Skin Care, Wound Care, Burns And First-Aid

Front 1

Optimal time for suture removal in the face?

Back 1

3-5 days

Front 2

Optimal time for suture removal in the scalp?

Back 2

7 days

Front 3

Optimal time for suture removal in the chest and extremities?

Back 3

8-10 days

Front 4

Optimal time for suture removal in high tension joints and hands?

Back 4

10-14 days

Front 5

Optimal time for suture removal in the back?

Back 5

10-14 days

Front 6

Povidone-iodine, 10%, Topical Solution

Back 6

Betadine

Front 7

Hibiclens?

Back 7

Chlorhexidine Gluconate (4%)

Front 8

Neosporin ointment?

Back 8

Bacitracin Zinc +Polymyxin B Sulfate + Neomycin Sulfate

Front 9

Polysporin ointment?

Back 9

Bacitracin Zinc + Polymyxin B Sulfate (10,000 units)

Front 10

Which agent in Neosporin causes the most allergic reactions?

Back 10

Neomycin

Front 11

Which agent in antibiotic ointments treats mainly gram-negative infections?

Back 11

Polymixin-B

Front 12

Which agent in antibiotic ointments treats gram positive infections?

Back 12

Bacitracin

Front 13

Which agent in antibiotic ointments is an aminoglycoside?

Back 13

Neomycin

Front 14

What is the spectrum of Neomycin?

Back 14

Gram negative bacteria with partial activity against Gram positive bacteria

Front 15

Which componant of antibiotic ointments can be used as a good alternative to Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for burn patients with Sulfa-Allergies?

Back 15

Bacitracin

Front 16

Bactine?

Back 16

Benzalkonium chloride with lidocaine.

Front 17

Lanacane?

Back 17

Benzocaine (20%), Benzethonium Chloride (0.2%)?

Front 18

Band-Aid One-Step

Back 18

Benzalkonium Chloride (0.13%) foam

Front 19

Tefla?

Back 19

Curad non-stick pads

Front 20

When should primary dressings be changed?

Back 20

Every 24 hours or when wet

Front 21

Antibiotic in Band-Aid Plus?

Back 21

Each gram of ointment contains Polymyxin B Sulfate 10,000 units and Bacitracin Zinc 500 units in a special white petrolatum base

Front 22

What is the role of ABD pads as wound dressings?

Back 22

For moderate to heavy bleeding.

Front 23

Powder first-aid product the reacts with blood to stop bleeding?

Back 23

Urgent QR

Front 24

Active ingredient in urgent QR?

Back 24

Hydrophilic Polymer and Potassium Salt

Front 25

First-aid product for minor cuts wear appearance and flexibility are and issue?

Back 25

Band-aid liquid bandage and New-Skin

Front 26

First-line antibiotic for animal bites?

Back 26

Amoxicillin-clavulanate potassium 500/125 mg PO tid or 875/125 mg PO bid

Front 27

2nd-line antibiotic for animal bites?

Back 27

Doxycycline (Vibramycin) 100 mg PO bid, except for children younger than eight years and pregnant women

Front 28

Other acceptable combinations for animal bites?

Back 28

Clindamycin (Cleocin) and a fluoroquinolone in adults,
Clindamycin and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) in children.

Front 29

Antibiotic choice for animal bites with the greatest risk of treatment failure due to antimicrobial resistance?

Back 29

Erythromycin

Front 30

True or false, the canine strain of rabies to date has been eliminated?

Back 30

True

Front 31

Postexposure prophylaxis for suspected rabies from an animal bite?

Back 31

Clean the wound. Human rabies immune globulin @ 20 IU/kg injected at and around the bite site. One dose of human rabies vaccine in deltoid on days 0-3-7-14-28.

Front 32

Stage of wound healing that lasts 2 days to 3 weeks and is marked by granulation, collagen deposits, contraction and epithelialization?

Back 32

Cellular proliferation

Front 33

Stage of wound healing that can last from 3 weeks to 2 years and results from granulation, contraction and resurfacing by epithelial cells.

Back 33

Remodeling (Wound closure or maturation).

Front 34

Decubitus Ulcers are also known as?

Back 34

Pressure sores

Front 35

Characterization of stage-1 pressure sores?

Back 35

Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin.
Irregularly shaped area of tissue swelling with warmth or edema. Resembles an area prior to formation of a blister.

Front 36

Pressure sore stage marked by full thickness skin loss into subcutaneous tissue with necrosis and undermining that takes 1-3 months to heal?

Back 36

Stage-3 pressure sore

Front 37

Stage 4 pressure sores are marked by full thickness skin loss with deep extension that involves muscle, bone, tendon, or joint spaces with necrosis, undermining and sinus tracts present. How long does it take for a stage 4 pressure sore to heal?

Back 37

12-24 months

Front 38

How deep are stage-2 pressure sores?

Back 38

Partial thickness skin loss involving epidermis or dermis.

Front 39

True or false, wounds heal from the top down?

Back 39

False

Front 40

Are topical antibiotics recommended for pressure sores?

Back 40

No, routine antibiotic use & cultures should be avoided due to resistance and common bacterial colonization.

Front 41

List the 3 topical anti-infective products recommended when this type of treatment is required for pressure sores.

Back 41

Bactroban (mupirocin)
Silvadene (silver sulfadiazine)
Flagyl (metronidazole)

Front 42

The two most common systemic infections resulting from pressure sores are?

Back 42

Sepsis and Osteomyelitis

Front 43

List the 4 primary risk factorsfor pressure ulcers.

Back 43

Pressure, shear, friction and moisture

Front 44

Cause of internal injuries marked by stretching & angulation of vessels with resultant thrombosis & damage to dermis?

Back 44

Shear

Front 45

How often should a patient be moved to prevent pressure sores?

Back 45

Every 2 hours

Front 46

True or false, pressure sores can develop in as little as 15 minutes?

Back 46

True.

Front 47

In the nutritional assessment & support of pressure ulcers, serum albumin levels should be_________.

Back 47

>3.5

Front 48

In the nutritional assessment & support of pressure ulcers, the total lipid count (TLC) should be_________.

Back 48

>1800

Front 49

In addition to dietary protein, what 2 vitamin supplements are recommended most for wound healing?

Back 49

Vitamin C 500mg BID
Zinc sulfate 200 - 600 mg QD

Front 50

The wound cleaning product of choice is?

Back 50

Normal saline

Front 51

True or false, wet-to-dry dressings are recommended for debridement in chronic wound management?

Back 51

False, wet-to-moist dressings are now recommended.

Front 52

What are wet-to-moist dressings wetted with?

Back 52

Normal saline

Front 53

Beads placed into a wound bed to absorb exudate, bacteria and other debris are known as?

Back 53

Dextranomers

Front 54

Dextranomers fall under which wound debridement category?

Back 54

Mechanical

Front 55

This wound managment involves topical, enzymatic or autolytic debridement.

Back 55

Chemical debridement

Front 56

A common dextranomer brand name is?

Back 56

Debrisan

Front 57

Debriding ointment that contains 250 collagenase units per gram of white petrolatum USP?

Back 57

Collagenase (Santyl)

Front 58

Debridment ointment containing Balsam Peru, Castor Oil USP/NF, Trypsin USP?

Back 58

Xenaderm

Front 59

Purpose of Balsam Peru in Xenaderm?

Back 59

Increases blood flow to the wound site

Front 60

List the 4 most important characteristics of wound dressings?

Back 60

Permeable to oxygen
Protect against infection
Protect from physical injury
Provide moist environment for healing

Front 61

Hydrocolloid dressing for the management of light to moderately exuding wounds?

Back 61

DuoDerm

Front 62

Unique Gelling Foam dressing combining the simplicity of foam with the benefits of Hydrofiber® Technology?

Back 62

Versiva

Front 63

Polyurethane film providing absorbent, waterproof and bacteria-proof film dressing.

Back 63

Op-site

Front 64

Topical ulcers caused by fibrin leaking from blood vessels and forming obstructive rings around capillary valves that lead to ischemia and tissue breakdown?

Back 64

Venous ulcers

Front 65

Most painful topical ulcers?

Back 65

Arterial ulcers

Front 66

Mechanism explaining arterial ulcers?

Back 66

Severe, occlusive disease of the peripheral vascular system.

Front 67

Recombinant human platelet-derived growth factor for topical administration that promotes chemotactic recruitment and proliferation of cells involved in wound repair and enhances formation of granulation tissue?

Back 67

Regranex Gel

Front 68

Generic name for Regranex?

Back 68

Becaplermin

Front 69

How many compressions should be given in CPR?

Back 69

30 compressions for every 2 breaths

Front 70

How long should ice be applied to a strain or sprain?

Back 70

20 minutes on / 20 minutes off

Front 71

What is the ibuprofen dose for children?

Back 71

10-15 mg/kg every 4-6 hours

Front 72

Best first aid tape for tender skin?

Back 72

Paper tape

Front 73

Best first aid tape for eye injuries?

Back 73

Paper tape

Front 74

Strongest first aid tape?

Back 74

Cloth tape

Front 75

True or false, elevated body temperature is a sign of heat exhaustion?

Back 75

False, elevated body temperature is a symptom of heat stroke.

Front 76

Pupil dilation occurs in heat exhaustion or heat stroke?

Back 76

Heat exhaustion. Small pupils are a sign of heat stroke.

Front 77

Active ingredients in Sarna anti-itch spray?

Back 77

Camphor (0.5%) Menthol (0.5%)

Front 78

Active ingredients in Sarna SS

Back 78

Pramoxine Hydrochloride (1%)

Front 79

Active ingredients in AfterBite?

Back 79

Ammonia (counterirritant) 3.5%

Front 80

Topical anesthetic that can be used for burns?

Back 80

Benzocaine
Lidocaine
Pramoxine

Front 81

When are sutures indicated in wound care?

Back 81

Injury occurs on face
Cut is “jagged” looking
Cut will not stay shut or can be pulled apart
Injury <24 hours old

Front 82

Which of the following is not a definitive indication of a broken bone?
“Pop” sound
Tenderness to touch
Painful swelling
Deformity

Back 82

Tenderness to touch

Front 83

First aid treatment options for jellyfish stings?

Back 83

Acetic Acid
Baking Soda
Meat Tenderizer

Front 84

Drug of choice for jellyfish stings?

Back 84

Diluted vinegar

Front 85

The skin can tolerate temperature up to ____ degrees.

Back 85

104 degrees

Front 86

Cell damage occurs from burns due to _____?

Back 86

Protein denaturation.

Front 87

Blisters indicate _______ degree burns?

Back 87

Second degree

Front 88

True or false, healing of 3rd degree burns will not occur without grafting?

Back 88

True

Front 89

The rule of nines is used to estimate burn surface area for adults. Name the tool used to estimate the burn surface area in children?

Back 89

Lund Browder Diagram

Front 90

Adults and children with burns over __________ of the body should be referred to the ED.

Back 90

Extensive burns>10% BSA in adults, >5% BSA in children

Front 91

Full thickness burns _______ in diameter should be referred to the ED.

Back 91

>2 cm

Front 92

Topical antimicrobial drug of choice for major burns?

Back 92

Silver sufadiazine

Front 93

Brand names of silver sufadiazine products?

Back 93

SSD, Thermazene, Silvadene

Front 94

First Signs of Infection in major burns?

Back 94

Erythema
Swelling
Increased Tenderness
Changes in drainage

Front 95

Most important factors in the selection of dressings for minor burns?

Back 95

Sterile is best
Non-adherent
Flexible

Front 96

Active ingredient in the topical burn product Sulfamylon?

Back 96

Mafenide acetate

Front 97

Topical cream containing 4% lidocaine?

Back 97

LMX

Front 98

Topical Analgesic Lotion Containing Pramoxine?

Back 98

Caladryl clear

Front 99

Topical analgesic spray containing pramoxine?

Back 99

Sarna Sensitive Skin

Front 100

When is topical hydrocortisone used for minor burn treatment?

Back 100

For itching after the skin has healed and begun to peel.

Front 101

Active ingredient in Solarcain?

Back 101

Lidocaine Hydrochloride (0.5% )

Front 102

Longest radiation length from sun rays?

Back 102

UV-A

Front 103

Type of radiation produced by tanning beds?

Back 103

UV-A

Front 104

Sun radiation that causes the most skin damage?

Back 104

UV-A

Front 105

Sun radiation that causes sunburn?

Back 105

UV-B

Front 106

True or false, photo-allergic reactions cause skin rashes that extend to non-exposed areas, whereas photo-toxic reactions are confined to the site of exposure?

Back 106

True

Front 107

Which type of agent causes photo-allergic reactions, topical or systemic?

Back 107

Topical

Front 108

True or false, photo-allergic reactions are dose related and occur on first exposure?

Back 108

False. Unlike phot0-toxic reactions, photo-allergic reactions are not dose related and generally occur on or after the 2nd exposure.

Front 109

True or false, photo-toxic reactions can be the result of either topical or systemic exposure?

Back 109

True

Front 110

Sunscreen product that protects against photosensitivity reactions and is usually found in combinations?

Back 110

Menthyl anthranilate- MERADIMATE*
Blocks UV-A

Front 111

Sunscreen ingredients that block both UV-A and UV-B radiation?

Back 111

Benzophenones

Front 112

Sunscreen ingredient that blocks only UV-B radiation?

Back 112

Cinnamates

Front 113

Examples of cinnamate sunscreen ingredients?

Back 113

Ethylhexyl - p. methoxycinnamate
Octocrylene
Octyl methoxycinnamate-OCTINOXATE*

Front 114

Avobenzone contains Parsol 1789 and protects against photosensitivity reactions. What is the active ingredient in this product and what type(s) of radiation are blocked?

Back 114

Dibenzolymethane, UV-A

Front 115

Which sunscreen ingredient causes the most allergic reactions?

Back 115

Oxybenzone

Front 116

Sunscreen ingredient that blocks the most UV-B radiation?

Back 116

Para-Amino Benzoic Acid (PABA) and PABA Esters

Front 117

A good rule of thumb with respect to sunscreens would be to use an oxybenzone containing product _______________and a non-oxybenzone product ____________.

Back 117

Oxybenzone below the neck, non oxybenzone above the neck.

Front 118

Salicylate containing sunscreens (OCTISALATE) are good for sensitive individuals but require frequent application have only ________ the absorbency of PABA.

Back 118

One-third absorbency of PABA (Coppertone)

Front 119

Another sunscreen choice for individuals with sensitive skin would be?

Back 119

Cinnamates (Octyl methoxycinnamate-OCTINOXATE)

Front 120

The main disadvantage of cinnamate containing sunscreens is that they are?

Back 120

Easily removed

Front 121

Amount of UV-B radiation absorbed by SPF-30?

Back 121

97%

Front 122

Amount of increase in UV-B protection (above 97%) provided by SPF levels over 30?

Back 122

0.8%

Front 123

What is the difference between sunscreen oils and sunscreen gels and creams?

Back 123

Creams and gels provide best retention
Oils and Lotions have lower SPF numbers

Front 124

Patients with sensitive skin should avoid sunscreen products containing ____________.

Back 124

Benzophenones (oxybenzone)

Front 125

Examples of Oxybenzone Free sunscreens?

Back 125

Banana boat kids and banana boat baby tear free

Front 126

Sunscreen product containing Titanium Dioxide (5%) and Zinc Oxide (10%)

Back 126

Blue Lizard Sensitive

Front 127

Sunscreen Spray containing Octinoxate (7.5%) Octocrylene (10%) and Oxybenzone (3%)

Back 127

Bull Frog Sport Spray

Front 128

For full coverage, the recommended amount of sunscreen per application is about 30 ml (1 oz.). How many applications are in a 240 ml. bottle?

Back 128

Do the math

Front 129

Sunscreen product most recommended by pediatricians

Back 129

Coppertone Water Babies

Front 130

The atopic triad includes?

Back 130

Asthma , atopic dermatitis and allergic rhinitis

Front 131

Condition marked by a malfunction of the body's immune system, which causes an acute inflammation of the skin and is characterized by the appearance of dry, red and extremely itchy plaques.

Back 131

Atopic dematitis

Front 132

Mechansism explaining atopic dermatitis?

Back 132

Immune reaction causing increased serum levels of immunoglobulin E.

Front 133

Easiest way to distinguish atopic dermatitis from allergic contact dermatitis?

Back 133

Atopic dermatitis is usually symetrical

Front 134

Main ingredients in Eucerin cream?

Back 134

Water, Petrolatum, Mineral Oil

Front 135

Main ingredients in Cetaphil lotion?

Back 135

Purified Water, Glycerin

Front 136

Top 6 topical products that cause contact dermatitis?

Back 136

Neomycin
Diphenhydramine
Lanolin
Urea
Benzocaine
Benzophenones

Front 137

Active ingredient in Aquaphor ointment?

Back 137

Petrolatum

Front 138

Main ingredients in emollient/lubricant products?

Back 138

Mineral oil
Petrolatum
Refined lanolin
Dimethicone*
Shea butter

Front 139

Mechanism of humectant products?

Back 139

Draw water from dermis into epidermis

Front 140

Main ingredients in humectant products?

Back 140

Glycerin
Sorbitol
Propylene glycol

Front 141

Keratin softening agents?

Back 141

Allantoin 0.5-2%
Glycolic acid-alpha hydroxy acid
Lactic acid
Urea 10-30%

Front 142

It's role is to soften the crustiest skin?

Back 142

Urea

Front 143

Products that exfoliate and result in smoother skin with eventual normalization of keratinization?

Back 143

Alpha Hydroxy Acids

Front 144

Examples of Alpha Hydroxy Acids?

Back 144

Citric acid
Glycolic acid up to 20% OTC
Gluconic acid
Lactic acid 12%=AmLactin
Malic acid

Front 145

What is the purpose of the following agents in chronic wound care?
Gelatin Sponge (Gelfoam)
Benzoyl Peroxide
Dextranomer
Mercurochrome
Insulin
Powdered Gelatin

Back 145

Pharmacologic Agents to Promote Granulation & Epithelialization

Front 146

The following agents fall under which class of wound care products?
Op-Site
Tegaderm
Acu-Derm
Bioclusive
Opraflex

Back 146

Polyurethane Film Dressings to Promote Granulation & Epithelialization

Front 147

Under which class would the following wound care agents fit?
Hydrocolloid Occlusive Dressing
DuoDerm
Comfeel Ulcer Care
Intact
Restore Wound Care
Intrasite

Back 147

Occlusive Dressings to Promote Granulation & Epithelialization

Front 148

Vigilon and Geliperm are?

Back 148

Hydrogel Dressings to Promote Granulation & Epithelialization

Front 149

Hydron, Silicone Spray and
Silicone Foam are chronic wound products that?

Back 149

Act as Synthetic Barriers and Promote Granulation & Epithelialization