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193 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. Ideally, a PST program should be planned, implemented, and supervised by a
a. coach
b. sport psychology consultant
c. AAASP-certified sport psychology consultant
d. coach and athlete
e. NASPSPA-certified sport psychology consultant
c. AAASP-certified sport psychology consultant
2. In general, most coaches state that their sport is at least what percentage mental?
a. 20%
b. 50%
c. 80%
d. 90%
e. 25%
b. 50%
3. The importance of the mental side of sports
a. is greatest for elite athletes
b. is greatest for varsity athletes
c. is greatest for recreational athletes
d. does not differ based on skill level
e. is greatest for young athletes
d. does not differ based on skill level
4. Which of the following explain(s) why players and coaches often neglect psychological skills training?
a. lack of knowledge
b. lack of time
c. viewing psychological skills as unchangeable
d. all of the above
e. a and c
d. all of the above
5. Which of the following is (are) FALSE concerning psychological skills training?
a. PST is only for problem athletes.
b. PST is for athletes of various abilities.
c. PST will not provide quick solutions to problems.
d. PST has developed a knowledge base using elite athletes.
e. a and b
a. PST is only for problem athletes.
6. From a psychological perspective, the ultimate goal of psychological skills training is
a. self-efficacy
b. self-regulation
c. self-esteem
d. mental preparation
e. self-concept
b. self-regulation
7. Results of a study focusing on successful versus unsuccessful athletes showed that more successful athletes are characterized by
a. higher self-confidence
b. higher anxiety
c. more task-oriented thoughts
d. a and b
e. a and c
e. a and c
8. Using the psychological skill of relaxation learned in baseball to deal with anxiety before taking exams would be the goal of which stage of Kirschenbaum's model of self-regulation?
a. execution
b. problem identification
c. generalization
d. specialization
e. environmental management
c. generalization
9. Which of the following is not one of the stages in Kirschenbaum's model of self-regulation?
a. commitment
b. execution
c. specialization
d. generalization
e. problem identification
c. specialization
10. The PST knowledge base has come from what sources?
a. research on elite athletes
b. athlete–coach experiences
c. research on youth sport
d. all of the above
e. a and b
e. a and b
11. In conducting research on the mental preparation of Canadian Olympic athletes, Orlick and Partington found that athletes who performed up to their potential
a. developed competitive plans
b. received positive feedback from coaches
c. had more extroverted personalities
d. a and b
e. a and c
a. developed competitive plans
12. Sport psychology topics that form the basis for PST programs include which of the following?
a. confidence building
b. imagery
c. attentional skills
d. all of the above
e. a and c
d. all of the above
13. What was the main problem that the basketball player faced in the case study?
a. He had not developed the psychological skill of relaxation.
b. He did not have good free-throw shooting form.
c. He received negative feedback from his coach.
d. He had not developed a routine before shooting free throws.
e. He lost his concentration because his girlfriend was in the audience.
a. He had not developed the psychological skill of relaxation.
14. The studies investigating the effectiveness of PST in enhancing performance have generally found
a. that PST enhances the performance of adult athletes
b. that PST enhances the performance of collegiate athletes
c. that PST enhances performance in individual and team sports
d. all of the above
e. a and b
d. all of the above
15. Which of the following demonstrate(s) psychological skills training?
a. A fitness instructor suggests using positive self-statements to enhance self-esteem with an overweight client.
b. A physical education teacher uses relaxation training to help students calm down before going on to their next class.
c. A therapist uses behavior modification techniques to help a person quit smoking.
d. all of the above
e. a and b
e. a and b
16. When is it generally best to implement a PST program?
a. anytime
b. during the off-season or preseason
c. after a problem is identified
d. before important competitions
e. before easy competitions
b. during the off-season or preseason
17. When new psychological skills are being learned, how long should they generally be practiced?
a. 5 days a week, 60 minutes a day
b. 3 to 5 days a week, 15 to 30 minutes a day
c. twice a week, 30 minutes a day
d. 5 days a week, 45 to 60 minutes a day
e. 3 days a week, 60 minutes a day
b. 3 to 5 days a week, 15 to 30 minutes a day
18. After a PST program has been put in place, how long do athletes need to continue practicing their mental skills?
a. as long as they continue to participate in their sports
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
e. 1 month
a. as long as they continue to participate in their sports
19. PST takes what type of approach to mental training?
a. clinical
b. counseling
c. educational
d. philosophical
e. pragmatic
c. educational
20. A baseball player's slump can be caused by what kind(s) of problems?
a. psychological
b. biomechanical
c. physiological
d. all of the above
e. a and c
d. all of the above
21. What is the best way to get information concerning an athlete's psychological strengths and weaknesses?
a. psychological inventories
b. oral interview
c. oral interview and psychological inventories
d. projective and objective psychological inventories
e. none of the above
c. oral interview and psychological inventories
22. According to Vealey's analysis, which of the following reflect(s) foundation methods in PST training?
a. physical practice
b. education
c. anxiety management
d. all of the above
e. a and b
e. a and b
23. Which of the following is NOT a common problem in implementing PST programs?
a. lack of time
b. lack of follow-up by the consultant
c. consultant's lack of sport-specific knowledge
d. generating support from administrators, coaches, and athletes
e. sport psychologist's knowledge of psychological skill exercises
e. sport psychologist's knowledge of psychological skill exercises
24. The Sports United to Promote Education and Recreation program (SUPER) developed by Danish and his colleagues has as its goal
a. to teach adolescents skills in sport that they can transfer to other aspects of their lives
b. to provide recreational activities for inner-city youth
c. to help elite athletes develop mental skills
d. to provide training for new physical education teachers
e. to combine formal physical education in the schools with recreational activities after school
a. to teach adolescents skills in sport that they can transfer to other aspects of their lives
25. Which of the following is (are) characteristic of INEFFECTIVE consultants that athletes note in interviews with sport psychologists?
a. They lack sport-specific knowledge.
b. They are too flexible, trying to meet all athletes' individual needs.
c. They rely on a "canned" approach when implementing mental skills training.
d. a and b
e. a and c
e. a and c
26. Which of the following is (are) characteristic of EFFECTIVE consultants that athletes note in interviews with sport psychologists?
a. They conduct several follow-up sessions with athletes.
b. They are accessible and establish rapport with the athletes.
c. They are flexible in meeting individual athletes’ needs.
d. all of the above
e. a and b
d. all of the above
27. Performance profiling as a means of assessing athletes' mental skills works by asking athletes to
a. observe other elite athletes who have excellent psychological skills
b. identify, assess, and compare their own mental skills against those of other elite athletes in their sport
c. take a series of personality tests to determine their strengths and weaknesses regarding mental skills
d. observe themselves for several weeks and keep a log regarding their mental skills
e. none of the above
b. identify, assess, and compare their own mental skills against those of other elite athletes in their sport
28. Which of the following is NOT a phase in PST?
a. education phase
b. practice phase
c. intervention phase
d. acquisition phase
c. intervention phase
Title: Psychological Skills
29. According to Vealey, which of the following is (are) method(s) of psychological skills?
a. goal setting
b. imagery
c. confidence
d. all of the above
e. a and b
e. a and b
30. New research indicates that which of the following is NOT a construct in the 4C model of mental toughness?
a. control
b. commitment
c. consistency
d. challenge
e. confidence
c. consistency
31. Which of the following is (are) considerations when teaching mental skills to athletes with disabilities?
a. developing trust and rapport
b. soliciting help from others (e.g., case workers, relatives)
c. ensuring that the venues are accessible
d. all of the above
e. a and c
d. all of the above
The first systematic mental skills training program occurred in which country?
a. United States
b. Soviet Union
c. Canada
d. England
e. China
b. Soviet Union
According to recent research on mental toughness, which of the following is (are) a way(s) to increase mental toughness?
a. Create intense competitive practices simulating game situations.
b. Have high expectations of athletes.
c. Create a negative mental environment because athletes react positively to threats of punishment.
d. a and c
e. a and b
e. a and b
Experts compared to non-experts
a. anticipated opponents' intentions quicker
b. had shorter "quiet eye" periods
c. are equal in terms of visual function and visual acuity
d. a and c
e. a and b
a. anticipated opponents' intentions quicker
1. Which of the following statements regarding self-efficacy is (are) true?
a. Efficacy affects behavior change but behavior change does not affect efficacy
b. Efficacy changes are related to changes in exercise adherence.
c. Exercise behavior can influence feelings of efficacy.
d. b and c
e. a and c
d. b and c
2. One's confidence can change as the situation changes. This is known as
a. trait self-confidence
b. state self-confidence
c. situational self-confidence
d. cognitive self-confidence
e. naturally occurring self-confidence
b. state self-confidence
3. Sport self-confidence is currently viewed as
a. a trait variable
b. a state variable
c. statelike or traitlike depending on the situation
d. an affective variable
e. a cognitive variable
c. statelike or traitlike depending on the situation
4. The probable reason that approximately a dozen runners broke the 4-minute barrier within one year after Roger Bannister originally did was their
a. enhanced training procedures
b. improved equipment
c. faster tracks
d. expectations that it could be done
e. superior coaching
d. expectations that it could be done
5. Confidence is seen as multidimensional, consisting of confidence in
a. one's ability to execute physical skills
b. one's level of fitness
c. one's psychological skills
d. all of the above
e. a and c
d. all of the above
6. According to the study by Nelson and Furst on arm wrestling and expectations,
a. objectively weaker subjects who expected to win actually did win more often than stronger subjects who expected to lose
b. objectively stronger subjects won regardless of expectations
c. objectively weaker subjects won regardless of expectations
d. expectations were a better predictor of success than actual strength was
e. a and d
e. a and d
7. According to Rosenthal and Jacobson's study on teachers’ expectancies and students’ performances,
a. children identified as "late bloomers" exhibited the greatest gains in IQ
b. teachers' expectations were not related to IQ scores
c. children identified as "late bloomers" exhibited the slightest gains in IQ
d. males had higher gains in IQ than females did
e. none of the above
a. children identified as "late bloomers" exhibited the greatest gains in IQ
8. Coaches often form expectations of athletes based on
a. performance information and media reports
b. performance information and person cues
c. person cues and media reports
d. scouting and media reports
e. person cues and scouting reports
b. performance information and person cues
9. Which of the following is (are) true?
a. Coaches spend more time with high-expectancy athletes.
b. Coaches show more positive affect to high-expectancy athletes.
c. Coaches spend more time with low-expectancy athletes.
d. a and b
e. b and c
d. a and b
10. Which of the following is (are) FALSE?
a. Coaches give high-expectancy athletes more instructional feedback.
b. Coaches provide more praise to high-expectancy athletes.
c. Coaches provide more beneficial feedback to low-expectancy athletes.
d. a and b
e. b and c
c. Coaches provide more beneficial feedback to low-expectancy athletes.
11. Which of the following is (are) true?
a. Low-expectancy athletes exhibit lower performances due to less effective reinforcement and playing time.
b. Low-expectancy athletes attribute their failures to lack of effort.
c. Low-expectancy athletes attribute their failures to lack of ability.
d. a and c
e. a and b
d. a and c
12. The four-step process concerning the formation of a coach’s expectations and their effects on the coach's and athlete's behavior signifies that
a. coaches should continually reevaluate an athlete's ability throughout the season
b. coaches should carefully monitor their quantity and quality of reinforcement and instructional feedback
c. coaches should rely on one source to make ability judgments
d. all of the above
e. a and b
e. a and b
13. Self-efficacy theory was originated by
a. Charley Hardy
b. Tara Scanlan
c. Albert Bandura
d. Larry Brawley
e. Joseph Wolpe
c. Albert Bandura
14. Confidence is usually defined by sport psychologists as the
a. belief that you can successfully perform a desired behavior
b. inner self
c. equivalent of self-esteem
d. belief that you can do anything you desire if you set your mind to it
e. none of the above
a. belief that you can successfully perform a desired behavior
15. Self-efficacy has been used interchangeably with
a. self-esteem
b. self-confidence
c. self-motivation
d. self-concept
e. self-fulfilling prophecy
b. self-confidence
16. Confidence can be improved by
a. judgmental thinking
b. acting confidently
c. using imagery
d. b and c
e. a and b
d. b and c
17. If you want to avoid breaking down an individual's self-confidence,
a. don't criticize people for inconsequential errors
b. don't criticize the behavior; criticize the person
c. don't use sarcasm to motivate people
d. all of the above
e. a and c
e. a and c
18. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation provided by Horn regarding expectations of coaches?
a. Coaches should interact infrequently with athletes.
b. Coaches should respond to skill errors with immediate criticism.
c. Coaches should try to create a mastery-oriented environment.
d. a and c
e. b and c
c. Coaches should try to create a mastery-oriented environment.
19. Collective efficacy refers to
a. each individual's perception of the efficacy of the team as a whole
b. the aggregate of each individual's own self-efficacy
c. the coach's view of the efficacy of the team as a whole
d. the belief that the team can win the championship
e. none of the above
a. each individual's perception of the efficacy of the team as a whole
20. Recent research has identified nine sources of sport self-confidence. These fit into which of the following categories?
a. climate (environment)
b. self-regulation
c. arousal
d. a and b
e. b and c
d. a and b
21. According to the latest thinking, self-efficacy is now called
a. self-regulatory efficacy
b. self-improvement
c. self-esteem
d. self-worth
e. self-monitoring
a. self-regulatory efficacy
22. Research by Gould and his colleagues on setting up detailed plans as a way to increase confidence showed that
a. elite athletes had the most detailed plans
b. female athletes had the most detailed plans
c. male athletes had the most detailed plans
d. college athletes had the most detailed plans
e. none of the above
a. elite athletes had the most detailed plans
23. Coaching efficacy is composed of all of the following areas except
a. game strategy
b. playing experience
c. motivation
d. technique
e. character building
b. playing experience
24. The relationship between confidence and performance is
a. positive linear
b. negative linear
c. curvilinear
d. negatively accelerated
e. positively accelerated
c. curvilinear
25. Research has indicated that live and filmed modeling increases self-efficacy in muscular-endurance tasks. This is an example of
a. verbal persuasion
b. vicarious experiences
c. performance accomplishments
d. emotional arousal
e. parental expectations
b. vicarious experiences
26. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of confidence?
a. positive emotions
b. effort
c. concentration
d. goals
e. visualization
e. visualization
27. The strongest and most dependable information on which to base self-efficacy judgments comes from
a. vicarious experiences
b. performance accomplishments
c. emotional states
d. verbal persuasion
e. physiological states
b. performance accomplishments
28. An injured athlete is feeling depressed and anxious about his rehabilitation and thus has a low sense of self-efficacy. This is an example of using which source of self-efficacy?
a. vicarious experiences
b. physiological states
c. verbal persuasion
d. performance accomplishments
e. emotional states
e. emotional states
29. Which of the following is (are) NOT a major source of self-efficacy?
a. parental expectations
b. performance accomplishments
c. emotional arousal
d. vicarious experiences
e. a and d
a. parental expectations
30. Which of the following points about self-efficacy theory is (are) true?
a. Self-efficacy affects effort expenditure and persistence.
b. Self-efficacy plus ability are enough for success.
c. Self-efficacy is task specific.
d. all of the above
e. a and c
e. a and c
31. Researchers investigating the concept of psychological momentum in sport found that teams of athletes having momentum
a. will continue to perform well for the next few minutes of play
b. will continue to perform well for the rest of the game
c. were just as likely to perform poorly as to continue to perform well
d. are important in individual sports but not in team sports
e. are important in team sports but not in individual sports
c. were just as likely to perform poorly as to continue to perform well
32. According to recent research on the “hot hand” in basketball, if a coach needed to choose a player to take the last critical shot, he should choose
a. the player who has the hot hand
b. It doesn’t matter whom he chooses.
c. the player with the hot hand who is also generally a good shooter
d. the player with the hot hand who is generally not a good shooter
e. none of the above
c. the player with the hot hand who is also generally a good shooter
33. Which of the following is NOT one of the components of the model of sport confidence?
a. sources of sport confidence
b. constructs of sport confidence
c. factors influencing sport confidence
d. controllability of sport confidence
e. factors affecting sport confidence
d. controllability of sport confidence
34. Which of the following is true regarding judges’ knowing a skater beforehand?
a. Judges’ knowledge of the skater did not affect their scoring.
b. Skaters who were known to judges were ranked higher than skaters not known to judges.
c. Skaters known to judges received higher artistic marks than skaters not known to judges.
d. a and c
e. b and c
b. Skaters who were known to judges were ranked higher than skaters not known to judges.
1. Which of the following would NOT be classified as an internal distracter?
a. attending to past events
b. attending to future events
c. overly analyzing body mechanics
d. visual and auditory distracters
e. fatigue
d. visual and auditory distracters
2. Which of the following is NOT a key element included in most definitions of concentration?
a. the ability to focus attention on the relevant cues
b. maintaining attentional focus for the duration of the competition
c. the ability to narrow attentional focus during intense pressure
d. having the proper attentional focus depending on the situation
e. All of the above are indeed key elements of concentration.
c. the ability to narrow attentional focus during intense pressure
3. High scores on the BIT subscale of Nideffer's TAIS indicate
a. an ability to effectively integrate many external stimuli simultaneously
b. an ability to effectively integrate several ideas at one time
c. a tendency to become confused and overloaded with external stimuli
d. chronically narrowed attention
e. an ability to effectively narrow attention when it is appropriate
b. an ability to effectively integrate several ideas at one time
4. An athlete who is losing in a tennis match might tell her opponent that the opponent is "really following through on her serve nicely." From an attentional perspective, this is a ploy to have the opponent
a. feel good about herself
b. start to focus and think too much about her serve
c. lose her intensity
d. use negative self-talk
e. none of the above
b. start to focus and think too much about her serve
5. The narrowing and internal focus associated with choking can result in
a. impaired timing
b. loss of coordination
c. poor judgment and decision making
d. all of the above
e. a and b
d. all of the above
6. According to the text, "choking" should be defined as
a. a bad performance at a critical time of competition
b. a process that leads to impaired performance
c. making a mistake that costs you or your team a victory
d. making a mistake that is emotionally important to an athlete
e. all of the above
b. a process that leads to impaired performance
7. According to a summary of 25 years of research on association and dissociation,
a. dissociative strategies are associated with running fast more than associative strategies
b. practice runners prefer association; competitive runners prefer dissociation
c. dissociation can reduce the fatigue and monotony of training or recreational runs
d. a and c
e. b and c
c. dissociation can reduce the fatigue and monotony of training or recreational runs
8. Athletes with a preference for a broad–external focus
a. are seldom distracted by an audience
b. rarely try too hard to please others
c. seem to notice everything that is happening around them
d. are well prepared to act as a coach or informal leader
e. b and c
c. seem to notice everything that is happening around them
9. "Cue" words are often effective because
a. they can help trigger a particular response
b. they can be motivational or emotionally stimulating
c. they broaden attentional focus
d. a and b
e. b and c
d. a and b
10. Future-oriented thinking (attending to events in the future)
a. is common among younger athletes
b. involves seeing a past mistake while focusing on the present
c. often takes the form of "what about me" statements
d. all of the above
e. a and c
a. is common among younger athletes
11. "No-look" passes in basketball are accomplished by using
a. a narrow–internal attentional focus
b. advanced cues to predict teammates' future movements
c. several different types of attentional strategies
d. a narrow–external attentional focus
e. none of the above
b. advanced cues to predict teammates' future movements
12. Research investigating differences between experts and novices concludes that these differences are in large part due to experts' ability to
a. attend more to advance information to make faster decisions
b. predict the flight pattern of a ball
c. use "tunnel vision"
d. all of the above
e. a and b
e. a and b
13. Top athletes seem to be able to do just the right thing at just the right time. From an attentional perspective, research has shown that this is mostly due to their ability to
a. analyze situations more quickly and use more anticipatory cues
b. use a narrow–external focus
c. use a broad–external focus
d. use a narrow–internal focus
e. analyze situations by using imagery and positive self-talk
a. analyze situations more quickly and use more anticipatory cues
14. If a pole-vaulter shifts attention from imagining the approach to the pit to focusing on actually seeing the runway, his attentional focus has changed from _____ to _____.
a. narrow–external; narrow–internal
b. narrow–internal; broad–external
c. broad–internal; narrow–external
d. broad–external; narrow–external
e. none of the above
e. none of the above
15. If a golfer shifts attention just before a tee shot, from the length of the fairway and the direction of the wind to focusing only on the ball, her attention has shifted from _____ to _____.
a. broad–internal; narrow–external
b. broad–internal; narrow–internal
c. broad–external; narrow–internal
d. broad–external; narrow–external
e. none of the above
d. broad–external; narrow–external
16. An example of Nideffer's broad–external type of attentional focus is
a. a basketball point guard's rapidly assessing the positioning of the defense while on a fast break
b. a coach's analyzing the game plan prior to the start of the competition
c. a baseball pitcher's focusing on the catcher's mitt just before beginning his pitch
d. a wrestler's practicing mental imagery on the bus ride to a meet
e. a basketball player's sighting the rim while on the free-throw line
a. a basketball point guard's rapidly assessing the positioning of the defense while on a fast break
17. Which of the following best represents William James' classic description of attention?
a. It involves the ability to pay attention to several things at once.
b. It implies withdrawal from some things in order to deal effectively with others.
c. It involves components of both width and direction.
d. It involves the components of both internality and stability.
e. none of the above
b. It implies withdrawal from some things in order to deal effectively with others.
18. Entirely focusing on body mechanics and movements
a. is important when learning a skill
b. may be inappropriate once a skill becomes automatic
c. may be detrimental to performance because the mind gets in the way of the body
d. all of the above
e. b and c
d. all of the above
19. Using a trigger word to stop negative self-statements is called
a. thought stopping
b. attentional narrowing
c. external attentional focus
d. peripheral narrowing
e. tunnel vision
a. thought stopping
20. Tennis and baseball players are able to successfully hit balls traveling toward them at high speeds because
a. they have learned to watch the ball hit their racket (or bat)
b. they have learned to predict the flight of the ball by using advanced attentional cues
c. they have learned to use a narrow–external focus
d. they have learned to rapidly shift their attentional focus
e. they have learned to use a broad–external focus
b. they have learned to predict the flight of the ball by using advanced attentional cues
21. From an attentional perspective, overlearning of skills
a. makes the skills more automatic, thus requiring less attention
b. allows for attentional selectivity
c. produces higher amounts of internal attentional control
d. allows for higher amounts of external attentional control
e. none of the above
a. makes the skills more automatic, thus requiring less attention
22. Developing competitive plans should focus on what type of goals?
a. outcome goals
b. technical goals
c. performance goals
d. process goals
e. product goals
d. process goals
23. In preparing for a major competition, many elite athletes structure training to put themselves under the same sort of pressure encountered during the actual competition. This is an example of
a. mental rehearsal
b. precompetitive routines
c. precompetitive plans
d. simulation training
e. cognitive–behavioral interventions
d. simulation training
24. In a study on figure skaters, self-monitoring helped skaters to become
a. more task focused
b. more process oriented
c. more determined
d. more willing to listen to coaches
e. none of the above
a. more task focused
25. Psychophysiological research on attentional processes in archers and pistol shooters has revealed that accuracy is increased when performers' brain waves are in which frequency?
a. beta
b. alpha
c. delta
d. gamma
e. creatine
b. alpha
26. According to Nideffer, effective attenders indicate that they can
a. deal well with a multitude of stimuli from both external and internal sources
b. effectively switch their attention from broad to narrow focus when necessary
c. attend to many stimuli (both internally and externally) while not becoming overloaded with too much information
d. a and c
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
27. Which of the following is NOT a subscale of the Test of Attentional and Interpersonal Style (TAIS)?
a. external overload
b. reduced focus
c. broad–internal
d. internal overload
e. broad–narrow
e. broad–narrow
28. Just before shooting, elite pistol shooters display
a. increased galvanic skin responses
b. cardiac acceleration
c. cardiac deceleration
d. acceleration of the autonomic nervous system
e. reduced blood pressure
c. cardiac deceleration
29. According to the new theories of multiple resource pools, attentional capacity is
a. centralized
b. distributed throughout the nervous system
c. broad in nature
d. narrow in nature
e. sequential
b. distributed throughout the nervous system
30. Individuals with a good ability to concentrate, scan, and store relevant cues are likely to score _____ on a concentration block grid in 1 minute.
a. in the upper 20s to low 30s
b. in the low 20s
c. somewhere between 45 and 50
d. at least as high as an elite athlete can score in 30 seconds
e. in the upper 60s
a. in the upper 20s to low 30s
31. Why would you want to have a friend wave his arms around you while you are focusing on a basketball?
a. to assist you in shifting your attention from the ball to the waving arms
b. to help you in your search for irrelevant cues
c. to force you to maintain concentration on the ball
d. all of the above
e. a and c
c. to force you to maintain concentration on the ball
32. Results from the study of self-talk among junior tennis players (Van Raalte et al.) revealed that
a. there was more positive self-talk than negative self-talk
b. most of the self-talk was instructional in nature
c. there was a strong relationship between audible, positive self-talk and performance
d. a and b
e. none of the above
e. none of the above
33. According to recent research, instructional self-talk is best on what type of tasks?
a. strength
b. endurance
c. accuracy
d. balance
e. strength and endurance
c. accuracy
34. Telling yourself to focus probably is best defined as
a. establishing a routine to be used primarily during "down" times
b. a method to keep attention focused through the use of eye control
c. a cue word for bringing you back into a present focus
d. an exercise that enables you to practice shifting attentional focus
e. the opposite of "stop!" as an attention-focusing tool
c. a cue word for bringing you back into a present focus
35. Ironic processes in sport refers to
a ironically performing movement
b. the idea that trying not to perform an action can trigger its occurrence accidentally
c. doing something an athlete is not trained to do
d. performing well even with little experience
e. none of the above
b. the idea that trying not to perform an action can trigger its occurrence accidentally
36. A response to either good or bad performances that causes a personal, ego-involved reaction during competition is known as
a. judgmental thinking
b. nonjudgmental thinking
c. ego thought
d. paralysis by analysis
e. all of the above
a. judgmental thinking
37. To improve concentration, an athlete should
a. practice without distractions present
b. establish routines
c. practice eye control
d. all of the above
e. b and c
e. b and c
38. Which of the following is (are) a major process involved in explaining the attention–performance relationship?
a. attentional selectivity
b. attentional capacity
c. attentional alertness
d. all of the above
e. a and b
d. all of the above
39. Most theories investigating the role of attention in performance have used what type of approach?
a. information-processing
b. attentional control
c. conscious control process
d. attentional-arousal
e. limited-capacity
a. information-processing
40. The concept of attentional alertness operates under the assumption that arousal
a. narrows attention
b. broadens attention
c. enhances attention
d. disrupts attention
e. none of the above
a. narrows attention
41. Research has indicated that paying attention to step-by-step instructions is most helpful
a. for elite performers
b. for new learners
c. for closed skills
d. for open skills
e. continuous skills
b. for new learners
42. Which of the following is (are) principles of effective concentration?
a. A focused state of mind requires intentional mental effort.
b. Athletes can consciously focus on more than one thought at a time.
c. During peak performance there is no difference between an athlete’s thoughts and actions.
d. a and c
e. b and c
d. a and c
1. Research findings indicate that exercise is associated with
a. increases in energy and alertness
b. changing a bad mood
c. increases in fatigue and anger
d. a and b
e. a and c
d. a and b
2. Some ________ of Americans have depression and __________ have stress reactions.
a. 17 million; 11 million
b. 5 million; 7 million
c. 1 million; 3 million
d. 6 million; 8 million
e. 600,000; 800,000
a. 17 million; 11 million
3. The nature of the conclusions from the National Institute of Mental Health regarding exercise and mental health was
a. causal
b. correlational
c. descriptive
d. qualitative
e. quantitative
b. correlational
4. Which of the following statements was (were) conclusion(s) derived from the National Institute of Mental Health workshop on physical activity and mental health?
a. Physical fitness is positively associated with mental health.
b. Males and females benefit equally from exercise.
c. Long-term exercise is usually associated with reductions in traits such as neuroticism and anxiety.
d. all of the above
e. a and c
d. all of the above
5. Research investigating the relationship between exercise and quality of life has revealed that
a. older adults who exercise report greater life satisfaction and physical health
b. physically active individuals report more stamina and positive attitudes about work
c. there were no differences in reported quality of life between college students who participated in an endurance conditioning program and a comparable control group
d. all of the above
e. a and b
e. a and b
6. According to research studies, the "runner's high" is experienced by approximately what percentage of runners?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. Results are inconsistent.
e. Results are inconsistent.
7. The relationship between exercise and hardiness has recently been investigated. A hardy personality style is characterized by
a. a sense of personal control over external events
b. a sense of commitment and purpose in daily life
c. the flexibility to adapt to unexpected changes in life
d. all of the above
e. a and c
d. all of the above
8. The feelings characterizing the "runner's high" are similar to the concept of
a. inner peace
b. flow
c. transcendental meditation
d. peripheral narrowing
e. overtraining
b. flow
9. Which of the following regarding the relationship between exercise and depression is (are) true?
a. The positive effects are seen across age, health status, and gender.
b. Both aerobic exercise and anaerobic exercise are associated with reductions in depression.
c. Reductions in depression after exercise do not depend on fitness levels.
d. all of the above
e. a and c
d. all of the above
10. According to a study by Greist and colleagues on the effects of exercise and psychotherapy on depression,
a. time-limited psychotherapy produced the greatest reduction in depression
b. time-unlimited therapy produced greater reductions in depression than running
c. running produced greater reductions in depression than either time-limited or time-unlimited psychotherapy
d. a and c
e. none of the above
c. running produced greater reductions in depression than either time-limited or time-unlimited psychotherapy
11. Which of the following is (are) true?
a. Aerobic exercise is associated with more consistent reductions in state anxiety than anaerobic exercise is.
b. The anxiety reduction after exercise occurs regardless of intensity and duration of the exercise.
c. Activities such as weightlifting and yoga have been found to be associated with positive psychological well-being.
d. all of the above
e. a and b
d. all of the above
12. Researchers have found that exercise reduces state anxiety for approximately
a. 24 hours
b. 30 minutes
c. 12 hours
d. 2 to 6 hours
e. 8 to 10 hours
d. 2 to 6 hours
13. Which of the following conditions is generally not related to positive changes in mood?
a. closed and predictable activities
b. enjoyment
c. rhythmic and repetitive movements
d. abdominal breathing
e. interpersonal competition
e. interpersonal competition
14. Various research studies have indicated that regular physical activity is associated with
a. positive mental health
b. infrequent symptoms of anxiety and depression
c. reduced probability of hypertension and coronary heart disease
d. all of the above
e. a and c
d. all of the above
15. Aerobic exercise refers to physical activity that
a. is less than 10 minutes in duration
b. does not use oxygen
c. increases pulmonary and cardiovascular fitness
d. a and c
e. b and c
c. increases pulmonary and cardiovascular fitness
16. The primary measure of mood in sport and exercise is the
a. Profile of Mood States
b. Positive Affect–Negative Affect Scale
c. mood alteration scale
d. affective checklist
e. Cognitive–Affective Profile
a. Profile of Mood States
17. Exercise is related to increased quality of life as measured by
a. increased feelings of enjoyment
b. decreased feelings of stress
c. decreased levels of self-confidence
d. all of the above
e. a and b
e. a and b
18. Some new research on the relationship between exercise and psychological well-being among HIV-1 populations showed that
a. anaerobic exercise produced the most positive psychological benefits
b. both aerobic and weight-training exercise produced positive psychological benefits
c. aerobic exercise had no effect on psychological well-being
d. a and c
e. a and b
b. both aerobic and weight-training exercise produced positive psychological benefits
19. A recent study has investigated the relationship between exercise and multiple sclerosis (MS). Results indicated that exercise produced
a. less pain and fatigue
b. better sexual functioning
c. higher levels of energy and vigor
d. all of the above
e. a and c
d. all of the above
20. If exercise is used as an adjunct to traditional therapy, then which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. Anaerobic activities appear to produce the most positive psychological effects.
b. A precise diagnosis of the problem and individually tailored program of exercise should be employed.
c. Exercise therapy can be used for both underweight and obese patients.
d. a and b
e. b and c
b. A precise diagnosis of the problem and individually tailored program of exercise should be employed.
21. The results of studies investigating the relationship of exercise and changes in self-concept have been inconsistent. The main reason for this is that
a. self-concept is a multidimensional construct
b. there were not enough subjects in the studies
c. self-concept cannot be measured through paper-and-pencil tests
d. a and c
e. a and b
a. self-concept is a multidimensional construct
22. The "runner's high" has been described as
a. complete joy in the run
b. a very alert mind
c. freedom from worry and guilt
d. all of the above
e. a and c
d. all of the above
23. Which of the following is (are) true regarding the relationship between exercise and self-esteem?
a. Positive changes have been found only with individuals initially lower in self-esteem.
b. Positive changes in self-esteem through exercise last only one to two months.
c. Positive changes in self-esteem related to exercise have been found in normal populations.
d. a and b
e. b and c
c. Positive changes in self-esteem related to exercise have been found in normal populations.
24. According to Ismail and Young's study on the effects of a fitness program on middle-aged men, exercise
a. improves fitness levels
b. increases self-confidence
c. increases anxiety
d. all of the above
e. a and b
e. a and b
25. A negative addiction to exercise can result in
a. depression
b. strains on interpersonal relationships
c. decrease in work productivity
d. all of the above
e. a and c
d. all of the above
26. The term "positive addiction to exercise" was coined by
a. Gould
b. Burke
c. Morgan
d. Glasser
e. Bahrke
d. Glasser
27. If a person feels withdrawal symptoms after 24 to 36 hours without exercise, then the individual is considered
a. positively addicted to exercise
b. negatively addicted to exercise
c. neurotic
d. psychotic
e. none of the above
b. negatively addicted to exercise
28. Which of the following psychological explanations has NOT been put forth to help describe the positive relationship between exercise and psychological well-being?
a. enhanced feelings of control
b. "time-out"
c. positive changes in personality
d. positive social interactions
e. feelings of competency
c. positive changes in personality
29. Which of the following physiological explanations has NOT been put forth to help describe the positive relationship between exercise and psychological well-being?
a. increases in cerebral blood flow
b. reductions in muscle tension
c. structural changes in the brain
d. increases in endorphins
e. decreased maximal oxygen consumption to the tissues
e. decreased maximal oxygen consumption to the tissues
30. What conclusion have researchers reached concerning the effects of exercise on cognitive functioning?
a. Intense exercise bouts enhance cognitive functioning.
b. Overall, there is a moderate relationship between exercise and improved cognitive functioning.
c. Exercise programs conducted over longer periods are associated with gains in cognitive functioning.
d. b and c
e. a and b
d. b and c
31. It is predicted that what illness or disease will be the second-leading cause of death after heart disease by 2020?
a. anxiety neurosis
b. depression
c. skin cancer
d. abdominal cancer
e. pancreatic cancer
b. depression
32. Depression is seen most in
a. older adults
b. girls and women
c. boys and men
d. African American males
e. African American females
b. girls and women
33. Recent research on the relationship between cardiovascular fitness and cognitive functioning indicates that
a. the effects were largest on tasks involving executive control
b. the effects occur more in males than in females
c. effects were largest after exercise training exceeded 60 minutes
d. all of the above
e. a and b
a. the effects were largest on tasks involving executive control
34. According to research on the use of mirrors during exercise for women indicates that an exercise room should have
a. no mirrors
b. two mirrors
c. three mirrors
d. four mirrors
e. none of the above
a. no mirrors
35. The effect of exercise on cancer indicates
a. exercise can cause breast cancer to disappear
b. exercise can be beneficial for breast cancer patients
c. exercise can be beneficial to non-breast-cancer patients
d. a and b
e. b and c
e. b and c
1. The premise of the health belief model is that individuals will engage in preventive health behaviors depending on the individual's perception of the
a. severity of past illnesses
b. time available to exercise
c. social support network
d. exercise history
e. none of the above
a. severity of past illnesses
2. According to the Surgeon General's report, individuals exercising at ______ or lower of their aerobic capacity had the best adherence rates.
a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 20%
d. 60%
e. 70%
b. 50%
3. Which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?
a. 10% to 15% of all adults participate in vigorous and frequent physical activity.
b. 50% of adults are sedentary.
c. 75% of adults participate in exercise on a weekly basis.
d. a and b
e. a and c
d. a and b
4. The two major categories of the processes used by individuals for behavior change are
a. cognitive and physiological
b. cognitive and behavioral
c. social and physiological
d. behavioral and social
e. cognitive and social
b. cognitive and behavioral
5. In a large worksite promotion study by Marcus and colleagues, most participants were classified in which stage of the transtheoretical model?
a. action
b. action and reaction
c. preparation
d. precontemplation
e. contemplation
e. contemplation
6. Which of the following is NOT a stage in the transtheoretical model?
a. contemplation
b. precontemplation
c. action and reaction
d. preparation
e. action
c. action and reaction
7. The key elements in social cognitive theory are that the environment affects behavior and behavior affects the environment. This is known as
a. reciprocal control
b. reciprocal interception
c. self-efficacy
d. reciprocal determinism
e. perceived behavioral control
d. reciprocal determinism
8. To investigate the effectiveness of physical activity interventions, you could focus on different target populations or settings. These can include all of the following except
a. political environment
b. physical environment
c. changing communities
d. networking individuals
e. changing individuals
e. changing individuals
9. In terms of environmental factors affecting adherence, which of the following is (are) FALSE?
a. People exercising in groups display higher adherence than people exercising alone.
b. People in walking programs have lower adherence than people in running programs.
c. People who perceive their exercise leader as knowledgeable and likable exhibit higher levels of adherence.
d. a and b
e. b and c
b. People in walking programs have lower adherence than people in running programs.
10. According to the Surgeon General's report, people exercising for ____ at a time had the best adherence rates.
a. 20 to 30 minutes
b. 30 to 60 minutes
c. 10 to 20 minutes
d. 15 to 45 minutes
e. 30 to 45 minutes
a. 20 to 30 minutes
11. In terms of affecting adherence, which of the following is (are) true?
a. Overweight people are more likely to adhere to exercise programs.
b. People with documented heart disease are more likely to adhere to exercise programs.
c. The higher the cost of the exercise program, the lower the adherence.
d. b and c
e. a and c
d. b and c
12. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. Knowing the health benefits of physical activity enhances adherence.
b. Feelings of enjoyment enhance adherence.
c. Expecting health benefits from exercise enhances adherence.
d. a and b
e. b and c
e. b and c
13. Reasons for attrition from exercise programs can be classified as
a. internal and controllable
b. external and controllable
c. internal and uncontrollable
d. external and uncontrollable
e. none of the above
a. internal and controllable
14. Studies have shown that in terms of barriers to exercise,
a. there were no differences between whites and blacks
b. blacks gave lack of time more as a reason for not exercising
c. whites gave lack of time more as a reason for not exercising
d. blacks mentioned lack of energy more often as a barrier to exercise
e. whites mentioned lack of energy more often as a barrier to exercise
a. there were no differences between whites and blacks
15. Which of the following will have a positive effect on adherence to a new exercise program?
a. previous participation in supervised exercise programs
b. participation in intercollegiate sports
c. class size
d. b and c
e. a and b
a. previous participation in supervised exercise programs
16. According to research on adherence to exercise programs, what percentage of individuals starting an exercise program will likely drop out after six months?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 25%
d. 10%
e. 65%
a. 50%
17. Which of the following statements is (are) FALSE?
a. Exercise of moderate or short duration does not increase appetite.
b. Regular exercise can produce substantial decreases in weight over time.
c. An estimated 10 to 15 million American adults are overweight.
d. a and c
e. b and c
c. An estimated 10 to 15 million American adults are overweight.
18. Exercise can be beneficial in which of the following ways?
a. weight control
b. building self-esteem
c. reducing the risk of hypertension
d. all of the above
e. a and c
d. all of the above
19. Which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?
a. Throughout adolescence, physical activity declines among girls but not among boys.
b. Inactivity is more prevalent among whites than blacks.
c. Daily attendance in physical education classes increased from 25% to 40% between 1990 and 1995.
d. none of the above
e. a and c
d. none of the above
20. The theory of planned behavior extends the theory of reasoned action by including the factor of
a. perceived ability
b. perceived behavioral control
c. perceived barriers to exercise
d. exercise history
e. previous participation in varsity sport
b. perceived behavioral control
21. Studies on social support as a strategy to help adherence have indicated that
a. social support, compared to a lack of it in control groups, produces increases in adherence
b. social support does not increase adherence
c. social support works only with support from spouses and family
d. social support works only with support from close friends
e. none of the above
a. social support, compared to a lack of it in control groups, produces increases in adherence
22. Which of the following is (are) recommended for school and community programs promoting physical activity in young people?
a. Include parents in physical activity instruction.
b. Implement a health education curriculum about healthy lifestyles.
c. Eliminate extracurricular activities since they distract from the school's physical education instruction.
d. a and c
e. a and b
e. a and b
23. The major barrier to physical activity is
a. lack of energy
b. lack of motivation
c. injury or illness
d. lack of time
e. lack of facilities
d. lack of time
24. The most positive effects for exercise intervention programs occur in which of the following settings?
a. home
b. health care
c. schools
d. worksites
e. communities
e. communities
25. In a research study, exercise adherence in a walking program was maximized when participants were called _______ to prompt them to walk.
a. once a week
b. once a month
c. once every other week
d. every day
e. none of the above
a. once a week
26. In a corporate study on exercise adherence, attendance was lowest when
a. the company paid the entire reimbursement fee
b. the reimbursement fee was split between the company and participant
c. the participant paid the entire reimbursement fee
d. no reimbursement fee was paid
e. none of the above
c. the participant paid the entire reimbursement fee
27. Contracts to enhance exercise adherence should include
a. realistic goals
b. dates by which the goals should be reached
c. consequences for not meeting goals
d. all of the above
e. a and b
d. all of the above
28. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the determinants of exercise adherence?
a. Higher income is associated with more active lifestyles.
b. College-educated individuals have lower participation rates in exercise than those individuals with only a high school education.
c. High self-efficacy is associated with higher levels of physical activity.
d. a and b
e. a and c
e. a and c
29. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for setting up an exercise program to enhance adherence?
a. Exercise alone.
b. Make the exercise enjoyable.
c. Reinforce early success.
d. a and c
e. b and c
a. Exercise alone.
30. The setting producing the best adherence is
a. worksite
b. community
c. hospital based
d. home
e. fitness club
b. community
31. Which of the following statements is (are) true of the use of a decision balance sheet?
a. It involves sensitizing potential exercise participants to the positive and negative outcomes of participating in an exercise program.
b. It helps exercise leaders make decisions on who will adhere to an exercise program.
c. It helps exercise leaders make decisions concerning the best activities for the exercisers.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
d. all of the above
32. Two ways to increase intrinsic motivation for exercise are to focus on one's self and have what type of orientation?
a. product
b. outcome
c. process
d. performance
e. none of the above
c. process
33. According to research on association and dissociation strategies and adherence,
a. dissociation produces better attendance than association does
b. association produces better attendance than dissociation does
c. dissociation produces better long-term maintenance than association does
d. a and c
e. b and c
d. a and c
34. According to research on goal setting and adherence,
a. flexible goals are better than rigid goals
b. distance-based goals are better than time-based goals
c. short-term goals (weekly) are better than long-term goals (six weeks)
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
d. all of the above
35. The goal most often given by exercisers was
a. to improve strength
b. to lose weight
c. to improve cardiovascular fitness
d. to tone muscles
e. to have fun
c. to improve cardiovascular fitness
36. Based on research findings, which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. Attendance contracts and lotteries are successful in improving adherence rates.
b. Individual feedback produces more adherence than group feedback.
c. Self-reward increases adherence rates.
d. all of the above
e. a and b
d. all of the above
37. Which of the following findings using behavior modification approaches to exercise adherence is (are) true?
a. A poster encouraging stair climbing instead of taking the elevator immediately increased people’s incidences of taking the stairs from 6% to 34%.
b. People willing to sign a statement of intent to comply with the exercise program had significantly better attendance than those refusing to sign such a statement.
c. Individuals given a choice concerning the activities they participated in had higher levels of adherence than individuals who were not given a choice.
d. a and b
e. b and c
e. b and c
38. According to charting attendance and participation approaches, charts can be important in
a. maintaining interest
b. keeping people constantly informed
c. enhancing the effects of social facilitation
d. all of the above
e. a and b
d. all of the above
39. Which of the following is NOT an approach used in enhancing exercise adherence?
a. social support
b. decision making
c. association
d. goal setting
e. behavior modification
c. association
40. According to American College of Sports Medicine guidelines, exercise should be
a. performed three or four days a week
b. performed for 45 minutes to 1 hour per exercise bout
c. performed at 50% to 80% of maximal heart rate
d. all of the above
e. a and c
e. a and c
41. For special populations, which of the following is NOT a major reason for not exercising?
a. inconvenience
b. lack of motivation
c. lack of money
d. lack of opportunity
e. lack of time
d. lack of opportunity
42. Exercise adherence has been difficult in part because of exercise prescriptions that
a. are too flexible in intensity, frequency, and duration
b. are overly restrictive (do not enhance motivation)
c. are based solely on fitness data (not psychological readiness to exercise)
d. b and c
e. a and c
d. b and c
43. To prevent a relapse in physical activity, it is suggested that a person
a. use positive self-talk and imagery strategies
b. replace “wants” with “shoulds”
c. expect and plan for lapses
d. a and c
e.a amd b
d. a and c
44. As a person moves through the stages of changes, reasons for exercise become more
a. external
b. internal
c. hypothetical
d. behavioral
e. stable
b. internal
45 According to the ecological model, the key aspect of these models is
a. the social environment
b. the physical environment
c. one’s emotional environment
d. one’s mental outlook on the environment
e. none of the above
b. the physical environment
46. Americans spent much more money on exercise equipment between 1986 and 1996. As a result, the amount of physical activity during that period has increased
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 2%
d. 15%
e. 23%
c. 2%
47. In order to facilitate adherence to mental training, it is suggested that
a. mental skills not be integrated into existing routines
b. enjoyment of mental training be emphasized
c. the perceived costs (e.g., time) of mental training be reduced
d. all of the above
e. e. and c
d. all of the above
48. Irregular exercisers, compared to regular exercisers, place more significance on
a. goals that are more difficult
b. goals that are too easy
c. goals that are interfering
d. goals that are specific
e. goals that are general
c. goals that are interfering