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194 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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Kuszmaul sign

Neck vein distention during inspiration due to increased right-sided venous pressure due to:
-Right ventricular infarction
-Tension pneumothorax
-PE
-tamponade
Stridor
Most prominent over the glottis. More distinct upon inspiration.
PFT for asthma
FEV1/FVC <70

Normal FEV1 >80%

FEV1/FVC < 70 in general indicates airway obstruction

When is it necessary to taper steroids

After 14 days of use
BOOP
Idiopathic bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia
Relationship of ciprofloxacin to Theo
Cipro can inhibit the hepatic breakdown of Theo leading to toxic levels
Spirometry
It the most widely used pulmonary function test.

Spirometry is obtained by measuring the forced expiratory volume overtime after the patient has taken a deep inspiration.

FVC

Forced vital capacity: the maximum volume exhaled

How PET scans work

PET scanning is based on the principle that cancer cells have a high rate of glycolysis (converting glucose to energy) compared to non-cancer cells.

Causes a false positive PET scans
-TB
-Fungal diseases
-Sarcoidosis
-Other inflammatory condition
Causes of false negative PET scans
Low-grade tumor such as:
-Adenocarcinoma in situ
-Carcinoid tumor
-Malignancies less than 1 cm in diameter
Best use of bronchoscopy
Effective method for sampling:
-Central airway lesions
-Mediastinal nodes
-Parenchymal masses

Pearls: Peripheral pulmonary nodules < 2 cm in diameter are best sampled with CT guided percutaneous biopsy
Use of endobronchial ultrasound
It has made endoscopic lung cancer staging similar in yield to mediastinoscopy but without skin incision and general anesthesia

Asthma remodeling

It is due to uncontrolled inflammation or repeat exacerbations leading to structural airway changes.
Age onset of asthma
Typically in childhood but adult onset is well recognized even in the elderly.
Incidence of asthma
5% of the adult population in the US.

More prevalent in western cultures.
Allergan testing in asthma
Between 70 and 90% of patients with asthma have allergies demonstrated with skin testing and confirmed by relevant history
Typical asthma triggers
Viral URI
Cold air
Stress
Exercise
FEV1
The forced expiratory volume exhaled in the first second
Clubbing is suggestive of what disease?
Cystic fibrosis
Confirmatory asthma testing
FEV1/FVC ratio: <70

Reversibility (12% or greater improvement in FEV1 after administration of bronchodilators)

Patients with suspected asthma who have normal spirometry should undergo a bronchial challenge test to assess for airway hyperresponsiveness; a negative test generally excludes asthma
Early and late responses of asthma attacks
Early phase: 30 minutes to 1 hour

Late response: return of asthma symptoms 3 to 8 hours after
Reactive airways dysfunction syndrome (RADS)
It is a distinct type of occupational asthma that results from a single accidental exposure to high levels of irritant vapors, gases, or fumes such as chloride gas, bleach or ammonia.

This exposure leads to significant airway injury with PERSISTENT airway inflammation, dysfunction, and hyperresponsiveness.

Symptoms can persist for years afterwards.

Cough variant asthma

It is a type of asthma in patients who have cough as their main symptom.

The cough is typically dry and sometimes the only symptom of asthma.

The diagnosis is confirmed with spirometry that demonstrates obstruction with improvement following bronchodilator or with bronchial challenge testing that shows responsiveness.
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
This condition should be thought of with patients who have difficult to control asthma or frequent exacerbations requiring systemic steroids.

A chest x-ray should be obtained which often will show: pulmonary infiltrates or bronchiectasis

This condition is a result of sensitization Aspergillus fumigatus.

DX:
Chest x-ray
Elevated serum levels of IGE
Positive skin test to Aspergillus
Eosinophilia

Pearls: left untreated BPA can result in progressive pulmonary fibrosis and loss of lung function.
Characteristics of exercise-induced bronchospasms
Triggered by breathing in cold or dry air

Symptoms are at their worst not during exercise but immediately following cessation of exercise.

Bronchial obstruction peaks 5 to 10 minutes after cessation and resolves within 30 minutes.

Pearls: symptoms should be distinguished from vocal cord dysfunction or exercise-induced Gerd

Prevention: treatment with short acting Beta2 agonist 15 minutes before exercise. This protection can last up to 3 hours.
Symptoms of vocal cord dysfunction
Prominent wheezing that is more noticeable during inspiration (stridor).

Abrupt onset of symptoms that are felt in the neck. Abrupt onset is NOT typical of asthma.

Pearls: this condition can be difficult to diagnosed in a patient with a history of asthma.

DX: laryngoscopy

RX: patient education, behavior modification, and speech therapy.
Samter Triad
1. Severe asthma
2. Aspirin sensitivity
3. Nasal polyps

Aspirin sensitivity should be considered in patients with difficult to control disease.

Asthma patients who must use aspirin should be referred for desensitization.
Typical viruses that cause URIs that triggers asthma
Rhinovirus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Influenza
Bronchial challenge testing
Diagnostically positive if FEV1 falls 20% from baseline.

This test is sensitive for asthma but not very specific.
A main goal of asthma management
To reduce the need for rescue albuterol to less than twice weekly
Types of asthma
1. Intermittent
2. Persistent: persistent asthma is further classified as:
-Mild
-Moderate
-Severe
What does MDI mean?
Pressurized metered-dose inhalers

Pearls: poor inhaler technique is a common cause of lack of response to asthma therapy
Types of long acting Beta2 agonist
Salmeterol - slower onset of action
Formoterol - rapid onset of action and last for 12 hours

Use: typically added with inhaled steroids if symptoms are not adequately controlled after inhaled steroids optimized.

Pearls:
1. Provide no anti-inflammatory effects
2. Treatment with long acting Beta two agonist as a single agent therapy in asthma is not appropriate. It can mask worsening of airway inflammation and lead to increased risk of asthma related complications.
3. There is a risk of death with these agents which has led the FDA to require a black box warning.
Anticholinergic agents used in asthma and COPD
Short acting: Ipratropium. Primarily used in COPD but also can be used in as well to enhance the bronchodilator effect of short acting Beta two agonist.

Long acting: Tiotropium
Leukotriene modifying drugs
Monteluast or Singulair

Zafirlukast or Accolate

Zileuton or Zyflo

These medications block the leukotriene effect of promoting mucus secretion, vasodilatation, and inflammation.

They are used primarily as an add-on or alternative to the mainstay medications for asthma.

These medications have been reported to cause neuropsychogenic events such as agitation, anxiety, hallucinations, depression and suicidal ideation. As a result the FDA and it a black box warning.

Owing to concerns about liver toxicity, Zyflo use has been limited.
Theophylline use
It is one of the oldest drugs for asthma.

The benefits of using this drug is it's ease-of-use and low cost.

Drawbacks of using this drug is that it is a weak bronchodilator and has a very narrow therapeutic margin.

It is used primarily as a second line alternative to inhaled corticosteroids.

Target therapeutic range is 5-12 ng/mL.

Flouroquinolones have been known to increase its circulating levels.

Symptoms of toxicity: tremor, headaches, nausea, palpitations, arrhythmia, seizure
The mainstay controllers of asthma
1. Short acting Beta two agonist
2. Inhaled corticosteroids
Anti-IGE antibody pulmonary medications
Omalizumab or Xolair

Only recommended for severe asthma who have evidence of allergies, have elevated IGE between 30 and 700, and remain symptomatic despite optimizing treatment with combination therapy.

Serious risk of anaphylactoid reaction; Therefore should be administered by an asthma specialist and the patient should be monitored for two hours after initial three doses and one hour after subsequent treatments.
Reduced TLC indicates?
TLC: total lung capacity

Reduced TLC indicates chest restriction (<80% of predicted)

Diffusing capacity of carbon monoxide (DLco)
Diffusing capacity of carbon monoxide measures the lung's ability to transfer gas across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

Six minute walk test
The six minute walk test is very useful indicator of the patient's functional capacity.

This particular helpful in patients with advanced lung or heart disease.

Accuracy of pulse ox
Accurate within 2% to 3% of arterial oxygen saturation.

Pearls: carboxyhemoglobin can cause falsely elevated oxygen saturation readings because oxyhemoglobin and carboxyhemoglobin waves are not distinguishable by most pulse ox devices.

Therefore, pulse ox should not be used in patients who are victims of fire or smoke inhalation.
Upper lobe findings on chest x-ray
Often due to:
-TB
-Sarcoidosis
-Silicosis
-Cystic fibrosis
-Languor hands cell histiocytosis
Lower lobe findings on chest x-ray
Often due to:
-Pulmonary fibrosis
-Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia
-Asbestosis
-Heart failure
Effective dose of radiation from CT versus chest x-ray
Approximately 40 times that of a chest x-ray
Go maintenance of O2 in asthma exacerbation
92%
How bronchodilators work?
Relax the smooth muscles in the airways, resulting in widening of the airways.
Side effects of long-term use of inhaled steroids?
1. Osteopenia
2. Hyperglycemia
3. Cataracts
What is the effective dose of IV steroids in severe COPD exacerbation?
The effective dose is not known
Went to use anabiotic's and COPD
1. In treating infectious exacerbations of COPD.
2. In patients with severe exacerbations of COPD who require mechanical ventilation, whether invasive or noninvasive.

A quinolone or third-generation cephalosporin is usually a good choice to cover pulmonary pathogens.
Initiation of treatment for COPD
1. Initiate monotherapy with long-acting bronchodilator or long-acting anticholinergic in patients with FEV1 less than 60% of predicted.
2. Inhaled corticosteroids should not be used alone for maintenance or rescue of COPD. This is different than asthma.
Recommendation for oxygen at home
1. Resting hypoxemia with PaO2 of 55 or lower
2. Resting pulse ox of 88% or lower

What is lung volume reduction surgery?

Involves respecting up to 30% of disease or nonfunctioning parenchyma to reduce hyperinflation and allow the remaining lung to function more efficiently.

It is only recommended in advanced COPD (maximum FEV1 less than or equal to 45%)
Indications for pulmonary rehab in COPD
1. FEV1 less than 50% of predicted
Best test for evaluating diffuse parenchymal lung disease?
High resolution chest CT
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
The most common idiopathic interstitial disease.

CT findings: peripheral and basal prominent groundglass, honeycomb and reticular changes.

Prognosis, is poor with median survival 3 to 5 years.

Treatment:
1. multiple studies have failed to demonstrate any benefit of steroids in IPF.
2. Lung transplantation is the only intervention shown to improve survival.
Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) in acute asthma exacerbation
Moderate exacerbation: PEFR 40-69% of predicted personal best

Severe exacerbation: PEFR <40%
Characteristics of nonspecific interstitial pneumonia
Most often associated with underlying connective tissue disease.

Diagnosis:
1. Chest CT showing groundglass without honeycombing
2. requires open lung biopsy showing lymphoplasmacytic interstitial infiltration

Treatment: responds to steroids
What is cryptogenic organizing pneumonia?

COP is the idiopathic form of bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia (Boop).

Presentation: it initially presents with cough and shortness of breath suggestive of CAP. But is thought about after the first 6 to 8 weeks of treatment with antibiotics but patient not improving.

CXR: bilateral, diffuse opacities

Diagnosis: lung biopsy confirmed dx

Treatment: good response to systemic steroids

Common connective tissue diseases that cause interstitial lung disease?

1. Systemic sclerosis: diffuse parenchymal lung disease is the leading cause of mortality
2. Rheumatoid arthritis

What is hypersensitivity pneumonitis?

Pneumonitis caused by repeat inhalation of finely dispersed antigens; Such as mold, bird feathers and droppings, laboratory animal dander and so on.

Treatment:
1. Antigen avoidance
2. Oral steroids for patients with severe symptoms

Types of drugs that cause parenchymal lung disease

1. Amiodarone: Clarence of drug from pulmonary parenchyma is very slow. Lung disease is one of the leading causes of stopping this medication.
2. Methotrexate; Less than 5% of patients treated with this drug developed diffuse pulmonary infiltrates.
3. Nitrofurantoin; Kerley B lines seen on chest x-ray

Radiation pneumonitis
Present with cough and/or dyspnea 6 weeks after exposure.

Most parenchymal changes resolve after six months.

Treatment: steroids in some cases
Sarcoidosis lung manifestation

Sarcoidosis is a multi organ inflammatory disease characterized by tissue infiltration by:
-Noncaseating granulomad
-Mononuclear phagocytes
-Lymphocytes

90% of patients with sarcoidosis will have pulmonary involvement.

CXR/CT: hilar lymphadenopathy (Lofgren syndrome)

What is Lymphogioleiomyomatosis?
It is a rare cystic lung disease seen in young women of childbearing age or in association with tuberous sclerosis.

Consider this diagnosis when spontaneous pneumothorax and chtlothorax in a young woman with chest imaging demonstrating hyperinflation and chest CT showing diffuse, thin-walled, small cyst.
Bronchial thermoplasty
Indicated in severe cases/difficult to manage asthma.

It consist of applying heat to the airway with a catheter that is inserted via bronchoscope connected to radio frequency generator. This treatment should occur three times.

It is supposed to reduce smooth muscle hypertrophy which has been reported in patients with asthma.
Tests for asthma doing pregnancy that should not be done
1. Allergen Skin testing

2. Bronchial challenge testing is actually contraindicated
Asthma medication safe during pregnancy
Essentially all of them including theophylline and leukotriene receptor antagonist.

Although systemic steroids have been linked to a small risk of congenital abnormalities, their use is recommended in patients with acute severe asthma.

Pearl: asthma is one the most common medical problems that complicates pregnancy.
Pathophysiology of COPD
Slowly progressive inflammatory disease of the airways and lung parenchyma.

It is characterized by gradual loss of lung function with increasing obstruction to EXPIRATORY airflow.
Pulmonary complications of COPD
Pulmonary hypertension
Cor pulmonale
Pneumonia
Pneumothorax
Bronchiectasis
Atelectasis
Lung cancer
Percentage of heavy smokers who develop COPD
20%
Large global risk factor for COPD other than smoking
Exposure to smoke from indoor burning biomass fuels such as wood, charcoal, and vegetable matter.

Test to diagnose COPD

Spirometry: a post bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70 is diagnostic.

Note, diagnostic spirometry should be performed AFTER administration of inhaled bronchodilators because this will improve the accuracy of the study results.
Asbestosis exposure period in the US
1940-1979
When to do a thoracentesis due to plural effusion?
Unexplained effusions >1 cm in thickness
Testing for transudative or exudative plural effusion:
Exudative if one criteria met:
1. Pleural total protein to serum total protein ratio > 0.5

2. Pleural fluid lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level >2/3 the upper limit of normal

Transudative if neither of the above criteria met.
Conditions associated with bloody pleural effusions?
-Trauma
-Cancer
-Tuberculosis
The three types of parapneumonic effusions
1. Uncomplicated: exudative, White blood cells present but no bacteria. No drainage needed.
2. Complicated: exudative, bacteria present in fluid. May respond to antibiotics but likely require drainage.
3. Empyema: pus in the plural space. Always requires drainage.
Low pleural fluid glucose suggest:
-TB
-Parapneumonic effusion
-Malignant effusion
-Rheumatoid disease
Pleural fluid analysis of chylothorax
-TG >110
-Presence of chylomicrons
Pleural fluid analysis seen TB
Any lymphocytic predominate exudate in the presence of a positive PPD should be considered TB until proven otherwise.
Latency period of asbestos?
15 to 35 years
Type of lung disease caused by asbestosis
Restrictive lung disease
Pleural effusion seen in asbestosis
Benign, exudative, often hemorrhagic effusions with eosinophils present 30% of the time.
Lung cancers associated with asbestos exposure
-Small cell
-Non-small cell carcinoma
-Mesothelioma

Smoking in setting of asbestos exposure increases risk of lung cancer 60 fold.
What is asbestos made of?
Hydrated silicate fiber
What is the actual substance that causes silicosis?
Crystalline silicon dioxide (silica)

Any occupation that disturbs the earth's crust or uses or processes silica-containing rock or sand has potential risks of exposure.
Silicosis increases the risk of these other diseases:
-Tuberculosis
-Autoimmune diseases: systemic sclerosis, rheumatoid arthritis, and Lupus
-Lung cancer
Treatment of silicosis
There is no specific proven therapies.

Treatment of symptomatic silicosis: inhaled bronchodilators, anabiotic's for infection, supplemental oxygen in patients with hypoxemia

Pearls:Patients with silicosis should be screened for TB
What are the top three causes of pleural effusions?
1. CHF
2. Parapneumonic
3. Malignant Effusions
Treatment of empyema
1. Anabiotic's
2. Drainage
3. Intrapleural tissue plasminogen activator combined with deoxribonuclease to increase pleural drainage, decrease hospital stay, and decreased need for surgery later.

Definition of spontaneous pneumothorax
Spontaneous pneumothorax is classified as primary if lung disease is absent, and is considered secondary if lung disease is present.
Risk factors for primary spontaneous pneumothorax
1. Smoking
2. Family history
3. Marfan syndrome
4. The thoracic endometriosis
Definition of small pneumothorax
Defined as <2 cm between the lung and the chest wall on CXR

SMALL PRIMARY PNEUMOTHORACES CAN BE MONITORED WITHOUT INTERVENTION. BUT EVEN SMALL SECONDARY PNEUMOTHORACES MUST BE MANAGED IN THE HOSPITAL.
The percentage of untreated DVT's which lead to PE
10% to 30%
Most common signs of PE
-Tachypnea
-Pleuritic pain
-Dyspnea
-Anxiety
-Cough
-Increased intensity of pulmonic component of S2
When is checking a D-dimer indicated in PE
Only in low pretest probability of PE should you check a d-dimer. Because if negative in moderate to high pretest probability continued workup is indicated.

A negative D dimer in low pretest probability, clinically stable patients virtually excludes PE and eliminates further testing.
EKG changes in acute PE
-Tachycardia
-Right axis deviation
-Right bundle branch block
-S1Q3T3 pattern
Clinical scenarios were VQ scan is less reliable
-Abnormal chest x-ray
-Patients with COPD or other conditions were holding breath is difficult
Medications approved for treatment of acute PE
Heparin IV
Lovenox
Arixtra
Coumadin
How many days should the bridging anticoagulation occur after therapeutic range is reached with Coumadin
2 consecutive days. This ensures that all vitamin K dependent factors have declined and physiologic anticoagulation has been reliably achieved.
How many days should the bridging anticoagulation occur after therapeutic range is reached with Coumadin
2 consecutive days. This ensures that all vitamin K dependent factors have declined and physiologic anticoagulation has been reliably achieved.
Treatment of acute PE and setting of hypotension
1. Judicious IV fluids
2. Vasoconstrictors
3. Thrombolytic therapy in refractory hypotension followed by anticoagulation
4. If thrombolytics contraindicated, surgical or catheter embolectomy should be considered.
Duration of anticoagulation in patients with first episode of acute PE
3 months, after which the likely cause and the risks and benefits of treatment are reassessed
Definition of pulmonary hypertension
Defined as the elevation of main pulmonary artery pressure of 25 or greater during rest.

Diagnoses of PH can only be confirmed by right heart catheterization and direct measurement of me pulmonary artery pressure. A CARDIAC ULTRASOUND SHOWING A SYSTOLIC MEAN PULMONARY ARTERY PRESSURE 40 or GREATER IS HIGHLY SUGGESTIVE BUT NOT DIAGNOSTIC. Echo can be used to monitor progression.
Causes of pulmonary hypertension
80% of cases of pulmonary hypertension are due to left-sided heart dysfunction or underline chronic lung disease
Treatment of pulmonary hypertension
-In most cases treat the underlying cause. Unless 'isolated' pulmonary arterial hypertension.

-The benefits of vasodilator therapy in this population remained unproven.
Initial recommend test to evaluate for chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension
VQ scan: invariably has mismatching

Treatment:
1. Anticoagulation.
2. Definitive treatment is surgical, involves removing organize clots.
The difference in pulmonary hypertension (PH) and pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)?
PAH is a subset of PH with:
-Elevated mean pulmonary artery pressure
-Normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure less than or equal to 15
-Elevated pulmonary vascular resistance

The origin of this condition is not clear but it likely involves intrinsic under expression of vasodilators such as prostaglandin and nitrous oxide and an overexpression vasoconstrictors.

Treatment:
1. Diuretics as needed
2. Anticoagulants to prevent in situ clot formation come in many forms of this condition
3. Cardiac glycosides to augment right heart dysfunction
4. Supplemental oxygen
5. Pulmonary artery vasodilators

Pearls: Right heart cath should be performed to confirm pulmonary artery hypertension and to assess a vasodilator responsiveness before long term vasodilator therapy is attempted.
Definition of a pulmonary nodule
1. A focal, nodule opacity
2. Up to 3 cm in diameter
3. Surrounded by normal lung tissue
4. Not associated with lymphadenopathy

Lung lesions over 3 cm are considered lung masses and have a much higher likelihood of malignancy

The nodule size it is often the most important feature in predicting malignancy
Paraneoplastic Lambert-Eaton syndrome is caused by which lung cancer
Small cell

Staging system of non-small cell lung cancer

T-tumor, N-node, M-metastasis
Best standard surgical approach to resection of stage I or stage II NSCLC
Lobectomy

Patients who have marginal pulmonary reserve, limited resection such as a segmentectomy or wedge resection may be a more appropriate surgical option for these patients.

These resections are increasingly being performed by video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS) versus thoracotomy.

Stage III and stage IV lung cancer is treated with chemotherapy alone or in combination with XRT
Treatment of small cell lung cancer

Limited stage small cell lung cancer is treated primarily with combination of chemotherapy and XRT.

Pulmonary nodules benign vs malignant characteristics

1. 90% of nodules smaller than 8 mm are benign, whereas the majority of nodules larger than 2 cm are malignant.

2. Nodule smooth borders is consistent with being benign; a speculated border indicates a high likelihood of malignancy.

Pulmonary nodules that should not be followed

Less than 4 mm in diameter in never smokers or other risk factors for malignancy.

Two-year nodule stability rule
Solid nodules that remained stable in size for two years on chest x-ray or CT are considered benign and no further follow-up is indicated
What are the two types in which lung cancer is divided?
1. Non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC). 80% of all lung cancer.
2. Small cell lung cancer (SCLC)
Subtypes of non-small cell lung cancer
1. Adenocarcinoma - pre-invasive, minimally invasive, or invasive
2. Squamous cell carcinoma
3. Large cell carcinoma
Smoking rates in America

20% of men

15% women

Risk factors for lung cancer
-Tobacco smoke
-Asbestos
-Radon
-Certain metals-arsenic, chromium, nickel
-Ionizing radiation
-Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
-Pulmonary fibrosis

Paraneoplastic SIADH is caused by which lung cancer

Small cell

Paraneoplastic hypercalcemia is caused by which lung cancer

Squamous cell

What is mesothelioma
A neoplasm that arises from the mesothelial surfaces of the pleural and peritoneal cavities.

80% arise from the pleural cavity.

Prognosis: poor with median survival of 6-18 months

common symptom: dull, unrelenting pain

Treatment: chemo but usually doesn't work
What are carcinoid tumors is of the lung
Low-grade malignancy consisting of cells of neuroendocrine origin.

No association with smoking.

Typically endobrachial location: therefore patients present with hemoptysis or evidence of obstruction.

Two types of carcinoid tumor of the lungs: typical and atypical

Treatment: surgical resection in both cases.

Carcinoid syndrome (flushing and diarrhea) is rare in carcinoid tumor lung.
Location of the mediastinum
Lies between the two plural surfaces in the center of the chest and is divided into anterior, middle, and posterior compartments.
Masses is found in the anterior mediastinum
-Lymphoma
-Thyroid or parathyroid tumors
-thymoma or thymic carcinoma
-Teratoma

Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with thymoma?

-Myasthenia gravis
-pure red cell aplasia
-Hypogammaglobulinemia
Masses found in middle mediastinum
-Enlarged lymph nodes from Mets
-Lymphoma
-Granulomatous disease (sarcoidosis, fungal infections, TB)
-Giant lymph node hyperplasia (Castlemans disease)
-Diaphragmatic hernia
-Pericardio cyst
-Bronchogenic cyst
Masses found and posterior mediastinum
-Neurofibroma
-Nuerilemmoma/Schwannoma
-leiomyomas
What is mean sleep latency testing (MSLT)
This test provides an objective measure of sleepiness and is key to establishing the diagnosis of narcolepsy and Idiopathic hypersomnia.

A mean sleep latency of more than 15 minutes is considered normal and less than 5 minutes is indicative of a pathological sleepiness.

Cheyne-Stokes Breathing

It is the most common type of central sleep apnea and is also referred to as periodic breathing.

It is characterized by crescendo-decrescendo pattern of ventilation.

It is strongly associated with heart failure.
Jet lag
Results when the internal circadian clock is out of phase with the local time following air travel across multiple times zones. Usually more than 5 times zones.

It is basically an misalignment between the body's internal clock and the world's external clock.
Apnea
Complete cessation of airflow in the upper airways
Hypoapnea
Characterized by reduction in airflow in the upper airways.
What is the apnea-hypo apnea index (AHI)
It is the number of disordered breathing events (apnea and hypoapnea) per hour of sleep.

-An AHI of 5 to 15 indicates mild OSA.

-And AHI of more than 30 indicates severe OSA.

Mammalian dive reflex

In response to hypoxemia there is an acute surg in peripheral vascular resistance along with a slowing of the heart rate.

This is the pathophysiology of obstructive sleep apnea.
The most important risk factor for OSA?
Obesity
Definition of central sleep apnea
It is characterized by loss of ventilatory output from the central respiratory generator in the brainstem to the respiratory pump, which manifest on polysomnogram with the absence of respiratory effort associated with loss of airflow for at least 10 seconds.

A key mechanism of central sleep apnea is the tendency to hyperventilate and thus drive down the arterial CO2 to a level near apneic threshold-the point at which respiratory effort ceases.

Symptoms:
-Frequent awakening from sleep
-Insomnia
-Non-restorative sleep
-EDS
-Proximal nocturnal dyspnea

Diagnosis: Polysomnogram. Oximetry alone is not adequate to distinguish between OSA and CSA.

Treatment:
1. control any underlying comorbidity.
2. Adaptive servoventilation (ASV). Note CPAP can often worsen CSA unless there's underlying OSA.
Sleep breathing drive
Breathing while sleeping is primarily driven by blood carbon dioxide tension or arterial CO2 as opposed to arterial oxygen levels.
Risk factors for central sleep apnea
Heart failure
Afibrillation
Stroke
Brainstem lesions
Kidney failure
Chronic CPAP use
Opiate use
High altitude
Confirmation of hypoventilation syndrome
<90% O2 saturation for at least five minutes
Or
02 saturation <90% for >30% of total sleep time
Definition of daytime hypercapnia
Arterial PaCO2 >45

This can be a cardinal sign of COPD with CO2 retention or obesity hypoventilation syndrome (OHS).
What is high altitude periodic breathing
Nearly everyone ascends to elevations greater than 25,000 feet will experience high altitude periodic breathing, which is characterized by cyclic central apneas and hyperapneas associated with repetitive arousals from sleep, often with paroxysms of dyspnea.

This condition is rare and elevations <8200 feet

Treatment:
-Gradual rather than rapid ascent
-Acetazolamide
-Oxygen as needed
Symptoms of acute mountain sickness and high altitude cerebral Edema
Mountain sickness tends to occur at elevations greater than 6500 feet.

Symptoms of mountain sickness: headache, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, disturbed sleep

Symptoms of high altitude cerebral edema: Encephalopathic/altered mental status and ataxia. Both signs of cerebral edema in response to vasogenic brain swelling.

Treatment of cerebral edema:
-Descent
-Dexamethasone
-Oxygen
-Hyperbaric therapy
High-altitude pulmonary edema
Thought to be secondary to elevations and pulmonary arterial pressures in response to hypoxemia.

Treatment:
-Oxygen
-Descent
-If above not available vasodilators such as nifedipine or phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors (Sildenafil)
Air travel pulmonary disease
Commercial airline cabins are pressurize to an equivalent of approximately 5000 to 8200 feet which carries an oxygen tension of 110 and 120 mmHg.

Normal, at sea level, levels are 150 to 160 mmHg of oxygen.

A person with the pulse ox <92% indicates a probable need for in-flight supplemental oxygen.

Contradictions to airflight:
-COPD exacerbation with air trapping
-Pneumothorax of any size
Confirmation of hypoventilation syndrome
<90% O2 saturation for at least five minutes
Or
02 saturation <90% for >30% of total sleep time
Definition of daytime hypercapnia
Arterial PaCO2 >45

This can be a cardinal sign of COPD with CO2 retention or obesity hypoventilation syndrome (OHS).
Symptoms of acute mountain sickness and high altitude cerebral Edema
Mountain sickness tends to occur at elevations greater than 6500 feet.

Symptoms of mountain sickness: headache, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, disturbed sleep

Symptoms of high altitude cerebral edema: Encephalopathic/altered mental status and ataxia. Both signs of cerebral edema in response to vasogenic brain swelling.

Treatment of cerebral edema:
-Descent
-Dexamethasone
-Oxygen
-Hyperbaric therapy

High-altitude pulmonary edema

Thought to be secondary to elevations and pulmonary arterial pressures in response to hypoxemia.

Treatment:
-Oxygen
-Descent
-If above not available vasodilators such as nifedipine or phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors (Sildenafil)
ARDS
Acute respiratory distress syndrome. It is a non-cardiogenic form of pulmonary edema characterized by acute, persistent, diffuse lung inflammation that is injurious to alveoli and pulmonary capillary vasculature.

ARDS is now graded as mild, moderate, or severe based on pulse ox/arterial oxygen ratio.

Pulmonary edema seen in ARDS cannot be from a cardiac source.


Confirmation of hypoventilation syndrome
<90% O2 saturation for at least five minutes
Or
02 saturation <90% for >30% of total sleep time
Definition of daytime hypercapnia
Arterial PaCO2 >45

This can be a cardinal sign of COPD with CO2 retention or obesity hypoventilation syndrome (OHS).
What is high altitude periodic breathing
Nearly everyone ascends to elevations greater than 25,000 feet will experience high altitude periodic breathing, which is characterized by cyclic central apneas and hyperapneas associated with repetitive arousals from sleep, often with paroxysms of dyspnea.

This condition is rare and elevations <8200 feet

Treatment:
-Gradual rather than rapid ascent
-Acetazolamide
-Oxygen as needed
Mortality with ARDS?
40%
Confirmation of hypoventilation syndrome
<90% O2 saturation for at least five minutes
Or
02 saturation <90% for >30% of total sleep time
Signs of diaphragmatic weakness
Paradoxical inward motion of the abdomen with inspiration
The nerve that innervates the diaphragm
The phrenic nerve which arises from cervical spine roots 3, 4, and 5 (C3-5). Complete spinal cord injury above C3 level results in nearly complete loss of ventilatory muscle function.

Such patients require lifelong ventilatory support or diaphragmatic pacing.
Kyphoscoliosis causes what kind of lung disease?
Restrictive.

Restrictive lung disease can be considered extra-pulmonary; in which there is no underlying intrinsic lung disease.

How do inhaled anticholinergics work?

They modestly augment the bronchodilation affect achieved by short acting Beta 2 agonists.
ICU admission criteria for asthma exacerbation
No clinical improvement after one hour of aggressive bronchodilator therapy:
-Albuterol neb every 20 minutes x 3
-Ipratropium every 20 minutes times 3
Definition of shock
It is a state of decreased tissue perfusion, which can result in an adequate oxygen delivery for cellular needs.
What is the Rapid shallow breathing index. used for?
For determination of success rate or failure probability on vent weaning.

It is defined as the ratio of respiratory rate to tidal volume. If this ratio is greater than 105 there is a 95% chance of spontaneous breathing trial being unsuccessful. If it is less than 105 there's an 80% chance of success.
Definition of ventilator associated pneumonia (VAP)
It is defined as pneumonia with onset at least 48 hours AFTER endotracheal intubation.

Meaning of SIRS

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome. This term was introduced to describe findings:
1. Alter temperature
2. Tachycardia
3. Hyperventilation
4. Abnormal leukocyte count regardless of cause (inflammation or infection)

Simple definition of sepsis
SIRS plus suspected infection
Definition of daytime hypercapnia
Arterial PaCO2 >45

This can be a cardinal sign of COPD with CO2 retention or obesity hypoventilation syndrome (OHS).
Simple definition of severe sepsis
Sepsis associate with systemic effects including:
-Hypotension
-Decreased urine output
-Metabolic acidosis
The amount of IV fluid resuscitation likely required in severe sepsis with hypotension?
4 to 6 L in the first six hours
When should steroids be given in sepsis?
Only after blood pressure is found to be poorly responsive to fluid resuscitation and vasopressor therapy.
Meaning of CRRT
Continuous renal replacement therapy - a form of dialysis for hemodynamically unstable patients
Injurious triggers for ARDS?
Pneumonia
Aspiration
Near drowning
In elation injury
Trauma or lung contusion
Sepsis
Pancreatitis
Multiple blood transfusions
How does Naloxone work?
It is an opioid antagonist; thus an antidote to opioid overdose.

Other alternatives should be thought of after a total naloxone dose of 10 mg has been given and no quick clinical improvement.

It is relatively safe to give Naloxone (Narcan) to chronic opioid users but not to give the antidote (Flumazenil) to chronic benzodiazepine users.
Treatment of bronchospasms and upper airway edema in burn victims?
Inhaled racemic epinephrine and other bronchodilators
What is the antidote to smoke inhalation induced cyanide toxicity?
Sodium thiosulfate -Should be used rather than nitrates because of the risk of methemoglobin formation with use of nitrates.
The pathophysiology of anaphylaxis?
It results from an IgE activation on the surface of basophils and mast cells causing a massive release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators.

Severe symptoms:
-Hypotension, it is due to histamine increasing vascular permeability leading to large losses of circulating plasma volume.

Treatment: epinephrine IM or IV. Note, high dose or continuous epi may be needed for severe reactions or patients taking beta blockers.

Pearls: Radio contrast reaction is a special case in which the contrast agent directly activates mast cells without an IgE intermediary.
Definition of angioedema
Is localized tissue edema. For example affecting the lips, tongue, upper airway, G.I. tract and or extremities.

Angioedema can be due to an agent, particularly ACE I or familial.

Familial angioedema is associated with C1 inhibitor deficiency as characterized by episodes of angioedema that occur following trauma or illness and begin early in life.

Pearls:
- these forms of angioedema do not respond to usual anaphylaxis therapy, although airway management is essential owing to potential laryngeal edema.
- Angioedema can occur as a component of anaphylaxis, but it may also occur alone.
Treatment of hypertensive urgency versus hypertensive emergency
Hypertensive emergency should be treated with IV short acting medication generally not reducing blood pressure greater than 25% initially.

Hypertensive urgency generally should be treated with oral medications.
Definition of hyperthermia
Temperature above for 40 Celsius or 104 degrees Fahrenheit

Sources of hypothermia:
-Heat stroke
-Malignant hyperthermia
-Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Heatstroke
Results from failure of the body's thermoregulatory system; the system may be impaired or overwhelmed.

Thermoregulation may be impaired in the elderly and in patients who have or being treated for conditions that can lead to dehydration or anhidrosis.

Treatment: evaporative cooling methods. There is no response to centrally acting antipyretic medications.

Malignant hyperthermia

It is A reaction to certain classes of drugs including anesthetics I feel healthy and in others.

Treatment:
- stop the offending agent
- Dantrolene (muscle relaxant) 5 to 10 minutes until hyperthermia and rigidity results.
What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Idiosyncratic reaction to neuroleptic antipsychotic agents.

Symptoms: muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, autonomic dysregulation.

Definition of hypothermia

Court temperature below 35°C or 95°F

Pearls:
- hypothermia can cause hyperkalemia
- characteristic J waves or Osborne waves maybe seen on EKG which is defined as a hump between QRS and ST segments.
-Patients who are shivering can generally rewarm themselves passively if removed from the cold environment and kept dry and covered.
-Any patient no longer shivering must be actively rewarmed

Therapeutic hypothermia
It is the intentional lowering of the patient's core temperature after cardiac arrest. This has been shown to improve their neurologic outcomes in patients who recover circulation.
The different types of alcohols?
1. Ethanol
2. Ethylene glycol or anti-freeze
3. Methanol or wood alcohol
4. Isopropyl alcohol or rubbing alcohol

Ethylene glycol is converted to oxalic acid which crystallizes in renal tubules and causes kidney injury. Anion gap metabolic acidosis present.

Methanol is converted to formic acid which is a toxin to the retina. Anion gap metabolic acidosis present.

Isopropyl alcohol is converted to acetone but has no toxic metabolite. Ketones are elevated in the blood but there is no anion gap metabolic acidosis which is seen in ethylene glycol and methanol toxicities.

Pearls:
- all of these alcohols have CNS depressant effects.
- all three of these toxic alcohols can be rapidly removed with dialysis or reversed with antidote ethanol or fomepizole
Carbon monoxide poisoning
CO binds hemoglobin avidly to produce carboxyhemoglobin. Non-smokers typically have up to 3% of their hemoglobin bound by CO, whereas heavy smokers may have up to 10% to 15% bound.

Diagnosis:
-Check co-oximetery. Carboxyhemoglobin levels are typically >20%.

Treatment:
-100% oxygen
-If carboxyhemoglobin levels >20% and patient symptomatic hyperbaric oxygen
Acid-base profile of aspirin overdose
Produces both an anion gap metabolic acidosis as well as a respiratory alkalosis.

Treatment:
-Activated charcoal
-IV glucose
-Bicarbonate infusion
Antidote to beta blockers
Glucagon and calcium chloride
Antidote to CCB
Calcium chloride, glucagon
Antidote to sulfonylureas
Dextrose, Octreotide; glucagon for short term while dextrose is delayed
Antidote to tricyclic antidepressants
Bicarbonate infusion titrated to QT interval improvement on EKG
Indicator of severe protein and caloric malnutrition
Pre-albumin level <5