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328 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
All of the following pieces of info. are considered objective info. gathered when performing an Intergrated Client assessment:Except
1.Medical history
(Physiologic,performance, static postural assessments)
During the overhead squat assessment a client demostrates an arched lower back, which following stretch would be most appropriate for this movement compensation
Static Kneeling hip lfexor stretch
When performing circumference measurements, where should the health and fitness professional measurre the waist
Narrowest part of the waist
Typical Heart Rate is between
70-80 Beats per minute
Which of the following represents points to consider when assessing a clients carotid pulse
Execcisve pressure can decrease heart rate and blood pressure, leading to an inaccurate reading and possible fainting
If a client knees cave in ward during the overhead squat assessment which of the following options would be implicted as being tight (overactive_
Adductor Complex
A client exhibits excessive forward lean during an overhead squat assessment should foam roll all of the following muscles except:
Vastus Lateralis

(Soleus, tensor fascia latae, lateral gastrocnemius)
What type of blood pressure signifies the minimum pressure within the ateries through a full cardiac cycle and what is the normal range
Diastolic 80-85
To assess a clients body Mass index which of the following equations is used?
Weight (Measured in kilograms) Height (in Meter squared)
An example of a severe BMI score begins at which of the following?
35
If a client low back arches while pressing overhead, it could be indicative of which of the following?
Overactive Latissimus dorsi
When conducting the waist-to-hip ratio, what is the ratio for women and for men above which may put these individuals at risk for a number of diseases
.80- and .95
What muscles are most likely to be overactive (tight) if the head protrudes forward during a pushing pulling assessement
Levator Scapulae
Which of the following assessments best measures lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
Shark skill test
An example of an objective assessment would include which of the following
Heart Rate

(not- dietary intake, medical history, Par-Q)
Skin fold, bioelectrical impedance, and underwater, weighing assess which of the following
Body Fat
What are the average resting heart rates for a male and female.
70-75
What is the name of the assessment that tests upper extremity neuromuscular efficiency?
Pushing assessment
A method of asking questions on a step by step basis to discoverthe initial cause of a fault is known as
Root cause analysis
If a clients arms fall forward during the descent part of the overhead squat assessment, which of the following options would likely be considered weak (underactive)
Lower Trapeziua
The muscle that would be tight or overactive if a clients feet turn out during the overhead squat assessement
Soleus
What is the appropriate weight increase following warm-ups when performing a lower extremity strenghth assessement (Squat)?
30 to 40 pounds
when a client exhibits feet turning out on the overhead squat assessment all of the following will be probable underactive muscle except:
adductor complex

(Gracillis, medial gastronemius, sartorisu)
if a client demostrates arching low back (anterior pelvic tilt) during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following choices would be tight (overactive)?
Erector spinae

(not-Rectus abdominus, multifidi, adductor complex)
The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow optimal levels of motor unit recruitment and synchronization within a muscule is known as?
Intramurscualr coordination
During a Squat exercise which of the following muscles serve as the synergist?
Hamstrings
Balance is what type of process?
Static and Dynamic
Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for concentrically accelerating hip flexion and internal rotation
Tensor Fascia Latae
Which of the following muscles are involved during the inspiration phase?
Pectoralis Minor
Prolonged golgi tendon organ stimulation inhibits the muscle spindle of the same muscle resulting in:
Autogenic inhibition
When a muscle is exerting less force than is being placed on it, resulting in the lengthening of the muscle, this is know as what type of contraction?
Eccentric
What is the name of the sensory afferents that are responsible for sensing distortions of body tissue?
Mechanoreceptors
When sprinting, proper backside mechanics include which of the following movements?
Ankle plantar flexion
The functional unit of the muscle formed by repeating sections of actin and myosin and lies in the space between two z lines is know as:
Sarcomere
What motion is the rectus abdominus responsible for?
Concentrically accelerating spinal flexion
Exercise performed predominantly, in the transverse plane of motion include?
Cable Lift

(Not- Bicep curl, ice skaters, squats)
Trauma to the tissue of the body creates inflammation, resulting in muscle spasm and adhensions if left unchecked these adhensions can begin to form permanent structural changes in the soft tissue evident by which law?
Davis's Law
Type I muscle fibers are considered to be?
Slow twitch
The Core is defined as?
Lumbo pelvic hip complex, thoracic spine, and cervical spine
Which section of the heart gathers re-oxygenated blood coming from the lungs?
Left Atrium
Which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the rest of the body?
Right Atrium
Performing exercises in the scapular plane of motion is a prefered motion as it decreases the risk of totator cuff impingement. This can be accomplished in which of the following shoulder exercises?
Dumbbell scaption
What are the three outer components of a neuron?
Cell body, axon, dendrites
What is the name of the plane of motion where movement such as abduction and adduction primarily occur
Frontal
During the seated row at the shoulder joint during the concentric phase of the movement is what?
Shoulder extension
A floor prone cobra is considered what type of exercise?
Core Stabilization
The preferred resistance training system for using the OPT training model is?
Vertical loading
Hypertrophy can best be described as
enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension
According to research, endurance is best achieved by performing what number of repetitions at 50-70 % of the IRM?
12-25
Metabolic specificity is best defined as
The energy demand placed on the body
Which of the follwing energy sources are used while training in the first phase of the OPT model, stabiliztion endurance training.
Oxidative and Glycolysis

(not- atp-cp, Glycolysis, oxidative by themselves(
Research has demostrated that higher volume training (3-4 sets at 9-20 reps) produces what type of training adaptations?
Cellular
Hypertension is defined as blood pressure greater than?
140/90
All of the following items are potential responses in the system when a stressor is too much to handle except?
Muscle spasm

(strain, stress fracture, emotional fatigue)
When implementing reactive training into phase 1 stabilization endurance training client, according to OPT what is the reommended number of exercises
0-2
The proper progression for a client in a balance training program would include
two leg stable to one leg stable
Which of the following flexibility techniques are used in all parts of the integrated flexibilty continumum?
SMR
A medicine ball rotation chest pass is an example of what type of exercise in the OPT model
CORE Power
The process of using agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion is know as
Active isolated stretching
Exercise that emphasize an agaonist immediately followed by an exercise that emphasizes the antagonist are know as?
Compound set
What type of exercise would a single leg balance reach be considered?
Balance stabilization
Which of the following exercises can be considered a core exercise in the strength level of the OPT model
Cable Chop
Tempo for the resistenance training exercises during a stabilization endurance training program in Phase 1 is?
4/2/1
The following items are all adaptations seen in the strength level of the OPT model except:
Stabilization Endurance

(not - maximal strength, hypertrophy, strength endurance)
What percentage of communicationi is based on words?
7%
Individuals who engage in high level visionary thinking, as well as lower-level strategic thinking are know as?
Flexible Thinkers
What is the daily recommended intake of fiber?
25 grams
individuals who attribute failures to changeable causes rather than unchangeable ones:
Truly believe they will be successful
If carbohydrate or total energy intake is too low, the body has the ability to provide energy by using?
amino acids
Belief is a powerful predictor of success and comes in many forms, all of the following are forms of beliefs excepts?
Motivation

(not- locus control, self-efficacy, hope)
What does SCAMPI mean?
Specific, challenging, approach, measurable, proximal, inspirational
What is one of the most powerful predictors of change and success
Belief
What is a food that supplies all of the essential amino acids in appropriate rations termed?
Complete Protein
The scientific study of happy, successful, highly achieving people is known as:
positive psychology
A method of asking questions on a step by step basis to discover the intitial cause of a fault is called?
Root Cause analysis
Individuals with conflicting goalsor those who are ambivalent about their goals are significantly more likely to:
Be easily distracted and procrastinate
Which of the following is one of the essential amino acid?
Leucine

(not-Alanine, glycine, cysterine)
Which of the following nutrients are responsible for acting as transports for vitamins A, D, E and K?
Fat
Successful people who know what they want from life have been show to lead to lives that are characterized by all of the following except?
Physical Activity

(not-meaning, passion, purpose)
What does the READ stand for?
Rapport, empathy, assessment, development
How many quarts of water are recommended for the average adult?
3 quarts
A state of lost physical fitness, whcich may include muscle inbalances, decreased flexibility and or a lack of core and joint stability?
Deconditioned
The cumulative input to the central nervous sytem from mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movement
Proprioception
An unstable but controlled environament where exercises are performed that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms
Propreioceptively enriched environment
Smaller divisions of training progressions that fall within the three building blocks of training
Phase of training
The muscle that acts as the main source of motive movement
Prime movers
Ability of the body's stailizing muscles to provide support for joints as well as maintain posture and balance during movements
Stabilization
The ability of the boy's nerves to effectively send messages to the body's muscles
Nuromuscular efficiency
How quickly a muscle can generate force
Rate of force production
Set of two exercises that are performed back to back without any rest time between them.
Superset
Enhance stabilization,strength, and endurance while increasing prime movers strength
Phase II Strength Endurance
Designed for individuals who have the goal of maximal muscle hypertrophy
Phase III hypertrophy
Works towards goal of increasing maximal prime mover strength
Phase IV Maximal strength
Enhances prime movers strength while also improving the rate of force production (how quickly) a muscle can generate force
Phase V. Power
The combination and interrelation of this nervous, skeletal and muscular systems
Kinetic Chain
Large groups of cells that form nerves, which provide a communication network within the body
Nervous system
The ability of the nervous system to sense changes in either internal or external environment
Sensory function
The ability of the nervous system to analyze and interpret sensory information to allow for proper decision making which produces the appropriate response
Intergrative function
The neuromuscular response to sensory information
Motor function
The functional unit of the nervous system
neurons
Neurons that transmitt nerve impulse from effector sites to the brain or spinal cord
Sensory Neuron
Neurons that transmitt impulses from one neuron to another
Interneurons
Neuron that transmitt nerve impulses from the brain or spinal cord to the effector sites
Motor neurons
Consist of the brain and spinal cord and serves mainly to interpret information
Central Nervous System
Cranial and spinal nerves that spread throughout the body and serve to relay information from bodily organs to the brain and from the brain to bodily organs
Peripheral nervous system
Sensory receptors responsiblie for sensing distortion in bodily tissues
Mechanoreceptors
Fibers sensitive to change in length of the muscle an the rate of that change
Muscle Spindles
Organs sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change
Golgi Tendon organs
Receptors sensitive to pressure, acceleration and deceleration in the joint
Joint receptors
Attach muscles to bone and provide the anchor from which the muscle can exert force and control the bone and joint
Tendons
Is tissue consisting of long cells tht contracct when stimulated to produce motion
Muscle
Are chemical messengers that transmitt electrical impuluses from the nerve to the muscle
Neurotransmitter
Is a series of muscles that the nervous system commands to move the skeletal system
Muscular System
The functional unit iof muscle the produce muscular contraction Which consiste of repeating sections of actin and myosin
Sarcomere
Is the contraction of a muscle generated by the communication between the nervous system and muscular system
Neural activiation
The body's frame which is comprised of bones and joints
Skeletal System
Hard connective tissue that connect to create a skeletal framework
Bones
The movable place where two or more bones meet
Joint
Portion of the skeletal system that consists of the skull, rib cage, and vertebral column
Axial skeleton
Portion of the skeletal system that includes the upper and lower extremities
Appendicular skeleton
Flattened or indented portion of bone, which can be a muscle attachment site
Depression
The movement of the joints
Arthrokinmatics
Joints that are held together by a joint capsule and ligaments and are most associated with movement in the body
Synovial joints
Joints that do not have a joint cavity, connective tissue or cartilage
non-synovial Joints
Connective tissue that connects bone to bone
ligaments
Slow twitch, smaller in size, produce less force, slow to fatigue, long term contraction
Type I muscle fiber
Fast twitch, Lower in capillaries, mitochondria and myogloblin, produce more force, quick to fatigue, short term contractions (force and power)
Type II muscle Fiber
Muscular pump that rhyhmically contracts to push blood throughout the body
Heart
Acts as a medium to deliver and collect essential products to and from the tissues of the body
Blood
A system comprised of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems
Cardiorespiratory System
A hollow tube that allows blood to be transported to and from the heart
Blood Vessel
The smallest blood vessel that is location where substances such as oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products are exchanged between tissue
Capillaries
Vessels that transport blood back to the heart
Veins
Comprised of the heart, the blood it pumps and the blood vessels that transport the blood from the heartto the tissuesof the body
Cardiovascular System
Vessels that transport blood away from the heart
Arteries
Is comprised of four hollow chambers that are delineated into interdependent pumps on either side
Heart
Are chambers located inferiorly on either side of the heart
Ventricle
The heart rate of the typical person is aprroximately
70-80 beats per minute
The exhalation of air during the process of breathing
Expiration
Looks at how chemical energyis converted into mechanical eneregy
Bioenergetics
An action that occurs in the presence of oxygen
Aerobic
Cellular structure that serves as a storage and transferunit within the cells of the body for energy
Adenosine Triphosphate
A system including that lungs and their nervous and circulatory supply that collects oxygen from the external environment and transports it to the blood stream
Respiratory System
The inhalation of air during the process of breathing
Inspiration
An action that is not dependent on oxygen for proper execution
Anaerobic
Refers to the length at which a muscle can produce the greater force
Length tension relationships
Muscle action where there is no appreciable change in muscle length
Isometric
Information tht the nervous systemutilizes to gather information about the environmnet to produce movement
Proprioception
Synergistic action of muscles to produce movement around a joint
Force-Couple
When a muscle exerts more force han is being placed on it, which leads to the shortening of the muscle
Concentric
Ability of nervous system to gather and interpret information and select and executethe proper motor response
Sensorimotor integration
The study of how the kinetic chain creates movements
Motor control
When a muscle exerts less froce than is being placed upon it, which results in the lengthening of a muscle
Eccentric
Provides information about the quality of a movement during an exercise
Knowledge of Performance
The study of how internal and external forces affect the way the body moves
Biomechanics
Bisects the body to create right and left halves. Movements include flexion and extension
Sagittal Plane
Bisects the body to create front and back halves. Movements include abduction and adduction of the limbs, llateralflexion of the spine, and eversion and inversion of the foot ankle complex
Frontal Plane
Bisects the body to create upper and lower halves. Movements include internal and extrenal rotation for the limbs, right and left rotation for the head and trunk and radioulnar pronation and supination.
Transverse Plane
Muscles most responsible for a particular movement
Agonists
Assists agonists during a movement
Synergist
Muscles that support the body while other muscles are performing movements
Stabilizers
Muscles that oppose the agonist muscles
Antgonists
Accelerate Hip Flexion
Psoas, rectus femoris, tenor fascia latae
Decelerate hip flexion
Gluteus maximus , hamstring
Stabilize the hip
Transveseus abdominis , adductors, gluteus medius
Accelerate plantar flexion
Gastronemius, soleus
Decelerate plantar flexion
Anterior tibialis
Stabilize the foot and ankle
Peroneus longus
Accelerate spinal flexion
Rectus abdominus, obliques
Decelerate spinal extension
REctus Abdominus, Obliques
Stabilizes the spine
Transverse Abdominis
Ability of the neuromuscular systme to monitor and manipulate movement using the least amount of energy creating the least amount of stresson the kinetic chain
Functional Efficiency
Signifiies the minimum pressure within the arteries through a full cardiac cycle
Diastolic pressure
The ability to efficiently maintain balance
Postural equilibrum
Feedback from the client to the fitness professinal regarding personal history
Subjective information
provides the fitness professional with a three-dimensional represenatation of the client, which enables proper construction of a training program
Integrated fitness assessment
Measurable data that can be utilized to denote improvements in the client, as well as the effectiveness of the program
Objective Information
Alignment and function of the kinetic chain at any given moment
Posture
Alignment of the musculoskeletal system that allows a center of gravity to be maintained over a base of support
Structural Efficiency
Reflects the pressure produced by the heart as it pumps blood to the body
Systolic Pressure
Questionnaire that is designed to help qualify clients for activity levels and identify thosewho may need medical attention.
PAR-Q
Normal soft-tissue extensibility that allows full range of motion of a joint and has optimum control
Flexibilty
Where the kinetic chain seeks the path of least restrictive during movement.
Relative Flexibilty
Alteations of length of muscular surrounding a joint
Muscle imbalance
When a tight psoas decreses the neural drive to the gluteus maximums, this an example of?
Altered REciprocal inhibition
The body's substitution system when there is a weak or inhibited prime mover.
synergistic dominance
Sensory organ of muscles sensitive to length and rate of change of length
Muscle spindle
Process that simulates the golgi tendon and produces an inhibitory effect on the muscle spindle
Autogenic innhibition
Sensory organ sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of change of tension
Golgi Tendon organ
Consist of movements that more closely mimic those of the actual activity
Specific Warm-up
State where the body's metablolism is elevated following exercise
EPOC
The number of training sessions for a given time period.
Frequency
Point when the bodycan no longer produce enough energy for the muscles with normal oxgen intake
Anaerobic threshold
Provides body with a smooth transition back to a steady state.
Cool-down
Level of demnd the activity places on the body
Intensity
Training that involves and places stress on the cardiorespiratory system
Intergrated Cardiorespiratory training
Where intensities are varied throughout the workout
Interval Training
Three steps programming system that uses ifferent heart training zones
Stage Training
Preparing the body for physical activity by doing movements that are not specific to this activity to be performed
General Warm-up
What type of flexibility would be most appropriate in the cool-down and Why?
Corrective. This type of flexibility relax the muscle and bring them back to their orginal length
What is an indicator that a client is ready to move from stage one to stage two in the cardiorespiratory training program
The client can maintain a Zone One heart rate for at least 30 minutes two to three times a week.
Which two stages of training utilizes interval training.
Stage II and III
When designing a program for a client who is in the strength level of the opt model, which two stages should be rotated during the week for the client's cardiorespiratory training
Stage I and Stage II
When designing a program for a client who is in the power level of the opt model which stages should be rotated during the week for the clients cardiorespiratory training
Stage I, II, III
Ability of the neuromuscular system to allow muscles to work together with proper activation and timing between them
Intermuscular coordination
Pulling the region just below the navel toward the spine
Drawing-in Maneuver
Ability of the neuromuscular system to allow optimal levels of motor unit recruitment and synchronization within a muscle
Intramuscular coordination
The lumber-pelvic -hip complex, thoracic and cervical spinc
Core
The musculature of teh core is divided into two categories: the stabilization systems and the movement system
True
The movement system is responnsible for the stability of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
False - The movement system is responsible for the movement of the core
The stabilization system is responsible for the movement of the core
False the stabilization system is responsible for stablization of the core
When working optimally each structural component of the core distrubutes weight , absorbs force and transfersground reaction forces
True
A weak core can lead to predictable patterns of injury
True
Stablization level excercises
Reps
Tempo
Marching, floor prone cobra, Prone Iso-ab, Floor bridge
10-25 reps
4,2,1, tempo
Strength Level exercise
Ball Crunch, reverse crunch, back extension, cable rotation
8-12 reps
3-2-1
Power Level Exercises
Rotation chest pass, ball medicine ball pullover, front med ball oblique throw, woodchop throw
10 reps
controlled tempo
Training environment that provides heightened stimulation to proprioceptors and mechoreceptors
Multisensory condition
The distance outside of an individuals base of support that they can go without losing control of their center of gravity.
Limit of stability
Training environment that is as unstable as cansafely be controlled by an individual
controlled instability
Ability of the kinetic chain to stablize a joint during movement
Dynamic Joint stabilization
Balance is a static process
False- Functional balance is a dynamic process involving multiple neurological pathways
Adequate force reduction and stabilization are required for optimum force producation
True
An individual's limit of stability is the distance outside of thebgase of support tht they can go to without losing control of their center of gravity
True
Only when playing sports is balance training effective
False - Whether on a bball court, stability ball, or walking downstairs, maintaining balance is the key to all functional movements
Maintence of postural equilibrium is a static process
False - Postural equilibrium is an intergrated, dynamic process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency
The main goal of balance training is to continually increase the client's awareness of their limits of stability by creating the most unstable envoronment avaiable
False- The main goal of balance training is to increase a client's limits of stability by training in the most unstable environment tht they can safely control.
Training environment that provides heightened stimulation to proprioceptors and mechoreceptors
Multisensory condition
The distance outside of an individuals base of support that they can go without losing control of their center of gravity.
Limit of stability
Training environment that is as unstable as cansafely be controlled by an individual
controlled instability
Ability of the kinetic chain to stablize a joint during movement
Dynamic Joint stabilization
Balance is a static process
False- Functional balance is a dynamic process involving multiple neurological pathways
Adequate force reduction and stabilization are required for optimum force producation
True
An individual's limit of stability is the distance outside of thebgase of support tht they can go to without losing control of their center of gravity
True
Only when playing sports is balance training effective
False - Whether on a bball court, stability ball, or walking downstairs, maintaining balance is the key to all functional movements
Maintence of postural equilibrium is a static process
False - Postural equilibrium is an intergrated, dynamic process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency
The main goal of balance training is to continually increase the client's awareness of their limits of stability by creating the most unstable envoronment avaiable
False- The main goal of balance training is to increase a client's limits of stability by training in the most unstable environment tht they can safely control.
Training environment that provides heightened stimulation to proprioceptors and mechoreceptors
Multisensory condition
The distance outside of an individuals base of support that they can go without losing control of their center of gravity.
Limit of stability
Training environment that is as unstable as cansafely be controlled by an individual
controlled instability
Ability of the kinetic chain to stablize a joint during movement
Dynamic Joint stabilization
Balance is a static process
False- Functional balance is a dynamic process involving multiple neurological pathways
Adequate force reduction and stabilization are required for optimum force producation
True
An individual's limit of stability is the distance outside of thebgase of support tht they can go to without losing control of their center of gravity
True
Only when playing sports is balance training effective
False - Whether on a bball court, stability ball, or walking downstairs, maintaining balance is the key to all functional movements
Maintence of postural equilibrium is a static process
False - Postural equilibrium is an intergrated, dynamic process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency
The main goal of balance training is to continually increase the client's awareness of their limits of stability by creating the most unstable envoronment avaiable
False- The main goal of balance training is to increase a client's limits of stability by training in the most unstable environment tht they can safely control.
Balance Stabilization exercises level
Reps
Tempo
Single leg balance, Single leg balance and reach, Single leg balance hip internal and external rotation, single leg lift and chop
10 reps
3 secs in perfect alignment
Balance Strength Level Exercises
Reps
Tempo
Single-leg Squat, Single-leg squat touchdown, Single-leg romanian deadlift, Step-up to balance, lunge to balance,
8 reps
3-2-1 tempo
Power Level exercises
Reps
Tempo
Multiplanar hop with stablization (Sag, frontal, Tran hop with stabilization), box hop up with stabilization, Boz hop down with stabilization.
8 reps
controlled tempo
Exercises that utilizes quick, powerful movements involving an eccentric contraction immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction
Reactive Training
To move with percision, forces must be reduced (eccentrically), stabilized (isometrically), and the produce concentrically
Integrated performance paradigm
Ability of the muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.
Rate of force production
The ability to react to stimulus and change the motion of the body in all planes of motion.
Quickness
The ability of accelerate, decelerate and change direction quickly while maintaining proper posture
Agility
The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible
Speed
Speed is the product of?
Stride rate and stride length
Proper sprint mechanics includes frontside mechanics
and backside mechanics, what are they?
Frontside = Triple flexion - ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexionof the front leg
Backside = triple extension- ankle plantar flexion, knee extension,and hip extension of the back leg
Stress that is intolerable to the client and that will produce breakdown or injury.
Exhaustion
Principle that states the body will specifically adapt to the type of demand placed upon it
Principle of specificity
Refers to the energy demand placed upon the body
Metobolic specificity
The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome external force
Strength
General pattern of adaptation brought forth by stresses placed upon thte kinetic chain
General adaptation syndrome
The initial reaction to a stressor that allows for protective processses withiin the body.
Alarm reaction
A stage where the kinetic chain increases its functional capacity to adapt to the stressor
Resistance development
Refers to the speed of contractions and exercise selection
Neuromuscular specificity
Refers to the weight and movements placed on the body
Mechanical specificity
Divisions of a training program into smaller progressive stages
Periodization
If a client demonstrates the movement compensationof an arching low back(anterior pelvic tilt) during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following choices would be implicated as being tight(overactive)
Erector spinae
When conducting the waist-to-hip ratio, what is the ratio for women and for men which may put these individuals at risk for a number of diseases
.80 and .95
It has been shown that obseity -related health problems begin to increase when a person;s BMI exceeds
25
What is the appropriate weight increase, following warm-up when performing a lower extremity strength assessment ( Squat)
30 to 40 lbs
Beta Blockers typically have what type of affect of the client's heart rate
Decrease
After a client has warmed up with light resistance for 8-10 rep, how much additional weight should be added when performing the lower extremity strength assessment
30-40 lbs
During the overhead squat assessment a client demostrates arms falling forward. In this scenario, which of the following stretches would be appropriate
Static lat stretch
What are the average resting heart rates for a male and female
70 and 75
What is the name of the assessment that tests upper extremity neuromuscular efficiency
Pushing assessment
Which of the following options would likely be considered underactive if a client's head protrudes forward during the concentric phase of a pulliing assessment
Deep Cervical flexors
A cellular structure that supplies energy for many biochemical cellular processess by undergoing enzymatic hydrolysis is known as
Adenenosine triphosphate
Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for concentrically accelerating hip flexion and internal rotation
Tensor fascia latae
What is the term given to an anatomical location referring to a position on the same side of the body
Ipsilateral
When assiting muscle in the force couple substitutes for a prime mover during a muscle contraction which of the following is occuring
Synergistic dominance
A lunge to two arm dumbbell press is considered what type of exercise
Total body strength
condition in which there is a decrease in bone mass and density as well as an increase in the space between bones
Osteroporosis
Degeneration joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissues
Rheumatoid arthritis
Conditions where lung tissues is normal, but flows are restricted
Obstructive lung disease
Characterized by narrowing of the major arteries that are responsible for supplying blood to the lower extremity
Preipheral arterial disease
Degeneration of cartilage in joints
osteoarthritis
Fastest growing health problem in the US
obesity
The precursor of osteoporosis and is indicated by lowered bone mass
Osteopenia
Conditions where the ability to expand the lungs is decreased
Restrictive Lung Disease
Metabolic disorder in which the body's ability to produce insulin or to utilize glucose is altered
Diabetes
Characterized by limping, lameness, and/or pain in the lower leg during mild exercise, resulting from a decrease in blood to the lower extremities
Intermittent claudication
Blood pressure of 140/90 or greater
Hypertension
Any various types of malignant neoplasm, most of which invade surrounding tissues, may spreadto several sites and arelikely to recur after attempted removal
Cancer
Inflammatory condition that mainly affects the joints
Arthritis
Amino acids the body is able to manufacture
Non essential amino acids
The utilization of protein for building and repairing tissues or structures
Protein synthesis
The sum of processess by which an animal or plant takes in and utilizes food substances
Nutrition
A food source that is low or lacking in one or more essential amino acid
Incomplete protein
Amino acid are utilized to assist in energy production
Gluconeogensis
made up of amino acids linked together by peptide bonds
Protein
amino acids the body is unable to manufacture
Essential amino acids
a measure of protein quality or how well it satisfies the body's essential amino acids needs
Biological value
A food source that supplies all of the essential amino acid in appropriate ratios
Complete protein
The storage form of carbohydrates in human is
Gylcogen
The rate at which ingested carbohydrates raise blood sugar and its accompanying effect on insulin release is referred to as
Gylcogen index
Weight gain or loss is related to total______________not the source of food eaten
Energy intake
The limiting factors for exercise performance is ________availability because maximal ___________ utilization cannot occur without it
Carbohydrates, fat
For most moderately active adults, a carbohydrates intake between _______ is recommended.
50-70 %
For individuals participating in endurance exercise a diet consisting of __________ of total calories from carbohydrates is recommended
60%
Of the lipids contained in foods, 95% are _______ and _____
Fats, oils
____________fatty acids are implicated as a risk factor for heart disease by raising bad cholesterol levels, whereas,______ fats are associated with increases in good cholesterol.
Saturated, unsaturated
If the goal is fat loss or to enhance overall health, a diet containing _________ of calories from fat is recommended
10-30%
an individual should drink approximately _______onces of water per day
96
Provides guidelines for what constitues an adequate intake of a nutrient
Dietary reference intakes
A recommended average daily nutrient intake level based on estimates of nutrient intake that are adequate for group of healthy people
Adequate intake
Labels that provide product information on required nutrient amounts and precent of daily value
Supplement facts panel
The average daily intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all healthy individuals
Recommended dietary allowance
A Substance that completes or makes an addition to daily intake
Dietary Supplement
The average daily nutrient intake level tht is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group
Estimated Average Requirements
The highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no adverse health effects to almost all individuals
Tolerable upper intake level
Upper intake level values are set for each nutrient except for __________ and __________. The UL's for these nutrients are set from supplements or pharmacological sources only
Vitamin E, Magnesium
Excess ___________ can cause birth defects when a woman is taking too much at conception and during early pregnancy
Vitamin A
Excess ________ can result in the calcification of blood vessels and eventually damage the function of kidneys, heart and lungs
Vitamin D
Excess intake of ________ can interfere with the absorption of other minerals and can cause gastrointestinal irritation
Iron
Supplementation with Vitamin E and ________can complicate conditions for people on blood thinner
Vitamin K 150
Large doses of anti-inflammatory drugs may interfere with ____function and increase its requirement
Folic Acid
What does READ mean
Rapport, empathy, assessment, developing