front 6

Tx: CLL

Back 6

Chlorambucil + prednisone

Front 7

Which is the only type of restrictive heart disease that can be reversed with appropriate treatment?

Back 7

Hemochromatosis

Front 8

In which type of shock is cardiac index ELEVATED?

Back 8

Septic

Front 9

Which abx blocks ENaC, causing hyperkalemia?

Back 9

Trimethoprim

Front 10

Dx: teenage boy with nose bleeds, nasal mass

Back 10

Angiofibroma

Front 11

Classic patient with nasal septal pyogenic granulomas

Back 11

Pregnant ladies

Front 12

Mainstay of tx: IBD-induced toxic megacolon

Back 12

GCs

Front 13

Define: “salvage therapy”

Back 13

Treatment used when standard therapy fails

Front 14

Define: “adjuvant therapy”

Back 14

Therapy given at the same time as standard therapy

Front 15

Define: “consolidation therapy”

Back 15

Therapy given after induction therapy to further reduce tumor burden

Front 16

Define: “maintenance therapy”

Back 16

Therapy given after both induction and maintenance therapy to completely abolish the tumor

Front 17

Define: “induction therapy”

Back 17

Initial dose for rapid tumor cell death to induce remission

Front 18

Define: “sympathetic ophthalmia”

Back 18

Damage to one eye provokes immunologic damage targeted against other eye 2/2 “uncovered antigens”

Front 19

Risks/benefits of lidocaine during ACS

Back 19

Decrease risk of VFib; increase risk of asystole

Front 20

Classic history for multiinfarct dementia

Back 20

Step-wise decrease in cognitive functioning

Front 21

Cytology: Blastomycosis

Back 21

Broad-based budding yeast

Front 22

Classic pathology of dermatitis herpetiformis

Back 22

IgA within dermal papillae

Front 23

4 protective factors against gallstone disease

Back 23

Caffeine, low carb diet, exercise, and NSAIDs

Front 24

Three drugs associated with gallstone disease

Back 24

Ceftiaxone, octreotide, clofibrate

Front 25

Classic presentation of dumping syndrome

Back 25

Patient with history of gastrectomy develops cramps, weakness, diaphoresis, light-headedness shortly after eating

Front 26

How do you get syncope from a TIA/stroke?

Back 26

Posterior circulation disease

Front 27

Which neuroleptic can cause jaundice?

Back 27

Chlorpromazine

Front 28

Which neuroleptic can cause pigmented retinopathy?

Back 28

Thioridazine

Front 29

Which neuroleptic can cause cataracts?

Back 29

Quetiapine

Front 30

MCC of sepsis in sickle cell

Back 30

Pneumococcus

Front 31

For all intents and purposes, there are no ___ symptoms in Guillain Barre

Back 31

Sensory symptoms

Front 32

MC infectious cause of IUGR

Back 32

CMV

Front 33

Who gets ribavirin for RSV?

Back 33

Immunocompromised

Front 34

Management: primary amenorrhea + uterus present

Back 34

Serum FSH to discern central vs. peripheral origin

Front 35

Management: primary amenorrhea w/o uterus

Back 35

Karyotpe

Front 36

Management: primary amenorrhea with low FSH

Back 36

Brain MR

Front 37

Management: primary amenorrhea with high FSH

Back 37

Karyotype

Front 38

Dx: marfanoid + thromboembolism

Back 38

Cystathionine synthase deficiency

Front 39

MCC of brain abscess in otherwise healthy person

Back 39

Extension of anaerobic and/or aerobic sinus infection

Front 40

Two MC locations for cerebral toxoplasmosis

Back 40

Basal ganglia and white-grey junction

Front 41

Risk to think of with IUFD

Back 41

DIC caused by fetal release of tissue factor

Front 42

A low-normal ___ or ___ level should be considered abnormal in pregnancy

Back 42

Fibrinogen or platelet count

Front 43

Treatment of cystathionine synthase deficiency

Back 43

Mega B6 doses, methionine restriction

Front 44

Triad of PKU

Back 44

Light pigmentation (fair skin, blue eyes, etc.), MR, and eczema

Front 45

Dx: diarrhea and salmon colored spots on the belly

Back 45

Salmonella

Front 46

Dx: positive hydrogen breath test

Back 46

Lactase deficiency

Front 47

Dx: HIV+ patient with multiple non-enhancing brain lesions w/o mass effect

Back 47

PML

Front 48

4 causes of asymmetric IUGR

Back 48

Maternal HTN/preeclampsia, smoking, antiphospholipid Abs, collagen vascular disease,

Front 49

SCIDs patients are most commonly afflicted by recurrent ___ and ___ infection

Back 49

Viral and fungal

Front 50

Causes of neonatal conjunctivitis by time since birth

Back 50

First 24 hours: chemical
First 5 days or so: gonococcal
Beyond 5 days or so: chlamydial

Front 51

Dx: blood-stained lacrimal discharge in a neonate with conjunctivitis

Back 51

Chlamydia

Front 52

Optimal tidal volume setting

Back 52

6 mL/kg of ideal body weight

Front 53

Which neuroleptic is associated with QT prolongation?

Back 53

Ziprasidone

Front 54

Drug of choice for partial seizures

Back 54

Phenytoin

Front 55

Second line therapy for absence seizures

Back 55

Valproate

Front 56

Dx: immunosuppressed pt develops simultaneous pulmonary and GI symptoms

Back 56

Think CMV

Front 57

Physical exam in patellofemoral pain syndrome

Back 57

Pain over anterior knee while extending the leg and pressing on the patella

Front 58

Triad of acute iron ingestion

Back 58

Abdominal pain, hematemesis, and metabolic acidosis

Front 59

Truncus arteriosus is STRONGLY associated with _______

Back 59

Di George

Front 60

First step in management of gastroschisis/omphalocele

Back 60

Wrap in sterile saline dressing

Front 61

Gastroschisis vs. omphalocele

Back 61

Omphalocele has a membranous covering

Front 62

Which is associated with additional congenital anomalies, gastroschisis or omphalocele?

Back 62

Omphalocele

Front 63

When should you intervene in a baby with hydrocele?

Back 63

A hydrocele that persists beyond 12 months of life requires surgical intervention

Front 64

In addition to evaluation of the joint, patients with suspected septic arthritis should also receive ___

Back 64

Blood cultures

Front 65

Acute management of severe/symptomatic hypercalcemia

Back 65

NS IVF + calcitonin

Front 66

Chronic management of severe/symptomatic hypercalcemia

Back 66

Bisphosphonates

Front 67

Dx: mild thrombocytopenia with giant circulating platelets

Back 67

Bernard-Soulier

Front 68

What is the general indication for vascular shunting in cirrhotics?

Back 68

Symptomatic varices

Front 69

Two diseases to think of with seborrheic dermatitis on the face

Back 69

HIV and Parkinsons

Front 70

Manage all men with BPH with initial ___

Back 70

UA and Cr measurement

Front 71

Three primary organs affected by hemochromatosis

Back 71

Liver, pancreas, heart

Front 72

APGAR mnemonic

Back 72

Appearance/pulse/grimace/activity/respiration

Front 73

ACLS algorithm for Vfib or pulseless Vtach

Back 73

Defibrillation>epi>amiodarone

Front 74

Classic physical exam findings for laryngomalacia

Back 74

Loudest when supine, better when upright or prone

Front 75

Tx: TCA poisoning

Back 75

NaHCO3, IVF, benzos

Front 76

Four complications of measles

Back 76

Pneumonia, vit A deficiency, bronchiectasis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

Front 77

MC manifestation of biceps tendon rupture

Back 77

Weak supination with largely preserved flexion and Popeye’s sign, with prominent biceps belly

Front 78

Dysphagia for just solids is generally indicative of _____, while dysphagia for both solids and liquids is suggestive of _____

Back 78

Obstructing mass; esophageal dysmotility