Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
177 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
passive immunity |
immunity that occurs by administration of an antibody produced by another individual |
|
|
active immunity |
immunity that occurs by an animals own immune response after exposure to a foreign antigen |
|
|
two forms of active immunity |
wild (exposure) and immunization (controlled exposure through vaccination) |
|
|
considerations for preventative health care |
health and age type of vaccine given route of administration concurrent incubation of infectious dz exposure to an infectious dz before immunity drug therapy (ex. prednisone suppresses immunity) immune mediated disorders |
|
|
what is the most common route of administration for vaccination? |
subcutaneous |
|
|
what is the vaccine related sarcoma rate in cats? |
1 in 10,000 |
|
|
what vaccinations are placed in the intrascapular area? |
NONE |
|
|
what vaccinations are placed in the right rear? |
rabies and feline leukemia |
|
|
where are vaccinations given that do not have a pre-determined destination? |
right shoulder |
|
|
where on the limb should vaccines be given |
as far down as possible |
|
|
what two vaccines are most highly linked to sarcomas in cats? |
rabies feline leukemia
|
|
|
where are all cattle vaccines given? |
virchow's triangle on the neck |
|
|
what is the withdrawal time post vaccine in meats? |
21- 60 days |
|
|
what does a vaccine create immunity to? |
a virus |
|
|
what does a bacterin create immunity to? |
bacteria |
|
|
what does a toxoid create immunity to? |
toxin |
|
|
types of vaccines for active immunity? |
Inactivated (killed) Live Modified Live Recombinant Toxiod |
|
|
what type of animal is a live vaccine most likely to be used on? |
feed animals and poultry |
|
|
passive immunity vaccine types |
antitoxin antiserum |
|
|
what are mixed vaccines |
polyvalent, bivalent etc. |
|
|
what are autogenous vaccines |
antigens from an outbreak in a location are used to vaccinate animals within that location |
|
|
what does it mean when a live vaccine is virulent? Avirulent? |
Virulent: can still cause the disease Avirulent: cannot cause the disease |
|
|
What are the advantages of an inactivated (killed or dead)vaccine |
very safe stable in storage unlikely to cause disease |
|
|
What are the disadvantages of an inactivated (killed or dead) vaccine? |
require repeated doses $$$ adjuvants- more likely to have a reaction more preservatives |
|
|
advantages of using a live vaccine |
fast immune response only one dose needed (inexpensive) no adjuvants (less allergenic)
|
|
|
disadvantages of using a live vaccine |
accidental exposure could cause dz in humans poor stability- shorter shelf life may be virulent |
|
|
give some examples of live vaccines |
brucella abortus- cattle contagious ecthyma- ruminants bordetella bronchiseptica |
|
|
what is a modified live vaccine (MLV) (attenuated) |
a live vaccine that has lost it's virulence but can still create immunity
|
|
|
advantages of a modified live/attenuated vaccine |
effective for many viruses fast and long lasting immunity |
|
|
disadvantages of a modified live/ attenuated vaccine |
abortion in pregnant animals mild immunosuppression more preservatives residual virulence- mild dz formation
|
|
|
examples of modified live/ attenuated vaccines? |
FVRCP Bovi- Shield 4- IBR, BVD, PI3, bovine respiratory syncytial virus |
|
|
What are the three types of recombinant vaccines |
Type 1: gene cloning Type 2: gene deleted Type 3: vectored |
|
|
explain gene cloning recombinant type of vaccines |
a gene is inserted into an organism and reproduces the antigenic product is extracted, purified and used as a vaccine |
|
|
explain the gene deleted type of recombinant vaccines |
the vaccine is genetically attenuated by deleting the gene from the pathogen |
|
|
explain the vactored type of recombinant vaccine |
uses a non pathogenic virus or bacterium to transport immunity to a disease |
|
|
Advantages of using recombinant vaccines |
fewer adverse effects effective immunity gene cloning and vectored cannot become virulent possibility for oral administration |
|
|
what types of recombinant vaccines cannot revert back to virulence? |
gene cloning and vectored |
|
|
define immunogenicity |
ability to provoke an immune response |
|
|
how is a toxoid prepared? |
a toxin is treated with heat or chemicals to eliminate it's virulence without altering it's immunogenicity |
|
|
what is an anaculture |
a vaccine combining a toxoid and a killed bacterium |
|
|
how often do toxoids need to be administered |
anually |
|
|
give some examples of toxoid vaccines |
tetanus and perfringens in horses and cattle |
|
|
what does it mean to be vaccinated? |
received the injection does not mean that immunity has developed |
|
|
what does it mean to be immunized? |
it means that immunity has developed titers (antibodies) have developed |
|
|
what is an antitoxin |
- a specific antiserum - contains antibodies extracted from the blood of an immune animal - it neutralizes toxins produced by microorganisms
|
|
|
advantages of an antitoxin |
- provides immediate passive immunity - preservatives = shelf life |
|
|
disadvantages of an antitoxin |
- contains preservatives - short lived (7-10 days) - can have potential side effects (ex. equine serum hepatits) |
|
|
What is an antiserum |
a vaccination containing antibodies from a hyperimmunized animal or an animal infected with a microorganism |
|
|
advantages of antiserum |
- immediate passive immunity - preservatives = shelf life |
|
|
disadvantages of antiserum |
- contains preservatives - kills living infectious agents (will kill a vaccination) - immunity is short lived |
|
|
how long do you have to wait to vaccinate after giving an antiserum |
21 days |
|
|
what two products produce passive immunity |
antitoxins and antiserums |
|
|
How are vaccines administered to individually owned small animals? |
subcutaneous intramuscular intranasal/ intraocular oral
|
|
|
how are vaccines administered to flocks/herds of production animals |
(less effective for the individual's immunity) oral- in feed or water aerosolized- inhaled |
|
|
what are some causes for vaccine failure |
improper handling, storage or administration |
|
|
how long does it take for immunity to develop generally? in a youth? |
10- 14 days in adults 4-5 months of age in youth |
|
|
what does it mean if an animal is considered "protected" |
they had exposure to the disease/ infectious agent and did not fall ill (think chicken pox parties) |
|
|
what branch of immunity does a titers test check |
humoral |
|
|
what are immunostimulants |
- products that stimulate the general immune system - stimulate macrophages, produce lymphokines, increase natural killer cell activity (T cells) |
|
|
examples of immunostimulants |
- acemannan (a complex carbohydrate) - staphylococcal Phage Lysate (immuno modulator) - propionibacterium acnes bacterin - mycobacterial cell wall fraction |
|
|
what are some types of adverse vaccine responses? |
- residual virulence/toxicity - allergic reactions - disease caused in immunosuppressed animals - effects on fetus/abortion - pain on injection, fever/ lethargy and soreness - hypersensitivity |
|
|
why is it important to know the health status and reproductive status of an animal before vaccinating? |
to prevent adverse vaccine reactions such as causing disease in immunosuppressed animals or causing abortion or birth defects |
|
|
What are some sypersensitivities that can be seen as a result of a vaccine? |
- Anaphylaxis: vomiting, hypersalivation, dyspnea, incoordination, pale mm, collapse - Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia (never vaccinate again) - Urticaria (hives) - Angioneurotic adema (face swelling) - vaccine related fibrosarcomas |
|
|
what can be done to prevent urticaria/ edema from vaccine reaction? |
pretreat with antihistamines |
|
|
what is the nervous system? |
the body's primary communication and control center it allows an animal to respond and adapt to its environment and to maintain a constant internal environment |
|
|
what is meant by homeostasis |
maintaining a constant internal environment |
|
|
functions of the nervous system |
- sensory input - integrative- info is computed to make the body respond - motor |
|
|
What are the two parts of the nervous sytem |
Central Nervous system (rapid/ electrical) Endocrine system (slower/ chemical) |
|
|
what does the hypothalamus do? |
it's the CNS' way of exerting control over the endocrine system via the pituitary gland |
|
|
What do Afferent nerves do? |
carry information from the body to the CNS |
|
|
what do efferent nerves do? |
carry information from the CNS to the body |
|
|
What are the two branches of the peripheral nervous system? |
autonomic and somatic |
|
|
what does the autonomic nervous system do |
carries information from the CNS to cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and glands |
|
|
what are the two branches of the autonomic nervous system? |
sympathetic (adrenergic) and parasympathetic (cholinergic) |
|
|
What are cholinergic receptors |
acetylcholine and catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) |
|
|
what is a neuron |
- a nerve cell - fundamental unit of all branches and divisions of the nervous system |
|
|
what do axons do? |
carry electrical impulses away from the nerve cell one per nerve cell |
|
|
what do dendrites do? |
carry electrical impulses to the nerve cell many per nerve cell |
|
|
what is the cerebrum responsible for? |
learning, memory, interpretation of sensory input |
|
|
what is the thalamus responsible for? |
relay center for sensory impulses from the spinal cord, brain stem and cerebellum to the cerebrum, pain perception |
|
|
what is the hypothalamus responsible for |
- it's the mediator between the nervous system and the endocrine system - controls the pituitary gland - controls and regulates the autonomic nervous system |
|
|
what is the medulla responsible for |
- carries both sensory and motor impulses between the brain and spinal cord - vital functions: breathing, heart beat, blood pressure, vomiting, swallowing, coughing, temperature, hunger, thirst, etc. |
|
|
what is the reticular system responsible for |
functions to arouse the cerebral cortex and is responsible for consciousness, sleep and wakefulness (cannot have pain without consciousness) |
|
|
What is the autonomic nervous system responsible for |
innervation of smooth muscle, heart muscle, salivary glands and other viscera |
|
|
what type of receptors does the parasympathetic nervous system use? |
cholinergic |
|
|
what type of receptors does the sympathetic nervous system use? |
adrenergic |
|
|
what type of nerve fibers do the adrenal medulla, sweat glands and hair follicles have |
only sympathetic |
|
|
What are the types of adrenergic receptors |
- alpha 1 - alpha 2 - beta 1 - beta 2 - dopaminergic |
|
|
what are the primary neurotransmitters used in the sympathetic nervous system? |
- norepinephrine - epinephrine - dopamine |
|
|
what are the cholinergic receptors |
- nicotinic - muscarinic |
|
|
what is the primary neurotransmitter in the parasympathetic nervous system? |
acetylcholine |
|
|
how do drugs affect the autonomic nervous system? |
- mimic neurotransmitters - interfere with neurotransmitter release - block the attachment of neurotransmitters to receptors - interfere with the breakdown or reuptake of neurotransmitters at the synapse (causing an increase of that neurotransmitter) |
|
|
What do cholinergic agents do? |
- Parasympathomimetic: mimic acetacholine - stimulate receptor sites mediated by acetylcholine by mimicking or delaying breakdown of acetylcholine |
|
|
what are cholinergic agents used for? |
- diagnose myasthenia gravis - reduce intraoccular pressure - stimulate gi motility - treat urinary retention - control vomiting - as an antidote for neuromuscular blockers |
|
|
what are the side effects of cholinergic agents? |
- bradycardia - hypotension - heart block - lacrimation - d/v/increased intestinal activity/ intestinal rupture - increased bronchiole secretions |
|
|
list the direct cholinergic agents (mimic aceticholine) |
- bethanechol aka urecholine (increase motility and bladder contraction) - pilocarpine (reduces intra occular pressure) - metoclopramide aka reglan (controls vomit and promotes gastric emptying) |
|
|
list the indirect cholinergic agents (anticholinesterase- breaks down aceticholine) |
- Edrophonium- diagnosis of myasthenia gravis - organophosphates- insectiside dips - pyridostigmine- treats myasthenia gravis |
|
|
what do anticholinergics do |
they block the parasympathetic nervous system |
|
|
what are the usues of anticholinergic agents (belladonna alkaloids) |
- treatment of diarrhea and vomiting - preanesthetic to dry secretions and prevent bradycardia - dilate pupil for opthalmic exam - relieve ciliary spasm of the eye - treat sinus bradycardia
|
|
|
what are the side effects of anticholinergics |
(related to dose) - drowsiness/ disorientation - tachycardia - photophobia (dilated pupils) - constipation - anxiety - burning at injection site |
|
|
Common Anticholinergics |
Atropine (preanesthetic) Glycopyrrolate (expensive preanesthetic) |
|
|
What do adrenergic (sympathomimetic) agents do |
- stimulate heart beat in cardiac arrest - reverse hypotension + bronchioconstriction - strengthen heart during CHF - correct hypotension + reduce capillary bleeding through vasoconstriction - treat urinary incontinence - reduce mucous membrane congestion (allergies) - prolong effects of anesthetic agents - treat glaucoma |
|
|
what are catecholamines |
adrenergic/ sympathomimetic agents |
|
|
what catecholamine is most often used to stimulate the heart in cardiac arrest |
epinephrine |
|
|
What does CHF stand for |
congestive heart failure |
|
|
side effects of catecholamines (adrenergic agents) |
- tachycardia - hypertension - nervousness - cardiac arrhythmias - pulmonary edema |
|
|
common adrenergic agents (catecholamines) |
- epinephrine (alpha)/ norepinephrine (beta) - Phenylpropanolamine (alpha)- for urinary incontinence in dogs - terbutaline (brethine) and albuterol (proventil) (beta) for bronchiodialation |
|
|
what do adrenergic blocking agents do |
either block alpha or beta receptors in the sympathetic nervous system |
|
|
list common Alpha blockers |
- acepromazine: tranquilizer, vasodilator - prazosin (minipress): vasodilator - yohimbine: antidote for xylazine - atipamezole (antisedan): reversal for dex |
|
|
side effects of alpha blockers |
hypotension tachycardia muscle tremors seizures |
|
|
list common beta blockers |
- atenolol, propanolol, sotalol (for arrhythmias) - timolol (glaucoma) |
|
|
side effects of beta blockers |
bradycardia hypotension worsening heart failure bronchoconstriction heart block syncope |
|
|
what do depressants do? |
- tranquilize: sedate for restraint or anesthetic procedures - control pain - induce anesthesia - prevent or control seizures |
|
|
what are CNS drugs used for |
- depressants - reverse effects of depressants - stimulate cns for cardiac or respiratory depression/arrest - euthanasia |
|
|
What are the four main groups of tranquilizers |
- phenothiazine derivatives (the zines) - Benzodiazapine Derivatives (the pams) - Xylazine Hydrochloride - Dexmedetomidine Hydrochloride |
|
|
what are phenothiazine derivatives used for? |
- sedation/tranquilization - reduce fear and anxiety - NOT an analgesic - help alleviate motion sickness - help to treat mild puritis |
|
|
side effects of phenothiazine derivatives |
hypotension hypothermia seizures in epileptics |
|
|
common phenothiazine derivatives |
Acepromazine maleate chlorpromazine hydrochloride (thorazine) |
|
|
why can phenothiazine derivatives not be used in stallions? |
can cause permanent penile prolapse |
|
|
uses for bezodiazepine derivatives |
- sedation - anxiety and behavioral disorders - muscle relaxation - appetite stimulant (cats) - short term anticonvulsant - injectable anesthetic (minimal CNS depression) |
|
|
common benzodiazepine derivatives |
- Diazepam (valium): light sensitive + absorbed by plastic - midazolam (versed) - alprazolam (xanax) - Lorazapam (ativan) |
|
|
what type of tranquilizer is most commonly used in horses? |
xylazine hydrochloride |
|
|
uses of xylazine hydrochloride |
- sedative - mild analgesic - muscle relaxant - short acting anesthesia (when mixed) - extra label use for cesareans in cattle |
|
|
what antagonizes xylazine hydrochloride |
yohimbine |
|
|
uses of dexmedetomidine hydrochloride |
- sedative (usually with Torb) - pre anesthetic - analgesic in small animals |
|
|
common dexmedetomidine hydrochloride |
dexdomitor (alpha 2 adrenergic antagonist) |
|
|
what reverses dexdomitor/ dexmedotomidine hydrochloride? |
antisedan (antipamezole) |
|
|
side effects of dexdomitor/ dexmedetomidine hydrochloride |
bradycardia AV block decreased respirations hypertension vomiting muscle tremors hypersensitivity to noise and sound |
|
|
What do dissociative agents do |
- alter neurotransmitter activity - depress the thalamus and cerebral cortex - stimulate the limbic system causing: muscle rigidity, amnesia and analgesia |
|
|
what are dissociative agents used for? |
- restraint or sedation for diagnostic procedures - analgesia - anesthesia for minor surgery - abdominal surgery when combined with other agents |
|
|
are dissociative agents controlled? |
YES |
|
|
side effects of dissociative agents |
- ataxia - hyperresponsive - tremors, spasticity, convulsions -hallucinations - respiratory depression - burning on IM injection - drying of cornea |
|
|
common dissociative agents |
Ketamine Tiletamine Telazol- Tiletamine + zolazepam |
|
|
What are Opioid Agonists used for? |
analgesia sedation restraint anesthesia treatment of coughing diarrhea
|
|
|
side effects of opioid agonists |
resperatory depression excitement nausea vomiting diarrhea defecation panting convulsions |
|
|
are opioid agonists controlled |
YES |
|
|
Common opioid agonists |
- Morphine + Oxymorphone (pain control) - Butorphanol (short acting pre- op anesthesia or for cough) - Fentanyl (oipioid and tranquilizer) - Hydrocodone (cough suppressant) - Diphenoxylate (Lomotil) GI effects - Apomorphone (induces vomiting) - Codeine (w/tylenol for dogs who can't take NSAIDS) - Buprenorphine (buprenex) oral for cats - Tramadol |
|
|
when giving cats an oral injection of buprenorphine what is it important to remember |
make sure to give it close to the front of the mouth so it reaches the mucus membranes |
|
|
what do opioid antagonists do? |
bind with opiate receptors, to displace the opioid agonists prevent opioid agonists from bonding to the site |
|
|
Common opioid antagonists |
Naloxone- reversal agent for opioid overdose Butorphanol |
|
|
What are Barbiturates used for |
Euthanasia agents sedative (old) general anesthetic (old) |
|
|
disadvantages of barbiturates |
non reversable metabilised by liver necrosis of tissue if administered in SQ space Cns depression/ excitement cardiovascular depression |
|
|
long acting barbiturates |
Phenobarbital- anti convulsant |
|
|
are barbiturates controlled |
YES |
|
|
short acting barbiturates |
Pentobarbital sodium: euthanasia agent |
|
|
ultra short acting barbiturates |
thiobarbiturates: off market thiopental (pentothal) * not for sight hounds of thin animals |
|
|
Causes of seizures |
idiopathic infectious traumatic head injury toxic metabolic |
|
|
side effects of anti seizure drugs |
drowsiness cns depression anxiety agitation PU/PD hepatotoxicity |
|
|
common anti seizure drugs |
- Diazepam/ Valium (emergency) - Pheobarbital - Potassium Bromide (often used w/ phenobarbital) - Gabapentin/ Neurontin (used for pain in small animal and anti seizure in humans) - Levetriacetam/ Keppra (new) - Zonisamide/ Zonegran (new) |
|
|
What is Propofol |
- the only white injectable drug - "milk of amnesia"- short acting hypnotic - rapid, smooth anesthetic induction - does not cross placental barrier - fairly gentle on the heart |
|
|
uses for propofol |
- anesthetic induction - outpatient procedures |
|
|
side effects of Propofol |
- apnea - seizure like signs (excitable stage) - Heinze body anemia + prolonged recovery times (when used too often in cats) |
|
|
two formulations for propofol |
Macroemulsion (discarded same day) Microemulsion (longer shelf life) propoclear |
|
|
Three types of inhalant anesthetics |
Isoflurane sevoflurane Halothane (not often used) |
|
|
attributes of isoflurane |
- pungent odor - rapid induction and recover time - does not decrease cardiac output |
|
|
attributes of sevoflurane |
- little odor (ability to use for mask induction) - rapid induction and recovery time - expensive - anesthetic depth changes occur rapidly |
|
|
attributes of halothane |
may result in cardiac dysryhthmias can cause halothane hepatitis
|
|
|
Three types of anti depressants |
- Tricyclics (inhibit reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin) - Serotonin reuptake inhibitors - monoamine oxidase inhibitors |
|
|
uses of tricyclics |
- separation anxiety - ocds - fear aggression - hypervocalization - hyperactivity - urine marking |
|
|
what is important to do when treating an animal for depression |
- use drugs in conjunction with behavior modification - rule out any underlying disease that may be causing the behavior |
|
|
side effects of tricyclics |
- sedation - tachycardia - heart block - dry mouth - mydriasis - KCS |
|
|
what is mydriasis |
dilation of pupils |
|
|
common tricyclics |
- Amitriptyline (Elavil) - Clomipramine (Clomicalm) |
|
|
uses for serotonin reuptake inhibitors |
- OCDs - aggression - anxiety - phobias |
|
|
side effects of serotonin reuptake inhibitors |
few: - anorexia - nausea - lethargy - anxiety - diarrhea - loss of money...expensive () |
|
|
Common saratonin reuptake inhibitors |
Fluoxetine (prozac, reconcile) Sertraline (Zoloft) Paroxetine (Paxil) Fuvoxamine (Luvox) |
|
|
what do monoamine oxidase inhibitors do |
block MAO-B which is responsible for the breakdown of dopamine |
|
|
common Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors |
Selegiline (anipryl) |
|
|
uses for monoamine oxidase inhibitors |
canine cognitive dysfunction syndrome cushings dz (only works in 30% of cases) |
|
|
side effects of monoamine oxidase inhibitors |
v/d anorexia restlessness lethargy salivation shaking deafness |
|
|
what is it important to check before placing an animal on an antidepressent |
what drugs they are already on: antidepressants can be contraindicated by other drugs or other antidepressants |
|
|
what is the best case scenario for euthanasia agents? |
- rapidly produces unconsciousness without struggling, vocalizations or excessive involuntary movement |
|
|
what is the main component in most euthanasia agents? |
pentobarbital sodium |
|
|
common euthanasia agents? |
- Euthasol C3 - Sleepaway C2 - Beuthanasia C3 - Fatal Plus C2 |
|
|
why are euthanasia agents usually brightly colored? |
to prevent human error |
|
|
why does Dr. King recommend pre-medicating an animal before administering a euthanasia agent? |
to decrease struggling, tremors etc. premedding dampens the CNS |
|
|
are Euthanasia Agents controlled substances? |
Yes, their class depends on the combination within the solution C2- C3 |
