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303 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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How is the schedule for the release of restraints altered if the child is sleeping?
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While awake, every 2 hours the restraints are released for 10 minutes but if the child is sleeping the restraints are released every 4 hours for 10 minutes.
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How is club foot treated?
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serial casting
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What can help keep an incontinent child's cast clean?
a) double diapering b) routine insertion of a foley catheter c) peri care every 15 minutes d) insertion of a rectal tube |
a) double diapering is the least invasive method of keeping the cash clean of urine and feces
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What is Legg-Calve-Perthes disease (LCPD) and who does it effect most?
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It is aseptic necrosis of the femoral head and it effects most blue eyes blonde boys ages 4-8
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In the patient who has LCPD, does hip and knee soreness increase or decrease with movement. How about rest?
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The pain increases with activity and decreases with rest.
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What is the recommended activity level during treatment of LCPD?
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Bedrest to reduce the inflammation and restore motion.
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The nurse know that ongoing treatment for LCPD consists of conservative therapy in a non-weight bearing brace or serial casting for a period of:
a) 1-3 weeks b) 1-3 months c) 1-3 years d) 4-6 months |
c) 1-3 years
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The nurse knows the a child with a slipped femoral capital epiphysis has pain: Pick 2:
a) in the groin b) referred pain in the thigh or knee c) in the lower back d) in the buttocks |
a) in the groin
b) referred pain the the thigh or knee |
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When a child is diagnosed with SFCE, what is the recommended activity level?
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forced bedrest, and no weight bearing
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When the nurse ____ the leg of the child diagnosed with SFCE the child complains of pain.
a) externally rotates b) internally rotates c) flexes d) extends |
b) internally rotates
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The nurse knows that during the ___ fractures may be the result of physical maltreatment.
a) first 2 years of life b) first decade of life c) last decade of life |
a) first 2 years
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With a ___ fracture the bone has penetrated through the skin.
a) open b) closed c) comminuted d) greenstick |
open fracture
*the bone is open to air |
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With a ___ fracture there is no break in the skin.
a) open b) closed c) comminuted d) greenstick |
b) closed
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With a ___ fracture the bone is bent but not broken.
a) open b) closed c) comminuted d) greenstick |
d) greenstick
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With a ___ fracture the bone has broken into three or more fragments:
a) open b) closed c) comminuted d) greenstick |
c) comminuted
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The nurse might suspect abuse if the child presents with what type of fracture?
a) transverse b) spiral c) oblique d) greenstick e) comminuted d) compression |
b) spiral
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What is the difference between open and closed reduction in terms of repairing a fracture?
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Closed reduction means realigning the fracture by manually manipulating the extremity and open mean going in surgically
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What is the best choice of pain medication for muscle spasms?
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Diazepam (Valium)
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What is the recommended use of crutches:
a) bear most weight on the axillae b) bear most weight on the hands c) bear most of the weight on the good leg d) bear most of the weight on the fingers |
b) bear most of the weight on the hands
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A ruptured or torn ACL causes instability and pain in the:
a) ankle b) calf c) knee d) hip |
c) knee
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True or False: When doing patient teaching for the child in a cast with a severely torn ligament, how long should you tell him he will be in the cast for?
a) 3 weeks b) 8 weeks c) 12-14 weeks d) the length of time is determine by x-ray |
b) 8 weeks: It takes about the same amount of time for a severe torn ligament to heal as it does for a bone to heal
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Between what ages does the epiphyseal growth plates heal?
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14-17 years
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A child with Osgood-Schlatter disease would have pain:
a) in the arm b) in the hip region c) below the kneecap d) along the sternum |
c) below the kneecap: It is characterized by a painful prominence of the tibial
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How could you test for Osgood-Schlatter disease?
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Ask the child to squat or extend the knee against resistance and assess for pain.
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What might a child diagnosed with Osgood-Schlatter disease report:
a) a recent history of an infection b) recent contact with a chlorinated pool c) a recent fall d) having a relative with the same disorder |
a) a recent history of an infection
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What is the leading cause of blindness and disability in children?
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juvenile arthritis
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Which of the following characterizes the signs and symptoms of juvenile arthritis? Check all that apply:
a) swollen tender joints b) warm joints c) limited ROM d) rash e) late afternoon fevers f) lethargy |
All of the above!
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Which of the following patterns characterizes the course of illness in juvenile arthritis?
a) steadily inclining b) remissions and exacerbations c) a straight line |
b) remissions and exacerbations
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True or False: Juvenile arthritis is a childhood version of rheumatoid arthritis.
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False: It is a different disorder
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With a child with juvenile arthritis who just recovered from an exacerbation, what would you recommend?
a) resume pre-exacerbation activities b) avoid activities which brought on the exacerbation c) make a journal of the activities you have to avoid |
a) resume pre-exacerbation activities
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What is methotrexate (rheumatrex) most frequently prescribed for?
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juvenile arthritis patients
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____ are a group of muscle disorders that cause the gradual wasting of symmetrical groups of skeletal muscle.
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Muscular dystophies
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A child with muscular dystrophy uses the ___ maneuver to rise from the floor.
a) Gower b) Monroe c) McKinsky d) Mcrower |
a) Gower
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What lab value might you monitor in a patient with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy?
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CK: They are elevated early in the disease.
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What is the prognosis for the child with MD (muscular dystrophy.
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They rarely live beyond 20.
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A patient with MD is most likely to die from:
a) sepsis b) heart failure c) respiratory complications d) falling off a cliff |
c) respiratory complications
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True or False: Scoliosis is a painful twisting of the spine common in adults.
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False: It is a non-painful lateral curvature of the spine and is the most common deformity in children
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Describe the Adam's position?
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The child is asked to bend at the waist with arms hanging loosely.
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The measure of the curvature of the spine is termed ___, and is ___ in a regular child.
a) Web's angle, 20 degrees b) Cobb angle, 10-15 degrees c) Web's angle, 10-15 degrees d) Cobb angle, 20 degrees |
b) Cobb angle, 10-15 degrees
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Patient teaching of the the child who underwent surgical treatment of scoliosis includes having an activity restriction for:
a) 6-9 days b) 1-2 months c) 1 year d) 6-9 months |
d) 6-9 months
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A scoliosis curve of greater than ___ degrees is considered kyphotic.
a) 10 b) 20 c) 40 d) 50 |
d) 50 degrees
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____ is a preventable, acute, and potentially fatal disease caused by an exotoxin found in soil, dust, and human GI tracts.
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Tetanus (lock jaw)
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What 4 conditions must be present for the tetanus spores to grow in a human?
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1. A presence of tetanus spores
2. An injury to the tissues 3. Wound conditions that enable multiplication of the spores 4. A susceptible host |
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What immunization can be administered to prevent lockjaw? When is this immunization administered?
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A tetanus shot, which is administered in the DTaP grouped vaccination at 2, 4, 6, 15 months and 4 years.
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What medication needs to be given to a child who sustained an injury that is prone to tetanus?
a) a DTaP vaccination b) a TDaP vaccination c) tetanus immune globulin d) an antibiotic |
c) tetanus immune globulin
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One key to providing nursing care for the child with tetanus is to control or eliminate:
a) any sources of bacteria from their food and environment b) sources of light, sound and touch c) opioid analgesics d) extraneous administration of oxygen |
b) sources of light, sound and touch
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True or False: When caring for the child with a neuromuscular blocking agent you should never leave the child unattended for more than 30 minutes.
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False: The nurse should never leave the child alone.
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What are two skeletal muscle relaxants used in the treatment of Tetanus?
a) ativan and versed b) baclofen and dantrium c) atropine and epinephrine d) ibuprofen and tylenol |
b) baclofen and dantrium
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How should baclofen be administered?
a) on an empty stomach b) with food or milk c) with an antacid d) crushed in apple sauce |
b) with food or milk
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When taking Dantrium:
a) unnecessary exposure to light should be avoided b) it should be discontinued if effects aren't seen in 90 days c) it should be used cautiously in patients with renal impairment d) all of the above |
a) unnecessary exposure to light should be avoided; it should be discontinued if effects aren't seen in 45 (not 90) days; it should be used cautiously in patients with cardiac or pulmonary impairment(not renal)
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Osteogenesis imperfecta is otherwise called?
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The brittle bone disease
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Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by a decrease in the synthesis of:
a) adenosine b) muscle cells c) cortisol d) collagen |
d) collagen
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True or False: The infant with osteogenesis has such brittle bones that even changing the diaper could cause a femur fracture.
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True! :(
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True or False: A unique feature of osteogenesis imperfecta is the massive bruising or swelling, and tenderness at the fracture site.
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False: It is unique because there is only tenderness at the fracture sites.
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What is the action of bisphosphonate (Reclast)?
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It inhibits bone resorption.
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Families of hispanic background believe it is important to touch their child when:
a) doing an assessment b) giving a compliment c) looking into the baby's eyes d) leading a prayer |
It is very important for the nurse to touch the child when making an admiring statement about him or her.
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What is deficient in iron-deficiency anemia? :)
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I'm not answering this question.
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Who is at an increased risk for iron deficiency anemia?
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premature infants due to their decreased fetal iron supply
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Which of the following would present an increased iron demand on the body?
a) high birth weight b) constipation c) cyanotic congenital heart diseases d) Addison's disease |
c) cyanotic congenital heart diseases
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What type of anemia is pica a sign of?
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iron-deficiency anemia
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How can you help prevent iron deficiency in infants?
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By giving them iron-fortified cereal from 6-12 months of age.
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True or False: Cow milk may be substituted for breast milk if the mother is iron deficient.
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False: Do not feed your infant cow's milk before 12 months of age. After 12 months of age limit the amount of cow's milk to 18-24 ounces per day.
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What is the recommended dosage of elemental iron?
a) 1 mg/kg per day b) 3 mg/kg per day c) 5 mg/lb per day d) 10 mg/lb per day |
b) 3 mg/kg per day
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The nurse knows that iron needs to be taken:
a) with meals b) with milk c) between meals d) with an antacid |
c) between meals
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The nurse needs to administer an iron supplement. What should she give it with to wash it down?
a) water b) milk c) orange juice d) tea |
c) orange juice as the acidic liquid will enhance absorption. Iron supplements should not be taken with tea because it may adversely affect the absorption process.
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What effect on the bowels does iron have?
a) it causes more reabsorption of water b) it causes dark green colored stools c) it causes constipation d) it inhibits the absorption of all water |
c) it causes constipation
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What do you do if your patient taking iron supplements presents with black tarry stools?
a) call the doctor b) assess for abdominal pain c) perform a hemocult d) document it as a normal finding. |
d) document it as a normal finding since the patient is taking iron supplements
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What might help prevent nose bleeds?
a) take a 1 a day 81 mg aspirin b) using hot steam to moisten the nares c) swabbing the nares frequently to remove debris d) using a cool mist humidifier |
d) using a cool mist humidifier
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When a child has a nose bleed, how should they be positioned?
a) on their side so drainage can run out b) on their back with their head tilted down c) sitting and leaning forward d) sitting on the edge of the bed with their nose pointed up toward the ceiling |
c) sitting and leaning forward
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Where should the nurse apply pressure if the child has a nose bleed and for how long?
a) posterior nasal septum for 10-15 minutes b) posterior nasal septum for 3-5 minutes c) anterior nasal septum for 3-5 minutes d) anterior nasal septum for 10-15 minutes |
d) anterior nasal septum for 10-15 minutes; nasal packing may be required
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What topical medication can be given to help stop a nose bleed?
a) cortisone cream b) vitamin K cream c) epinephrine cream d) gluconate cream |
c) epinephrine cream
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True or False: One parent must have the sickle cell gene in order for the child to have sickle cell disease.
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False: Both parents must carry the gene in order for the child to contract the disease.
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What is the pattern of inheritance for sickle cell disease, if two parents are carriers?
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25% chance of their child having the disease
25% chance of their child NOT having it, and NOT being a carrier 50% chance of their child being a carrier(but not having the disease) |
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Why can sickle cell disease result in ischemia, infarcts and possible tissue death?
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Because the shape of the sickled cell does not promote good oxygenation or movement through the circulatory system and this results in occlusion, hypoxemia.
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Looking at the patient with sickle cell disease, how might their skin look different?
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It might be pale or jaundice as a result of RBC hemolysis
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What is the most bothersome complaint of the person with sickle cell disease?
a) fatigue b) weakness c) muscle spasms d) pain |
d) pain
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How might the H&H and reticulocyte count be altered in a patient with sickle cell disease?
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Low H&H and an elevated reticulocyte count
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Which of the following is a significant problem that needs to be reported immediately in a child with sickle cell disease?
a) pain in the fingers and toes b) a fever of 101.5 c) jaundice noted in the sclera d) finger nails with clubbing present |
b) a fever of 101.5 as the child's spleen cannot function properly to filter out bacteria so the bacteria multiply within the blood causing serious sepsis.
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What medication might a child with sickle cell disease receive prophylactically at home to prevent overwhelming sepsis?
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oral penicillin
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What teaching instruction should be given to the parents of a child prescribed Tordol?
a) take it on an empty stomach b) avoid taking it with citrus drinks c) do not take it longer than 5 days d) call the doctor if gi bleeding persists for more than 24 hours |
c) do not take it longer than 5 days owing to the increased risk of gastritis and gi bleeding
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Patient teaching to the parents who have a child with sickle cell anemia includes:
a) wear a medic-alert bracelet b) seek medical attention promptly if a fever is detected c) receive pneumococcal and flu vaccinations d) do not take Tordol with other NSAIDs |
All of the above!
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How does Toradol work?
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It inhibits prostaglandin synthesis.
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Who is Toradol contraindicated in?
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Anyone with peptic ulcer disease or bleeding tendencies; and of course anyone with a sensitivity to aspirin or other NSAIDs.
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What supplement do patient's with sickle cell disease take to assist with red blood cell production?
a) erythromycin b) erythropoietin c) folic acid d) vitamin K |
c) folic acid
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What type of anemia involves a deficiency in the globin chains of the hemoglobin?
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Beta-thalassemia
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What is the main mode of treatment for beta-thalassemia?
a) erythropoietin administration b) bone marrow transplant c) blood transfusion d) plasmapheresis |
c) blood transfusions every 3-4 weeks
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Why might chelating agents need to be used in a patient who gets chronic blood transfusions?
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To remove the excess iron that accumulates due to the chronic blood transfusions.
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What type of medication is deferoxamine B (Desferal)?
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A chelating agent that bind to iron so that it can be excreted
*remember ferrous and DesFERal. |
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Why might a person getting chronic blood transfusions be monitored for hearing loss, diabetes and organ failure?
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Because these complications may occur as a result of iron deposits that may damage vital organs.
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What type of anemia is caused by deficient spectrin in the RBC membrane?
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hereditary spherocytosis
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How is the shape of the hereditary spherocytosis RBC different?
a) it is wide and flat b) it is a donut shape c) it is spherocyte d) elongated |
c) it is a spherocyte
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How is the bilirubin level affected in a patient with hereditary spherocytosis?
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It is elevated.
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Would a patient with hereditary spherocytosis test positive or negative on a Comb's test?
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Negative: A combs test is a blood test that tests for antibodies that bind to RBC cells and cause RBC death.
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What supplement can be given to treat mild to moderate cases of hereditary spherocytosis?
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folic acid: 1 mg/day
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Hemophilia is a group of bleeding disorders caused by a congenital (X or Y) deficiency of one of which two clotting factors?
a) X, VIII or IX b) Y, VIII or IX c) Y, VII or VIII d) X, IX or XI |
a) X, VIII or IX
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Are males or females usually affected by hemophilia?
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Males
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In hemophilia A, there is a deficiency of factor ___ and in hemophilia B, there is a deficiency of factor ___.
a) IX, VIII b) VIII, IX c) IX, IX d) VIII, VIII |
b) VIII, IX
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What is the most important test for hemophilia?
a) CBC b) metabolic panel c) direct assay of plasma d) reticulocyte count |
c) direct assay of plasma factor activity level
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What can be administered to prevent severe bleeding episodes in the child with hemophilia?
a) erythropoietin b) vitamin K c) potassium d) recombinant factors |
d) recombinant factors
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A child with Von Willebrand's disease is most at risk for:
a) bleeding b) infection c) sepsis d) RBC destruction |
a) bleeding: It is a disorder in which vWD which assists in forming the "platelet plug" is deficient.
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What medication can be given to a child with Von Willebrand's disease to increase the plasma vWF and factor VIII?
a) blood transfusion b) desmopressin c) corticosteroids d) erythropoietin |
b) desmopressin
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What disorder is characterized by thrombocytopenia and discoloration caused by petechia beneath the skin?
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Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura or ITP
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What most likely occurred recently in the child diagnoses with idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?
a) an infection b) trauma c) blood transfusion d) immunization reaction |
a) an infection
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Are blood transfusions recommended for the patient with ITP?
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No because the child's body will attach the newly transfused platelets just as it attacks its own.
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Any person with a bleeding disorder should avoid the use of: Check all that apply:
a) aspirin b) tylenol c) straight-edge razors d) tampons e) suppositories d) electric razors |
a) aspirin or aspirin containing products
c) straight-edge razors d) tampons e) suppositories |
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DIC is characterized by an abnormal coagulation process in which there is:
a) hemorrhaging b) thrombosis c) hemorrhaging and thrombosis d) RBC proliferation |
c) hemorrhaging and thrombosis
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Pancytopenia is a reduction in what components of the blood?
a) RBC b) WBC c) platelets d) all of them |
A reduction in ALL cellular elements of the blood.
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A patient with what type of anemia would have patchy brown melanin-like pigmentation of the skin (café-au-lait spots).
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Aplastic anemia.
*Because we like brown plastic |
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How is a diagnoses of aplastic anemia made?
a) CBC b) WBC count c) metabolic panel d) lumbar puncture e) bone marrow aspirate |
e) bone marrow aspirate
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How is the bone marrow altered in the patient with aplastic anemia?
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It is fatty with few developing blood cells.
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What type of transplant would best benefit a child with aplastic anemia?
a) bone marrow b) blood cell c) stem cell d) cord blood |
c) stem cell transplant
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True or False: All patients diagnosed with aplastic anemia are constantly showing signs of infection.
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False: These patients are extremely susceptible to infectious agents but they may not exhibit the classic signs of infection. A low fever or cough may be the only signs of a serious infection.
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What type of medications are antithymocyte globulin (ATG) and cyclosporine (Neoral, Gengraf)?
a) platelet aggregates b) immunosuppresants c) weak steroids d) stem cell stimulating drugs |
b) immunosuppresants used in the treatment of aplastic anemia
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Neupogen, a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor stimulates the growth of:
a) RBC b) platelets c) WBC d) all of the above |
c) WBC
*because neu things are white! |
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What are possible side effects of Neupogen?
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Fever, bone pain and headache
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Neutropenia occurs when an absolute neutrophil count is less than ___ in infants less than 1 year old and ___ for those older than 1.
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1000 for infants
1500 for 1+ |
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In a child with neutropenia a ___ may be the only clinical sign that an infection is present.
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fever
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What are children with neutropenia advised to avoid?
a) large crowds b) hot tubs c) fresh flowers d) stool droppings |
All of the above to reduce the incidence of infection.
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What blood tests are done to determine the ABO and Rh factor?
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a type and screen
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In a severe emergency situation what blood type can be administered without knowing the recipient's blood type?
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O negative
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What would a physician order if he wanted to administer blood to his patient?
a) CBC b) antibody resistance study c) type and screen d) type and crossmatch |
d) type and cross match: this is ordered when blood will definitely be administered: the patient's ABO and Rh type is determined and the donor ABO/RH cells are combined and prepared for transfusion
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What would a physician order in case his patient needs a blood transfusion?
a) CBC b) antibody resistance study c) type and screen d) type and crossmatch |
c) type and screen: this determines the ABO group and Rh type but the blood is not mixed or removed from inventory
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A platelet count of less than ___ warrants a platelet transfusion.
a) 20,000 b) 40,000 c) 100,000 d) 150,000 |
a) 20,000
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What type of blood is considered a universal receiver?
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AB+
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A blood transfusion must be started with ___ minutes after leaving the blood bank.
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30
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What PPE should be worn when administering a blood transfusion?
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at least goggles and gloves
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The nurse must remain with the patient getting a blood transfusion for the first 15 minutes:
a) if this is their first transfusion b) if they have a history of transfusion reaction c) if a type and cross match was not able to be done prior to administration d) every time a transfusion is performed |
d) every time a transfusion is performed to monitor for an adverse reaction
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What should be done with the transfusion bag after the transfusion is finished?
a) immediately dispose of it in a bio-hazardous container b) save it for an hour c) place it in a labeled lab specimen bag and send it to the lab d) put a bow on it and give it to your grandma for X-mas |
b) save it for an hour in case a transfusion reaction occurs and further investigation of the bag is needed
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Can a Jehovah Witness receive blood transfusions of their own blood?
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No, self-donation is also prohibited.
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Can the courts override a parent's religious decision not to administer blood to their child?
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Yes.
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During or after a blood transfusion, what is considered a febrile reaction?
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an increase in baseline temp by 1.8 degrees.
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If an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction has occurred, what might be evident in the urine?
a) blood b) WBC c) glucose d) protein |
a) blood: the presence of hemoglobin indicates intravascular hemolysis
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What might the following signs and symptoms indicate: fever, shaking chills, pain at the transfusion site, tightness of the chest, difficulties breathing, impending sense of doom, pallor, jaundice, n/v, red or black urine, flank pain, and progressive signs of shock such as tachycardia and hypotension?
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Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
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What is apheresis?
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When a specific component from a donor or child is removed from the blood.
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What electrolyte imbalance is a possible side effect of apheresis?
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hypocalcemia
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What is the primary developmental task for infancy?
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building an emotional attachment or a bond with the primary caregiver
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To ensure bonding, it is important for the parents to do what to their chronically ill child?
a) visually stimulate the child b) change diapers often c) feed them frequently d) hold them often |
d) hold them often
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What is the most common coping method employed by the chronically ill toddler?
a) regression b) projection c) funneling d) loss of memory |
a) regression
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How is a preschooler likely to interpret painful treatments, isolation, and separation from their parents?
a) as a normal part of life b) as punishment c) as negative reinforcement d) they have no interpretation/understanding |
b) as punishment for real or imagined wrongdoing
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What age group would story telling and reading books be an appropriate way to express fears and frustrations?
a) toddlers b) preschoolers c) school age d) adolescent |
b) preschooler
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How should the nurse refer to the child when speaking to the parents?
a) "Timmy" b) pediatric patient's c) "sick kids" d) little ones |
a) "Timmy": call the child by name.
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According to the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act, every child with a disability must have a written:
a) note from their doctor explaining their needs b) handicap form from the state educational office c) individualized education plan d) all of the above! |
c) individualized education plan (IEP)
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The nurse knows that fear of death may be present early in
a) infancy b) toddlerhood c) preschoolers d) school aged |
b) preschoolers: Age 3 and above
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When discussing death with a preschooler, it is important to:
a) not go into detail b) be honest c) defer the discussion to the child life specialist d) describe it as "going to sleep" |
b) be honest and simple; keep answers short
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|
What type of respirations are characteristic of impending death?
|
Cheyne-Stokes
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What is an important intervention that the nurse can do, to assit the family at the time of their child's death?
a) have tissue ready b) perform post mortem care quickly and professionally when the family steps out of the room for a breather c) ask that anyone who isn't family kindly leave d) be present |
d) be present; Presence includes a receptive, nonverbal posture that signals to the family that the nurse is willing to sit quietly and listen. Being present may reduce the family's feeling of isolation
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True or False: To help the grieving parents, the nurse might share a personal story of loss that she experienced to help comfort the parents and let them know that they are not alone.
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False: The nurse must also have the insight to realize that this is not the time to share personal stories about loss. It is important for the nurse to keep the focus on the family.
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Which of the following are inappropriate things to say to a dying child who asks what happens when they die? Check all that apply:
a) "you will simply fall asleep and pass on" b) "Its is God's will" c) "your journey will come to an end" |
All of the above; do not tell the child abstract ideas such as "God's will" or "a journey" as it will just further confuse them. Also never use references such as "going to sleep" as it will cause them to fear sleeping.
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Deviations from a healthy or normal grieving process such as poor decision making, violence or addictions, is an example of what type of grief?
a) pseudo b) psychological c) pathological d) etiological |
c) pathological grief
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The nurse knows that counseling and following up is needed how long after bereavement due to its known peak time?
a) 1-2 weeks b) 1-2 months c) 3-4 weeks d) 3-4 months |
d) 3-4 months
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When speaking to the family of a child that just passed away, which of the following phrases should you avoid. Check all that apply:
a) "I'm so sorry that Timmy passed away" b) "Time heals all wounds" c) "He lived so much longer then he could have" d) "You wouldn't have wanted him to suffer any longer" e) "This must have been terribly hard for you" |
b) "Time heals all wounds"
c) "He lived so much longer then he could have" d) "You wouldn't have wanted him to suffer any longer" These phrases minimize the loss and have little comforting effect. They may be upsetting to the family and make them feel that somehow this child's life has limited value. It is better to say nothing if you do no know what to say |
|
|
What usually drives parents to seek help for children with symptoms of ADHD?
|
Poor performance in school
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Which of the following are signs and symptoms of ADHD?
a) inability to complete projects b) extreme organization c) inappropriate repetition of actions d) social withdraw from friends and family |
a) inability to complete projects
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When does stranger anxiety typically occur? When does it decrease?
|
It typically occur between 7-12 months of age, and peaks between 9-18 months. It usually decreases for most children by age 2 1/2
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True or False: Evidence shows that poverty predisposes children and families to mental illness.
|
False: That is a flawed belief.
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|
The nurse knows that the most common psychiatric complaint to monitor for in children is:
a) fear b) anxiety c) ADHD d) OCD e) PTSD |
b) anxiety
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True or False: In a child, an occasional bout of feeling nervous accompanied by sweating, nausea, diarrhea, worry, and/or tearfulness is well within normal limits.
|
True
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The nurse may suggest using which program to help an 8 year old child with her anxiety disorder:
a) the Coping CAT program b) the red dress program c) an overnight stay at a psychiatric ward d) the blue dog program |
a) the Coping CAT program: A program designed for children ages 7-13 with anxiety disorders. It helps the child to develop skills to cope with anxiety, as well as techniques to decrease fears through systematic exposure to the feared object.
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What type of medication are Ritalin, Adderall and Strattera, and what do they treat?
|
They are stimulants that treat ADHD
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|
In terms of chromosomes, how is the child with down syndrome different?
|
They have 47 instead of 46
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The chances of having a child with down syndrome increase for woman over what age?
|
35
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|
What might be different about the palm of a child with down syndrome?
|
There is a single crease across the palm.
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|
How might the cry of an infant with down syndrome be different than a regular baby's cry?
|
It is a short high-pitched cry during infancy.
|
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The nurse knows the monitor the baby with down syndrome for
a) bilateral crackles b) enlarged lymph nodes c) a heart defect d) increased ICP |
c) a heart defect as 1/3 of babies with down syndrome have a heart defect
|
|
|
What are some of the physical issues a child with down syndrome could have?
|
GI abnormalities, visual and hearing problems, speech difficulties, sleep related issues, and hypothyroidism.
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True of False: Children with down syndrome are provided special placement in special education programs outside of the mainstream educational curriculum as mandated by the Education for the Disabilities Act of 1993.
|
False: Children with DS can be included in mainstream educational curriculum and society.
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|
What disorder do the following signs and symptoms describe: facial dysmorhic features(flat mid-face, short nose, short eye openings, thin upper lip, under developed jaw, groove in the upper lip), low birth weight, failure to thrive and microcephaly.
a) DS b) FASD c) PTSD d) hypopituitaryianism |
b) FASD (Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder)
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A child with significant inability to understand or recognize numbers or function of number, or copy them correctly, or follow sequences is termed:
a) dyslexia b) dyscalculia c) dysgraphia d) dyspresia |
b) dyscalculia
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|
In general, in terms of chemotherapy and radiation, are children able to tolerate more or less aggressive therapy?
|
They are generally more resilient than adults and can tolerate more aggressive therapy.
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|
What is the most common type of cancer in children?
|
ALL
|
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|
At what age does ALL peak in children?
|
2-5
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|
The nurse knows that there is an increased risk for ALL in children with:
a) down syndrome b) cataracts c) heart defects d) neurological defects |
a) down syndrome
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|
What are common enlarged organ issues that occur with ALL?
|
hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and enlarged lymph nodes
|
|
|
How is CNS prophylaxis administered?
|
Via lumbar puncture: it is injected into the the spinal canal.
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|
What is said to be the "master" because of its effect on growth and the functions of other glands in the body.
|
pituitary gland
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|
What two hormones does the thyroid gland produce?
|
T3 and T4
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|
Hypopituitary is an endocrine disorder characterized by a decreased production of ___ by the anterior pituitary.
a) ACTH b) GABA c) growth hormone d) cortisol |
c) growth hormone
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True or False: Usually in the neonatal period, infants with growth hormone deficiency are below expected weight and length.
|
False: Usually in the neonatal period, infants with GHD are of normal birth weight and length.
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|
When does the delayed or absent growth begin to be noticeable in the infant/child with GHD?
|
in the first 2 years of life
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|
How is the blood sugar altered in a child with GHD?
a) it is high b) it is low c) it is not affected |
b) it is low
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What do the following medications have in common? Insulin, glucagon, clonidine, arginine, and L-dopa?
|
They are all GH stimulants.
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|
During pituitary testing, peak GH levels less than ___ confirms a diagnoses of GHD.
a) 5 b) 10 c) 50 d) 100 |
b) 10
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|
What do the following have in common? ICP, gynecomastia, arthralgia and edema.
|
They are all side effects of GH replacement.
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|
What should the nurse encourage the parents of the child with GHD?
a) avoid contact sports b) visit the dentist regularly c) have monthly x-rays d) avoid contact with sick children |
b) visit the dentist regularly as GH treatments cause the child's teeth to be softer and much more susceptible to cavities.
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|
What does pituitary hyperfunction cause?
a) delayed growth of gonads b) foul smelling breath c) early puberty d) androgynous sex hormone secretion |
c) early puberty
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|
True or False: Generally, puberty occur between 8 and 13 years of age in girls and between 9 1/2 and 14 in boys.
|
True!
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|
What test might be performed on a male with pituitary hyperfunction?
a) chloride sweat test b) MRI c) chest x-ray d) EEG |
b) MRI due to the high incidence of CNS involvement in males a skull CT and/or MRI is usually indicated
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|
The nurse knows that many commercially purchased female products contain the hormone ____.
a) progesterone b) estrogen c) testosterone d) androgens |
b) estrogen
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|
What lifestyle changes can help to prevent premature sexual maturation?
|
decreasing stress and eating a low fat diet
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|
What condition is characterized by abnormal or overgrowth of the hands and feet, as well as other signs such as enlargement of the facial features in an adult? What would this disorder be called if it occurred in a child before the closure of the bone growth plates?
|
acromegaly-adult
gigantism-child |
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|
True or False: Most tumors of the pituitary gland are cancerous.
|
False: Most are noncancerous.
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|
In a patient with acromegaly, how are growth hormone levels tested?
|
With a glucose test in which the patient fasts overnight and then their serum GH is tested, then they are given a glucose drink and their serum GH are retested. Normally a healthy person's GH level would drop to less than 2. But in a child with gigantism, there would be an overproduction of GH, thus reduction would not be seen.
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|
What type of medications are used to reduce the release of GH secretion?
|
somatostatin analogs or dopamine
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|
Diabetes insipidus is caused when there is an insufficient production of what hormone?
|
ADH
|
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|
What organ secretes ADH and where is ADH stored before it is released?
|
It is secreted by the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary.
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|
Which of the following signs in a patient might signify diabetes insipidus?
a) headache b) deficient thirst c) fever d) diarrhea |
c) fever
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|
How is a diagnoses of diabetes insipidus confirmed in terms of the lab results of urine specific gravity and osmolarity, and sodium?
|
A person with diabetes insipidus would have urine with a low specific gravity (1.005 or less), a high osmolarity(greater than 300) and an elevated sodium.
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|
True or False: The diuretic chlorothiazide (Diuril) is given to increase urine volume by up to 75%.
|
False: It is given to DECREASE urine volume by up to 75%. (p.893 Ward).
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True or False: When assessing the child, the nurse checks skin turgor to assess for hypernatremic dehydration.
|
False: Skin turgor is not decreased despite the state of dehydration in a patient with hypernatremic dehydration.
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|
How is the child positioned for administration of intranasal DDAVP?
a) on their back b) on their side c) on their stomach d) sitting up right |
b) on their side in order to enhance the absorption of the medication. The child should also blow their nose prior to the administration.
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|
A child with SIADH would have high or low sodium?
|
low sodium as the water level increases, the relative concentration of sodium decreases
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|
How should medications be administered to a patient on a fluid restriction?
a) with no more than 60 mL of water each med administration b) with as little fluid as possible c) with meals d) in apple sauce only |
c) with meals to prevent any unnecessary fluid intake
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What type of diet should be encouraged to increase sodium excretion in the child with SIADH?
|
High sodium and high protein
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|
What endocrine disorder, if left untreated can lead to a goiter?
a) hypothyroidism b) hyperthyroidism c) hypoparathyroidism d) hyperparathyroidism |
a) hypothyroidism
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|
An infant presenting with prolonged newborn jaundice, poor feeding and constipation, cool mottled skin, increased sleepiness, decreased crying, larger than normal soft spots on the skull, umbilical hernia and a large tongue might have what endocrine disorder?
|
hypothyroidism
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|
How are T3 and T4 levels affected in hypothyroidism?
|
They are low.
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|
Patient teaching of the parents with a baby with a hypoactive thyroid includes:
a) be aware of unknown sources of iron b) avoid soy-based formula c) too much iron could cause a rebound increase in the growth of the goiter d) all of the above! |
b) avoid soy based formula as it decreases the absorption of levothyroxine (Synthroid) and will necessitate a larger dosage
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|
What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in children?
|
Graves
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|
|
Over-stimulation of the thyroid results in what endocrine disorder?
|
Hyperthyroidism
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|
|
Exophthalmos is associated with what endocrine disorder?
|
hyperthyroidism otherwise known as graves disease
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|
What is the relationship between TSH and T3/T4?
|
They are inversely proportional.
|
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|
How are T3/T4 and TSH levels altered in a person with Graves?
|
T3/T4 are high and TSH is low
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|
What do PTU (propylthiouracil) or MTZ (methimazole) do?
|
Lower the level of thyroid hormones by blocking the synthesis of T3 and T4.
|
|
|
How do beta-blocking agents help patients with hyperthyroidism?
|
They help to relieve tachycardia, restlessness and tremors but do NOT lower or effect the level of thyroid hormones in the body.
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|
What alteration in emotions can be expected of the child with Graves disease?
a) quiet and withdrawn b) crying and irritability c) denial and indifference d) shakiness and unsteadiness |
b) crying and irritability
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|
A patient presenting with hypermetabolic, high fevers, tachycardia, nausea vomiting, tremulousness, agitation, and psychosis with hypotension is most likely suffering from what?
|
thyroid storm
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|
What is the relationship between calcium and phosphate levels?
|
they are inversely proportionate
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|
How are calcium and phosphate levels altered in hypoparathyroidism?
|
Low calcium and high phosphate
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|
How are the magnesium and parathyroid hormone levels altered in hypoparathyroidism?
|
magnesium is low and parathyroid hormone is also low
|
|
|
When calcium levels are detected to be low, what special steps are taken?
|
Seizure precautions are initiated and telemetry is applied to monitor for cardiac arrhythmias and blood pressure for life-threatening hypotension.
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|
|
How do you test for Chvostek's sign and what does a positive indicate?
|
You tap on the facial nerve and if the face spasms this confirms the fact that there is hyperreflexia. This indicated low calcium.
|
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|
What do eggs and dairy products have in common?
a) they are high in calcium b) they are high in phosphorus c) they are high in potassium d) they are high in vitamin B |
b) they are high in phosphorus and should be limited in patients with low calcium
|
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|
Why might soda be ill advised in a patient with hypoparathyroidism?
|
Carbonated beverages are high in phosphates and may reduce calcium absorption.
|
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|
True or False: Dairy may diminish calcium absorption.
|
True, because dairy is high in phosphates which may reduce calcium absorption.
|
|
|
Why should caffeine be avoided in the patient with low calcium?
|
Because it further facilitates the removal of calcium through the urine.
|
|
|
True or False: Lab tests that reveal high calcium levels can be used to rule out bone demineralization.
|
False: Lab test that reveal high calcium levels do not rule out bone demineralization but actually confirm it as calcium levels increase when the bones demineralize.
|
|
|
What are some general signs of adrenal crisis?
|
weakness, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, weight loss, low blood pressure, abdominal pain, fever, confusion, or coma, diarrhea, cyanosis and dehydration
|
|
|
What meds are used initially to treat an adrenal crisis?
|
steroid IV hydrocortisone (A-Hydrocort) and antibiotic drugs are needed
|
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|
During treatment of adrenal crisis, the nurse knows to carefully monitor what electrolyte/neurotransmitter values? Check all that apply:
a) potassium b) sodium c) magnesium b) cortisol |
potassium, sodium, magnesium and cortisol
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|
Addisons disease is the result of an under stimulation of the adrenal gland that secretes insufficient ___ and ___.
a) sodium and cortisol b) cortisol and aldosterone c) aldosterone and sodium d) cortisol and aldosterone |
d) cortisol and aldosterone
|
|
|
Aldosterone is a steroid hormone that controls the blood level of what two electrolytes?
|
sodium and potassium
|
|
|
What hormone helps to control the body's metabolism of fats, proteins, and carbs, suppresses inflammation reactions in the body; and affects immune system functions.
|
cortisol
|
|
|
What lab results help to confirm a diagnoses of Addison's disease in terms of cortisol, sodium, potassium and blood sugar?
|
cortisol less than 3 mg/dL, low sodium, high potassium and low blood sugar are suggestive of Addison's
|
|
|
When are cortisol levels drawn and why?
|
They are drawn in the morning between 6 am and 8 am because the levels are the highest at this time owing to circadian rhythm.
|
|
|
During what situations might additional intramuscular hormone shots of cortisol need to be given?
|
During times of high stress(emotional or physical).
|
|
|
True or False: Patients with addisons are recommended to eat more salty food and drink more water in the hot weather to help maintain a mineral balance in the body and ward off a crisis.
|
True
|
|
|
What syndrome is characterized by an excessive amount of ACTH and an overload of glucocorticoids, usually tumor related?
|
Cushings.
|
|
|
The nurse knows that long-term administration or large amounts of ___ are also know to cause a child to present with Cushing's syndrome.
|
corticosteroids
|
|
|
Concerning the 24 hours urine cortisol, the nurse knows that results are "corrected" according to the child's:
a) weight in lbs b) weight in kg c) body surface area d) abdominal fat/body fat percentage |
c) body surface area
|
|
|
Describe the process of measuring saliva cortisol.
|
Saliva samples are taken both at midnight and in the morning.
|
|
|
When saliva is collected to test cortisol levels at midnight and again in the morning, the nurse knows that levels are highest in the ___. How is this pattern different in children with Cushing's syndrome?
|
Cortisol levels are highest in the morning, but children with Cushings have similar levels in the morning as at night.
|
|
|
The nurse knows that if a child's adrenal glands have be removed, ___ replacement is necessary.
|
cortisol
|
|
|
Children with congenital adrenal hyperplasia lack the ability to produce:
a) cortisol b) aldosterone c) glucose d) insulin |
a) cortisol.
|
|
|
In the child born with congenital adrenal hyperplasia, the abnormal production of ___ causes an abnormal development of sexual organs in male infants and virilization in females(ambiguous genitalia).
a) estrogen b) adrenaline c) androgens d) cortisol |
c) androgens
|
|
|
The nurse knows that elevated levels of ___ may indicate congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
a) corticastone b) 17-hydroxyprogesterone c) 21-oxyhydrase d) estrogen |
b) 17-hydroxyprogesterone
|
|
|
A child taking mineralcorticoids such as Florinef or hydrocortisone should be monitored for what side effects which might indicate the dosage is too high?
|
acne, high blood pressure or growth retardation
|
|
|
What happens to the sodium and potassium levels in a patient suspected of hyperaldosteronism?
|
high sodium and low potassium
|
|
|
A tumor of the adrenal gland would be termed:
a) adrenal carcinoma b) pheochromocytoma c) chromatoma d) pituitarichromocytoma |
b) pheochromocytoma
|
|
|
What is the most common sign of an adrenal tumor?
a) mood changes b) dizziness c) weight gain d) hypertension |
d) hypertension
|
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|
Immediately following the removal of an adrenal tumor, the nurse knows to monitor for:
a) hypotension and bradycardia b) hypotension and tachycardia c) hypertension and tachyarrhythmias d) hypertension and bradycardia |
c) hypertension and tachyarrhythmias
|
|
|
Why would phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline) be given to a patient planning on undergoing an adrenal gland tumor removal?
|
To avoid the challenging life-threating surgical complications associated with the excessive release of catecholamines. This medication is begun 1-3 weeks before surgery.
|
|
|
Is type I or type II diabetes insulin dependent?
|
Type I
|
|
|
What causes type I and type II diabetes?
|
type I: destruction of B-cells
type II: insulin resistance where the body fails to recognize and use insulin properly |
|
|
What type of insulin is cloudy and what is its duration(long/short/super long).
|
NPH: its has a long duration
|
|
|
What is the duration of NovoLog/Humalog and what color is it?
|
It has a short duration and it is clear. It is usually given immediately before meals.
|
|
|
The nurse knows that when insulin is administered:
a) it is shaken vigorously for 2 minutes b) it is allowed to warm to room temperature c) it is mixed with lantus if a longer duration is sought d) it can be administered with a tb syringe as long as the units are still measurable in mL |
b) it is allowed to warm to room temperature
|
|
|
If a child complains of pain from injections the nurse should instruct the parents to:
a) reuse syringes when possible b) use an injection site several times before moving to a new one c) inject the insulin right out of the refrigerator to minimize tissue irritation d) eject bubbles from the syringe prior injection |
d) eject bubbles from the syringe prior to injection
|
|
|
What percentage of the diet should carbs, fats and proteins each consume?
|
Carbs: 50-60
Fats: 20-30 Proteins: 10-20 |
|
|
What is a normal Hemoglobin A1C?
a) 4-6 b) 6-8 c) 8-10 d) 10-12 |
a) 4-6
|
|
|
What is the most frequent cause of DKA?
a) stress b) infection c) poor adherence to diet d) under-doing of insulin |
b) infection
|
|
|
What type of breathing is characteristic of a patient with
DKA? |
Kussmaul breaths
|
|
|
Describe Kussmaul breaths.
|
Very deep and laborious
|
|
|
Initially, patients with DKA are ___.
a) hypoglycemic b) hyponatremic c) hypernatremic d) hyperkalemic |
d) hyperkalemic
|
|
|
Which of the following occurs when a portion of the duodenum is compressed between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta, causing vomiting, abdominal distention and bowel obstruction?
a) cast syndrome b) compartment syndrome c) phantom pain d) paralytic ileus |
a) cast syndrome
|
|
|
How can cast syndrome be prevented?
a) minimize movement of the effected extremity b) maintain bedrest for 24-48 hours after application of the cast c) increase fluid and fiber d) avoid cutting any holes in the cast |
c) increase fluid and fiber
|
|
|
How can the edges of the cast be protected from drainage and soiling?
|
By petaling the cast with 1-inch adhesive tape and moleskin.
|
|
|
The nurse knows that pre-procedural teaching of the toddler involves:
a) demonstrating on a doll b) reading books about the procedure and therapeutic play c) looking at and manipulating the equipment d) explaining the procedure as you would to an adult |
a) demonstrating on a doll
|
|
|
The nurse knows that pre-procedural teaching of the preschool child involves:
a) showing a video b) reading books about the procedure and therapeutic play c) looking at and manipulating the equipment d) explaining the procedure as you would to an adult |
b) reading books about the procedure and therapeutic play
|
|
|
The nurse knows that pre-procedural teaching of the school age child involves:
a) demonstrating on a doll b) reading books about the procedure c) looking at and manipulating the equipment d) explaining the procedure as you would to an adult |
c) look at and manipulate equipment
|
|
|
The nurse knows that pre-procedural teaching of the adolescent involves:
a) demonstrating on a doll b) reading books about the procedure c) looking at and manipulating the equipment d) explaining the procedure as you would to an adult |
d) explaining the procedure as you would to an adult
|
|
|
At what age should a child be able to sit upright unsupported?
a) 3 months b) 6 months c) 8 months d) 12 months |
c) 8 months
|
|
|
At what time of day are growth hormones given?
|
At bedtime to mimic the body's natural release.
|
|
|
What type of traction is Bryant's traction?
a) skeletal b) skin c) Buck's d) internal fixation |
b) skin traction
|
|
|
The nurse knows that the child must ___ to use Bryant's traction
a) weight at least 26.4 lbs b) weight less than 26.4 lbs c) be able to lift their torso unsupported d) turn from side to side with minimal assistance |
b) weight less than 26.4 lbs
|
|
|
If a child weighs more than 26.4 lbs, what type of skin tractions should be used?
a) skeletal b) Bucks c) Bryants d) Russell's |
d) Russell's
|
|
|
True or False: With a patient in skin traction: The nurse knows to cleans the skin with rubbing alcohol to remove body oils that might cause the straps to slip.
|
True!
|
|
|
When is skin traction removed/and or reapplied?
a) every 4 hours b) never c) only in an emergency d) only if soiled |
a) every 4 hours in order to assess the skin and neurovascular status of the extremity
|
|
|
What is the maximum amount of weight that can be applied with skin tractions?
a) 1 lb b) 5 lbs c) 10 lbs d) 10-18 lbs |
b) 5 lbs
|
|
|
Children with AML may present with subcutaneous nodules called:
|
blueberry muffin lesions
|
|
|
A child with a brain tumor may present with which of the following, particularly in the morning:
a) piercing headache b) projectile vomiting c) vertigo d) tinnitus |
b) projectile vomiting
|
|
|
Which of the following subtle changes might precede other more odious signs of a brain tumor?
a) headache b) increasing ICP c) personality changes d) increasing BP |
c) personality changes
|
|
|
A caregiver notices a whitish glow in the pupil. What might the patient have?
|
Retinoblastoma: the white reflex is also known as a cat's eye reflex. Normally we have a red eye reflex typically seen in photographs
|
|
|
The nurse knows to particularly monitor what part of the body, due to it being the most common site of distant metastatic spread of osteosarcoma?
a) brain b) breast c) lungs d) liver |
c) lungs
|
|
|
What cell is considered the hallmark finding of hodgkin's disease?
a) Epstein-Barr b) Reed-Sternberg c) mylobastoma d) proliferating mastomitis |
b) Reed-Sternberg
|
|
|
Describe the lymph nodes that are suspected of cancer.
|
Painless, firm, and fixed.
|
|
|
What is often found in conjunction with a diagnosis of hodgkin's disease?
a) an anterior medialstinum mass b) a tuff of hair or dimple above the coccyx c) a posterior suprclavicular mass d) any of the above |
a) an anterior medialstinum mass
|
|
|
With non-hodgkin's disease, an elevated ____ correlates with the tumor mass size.
a) AST b) ALT c) serum lactic dehydrogenase d) serum Reed-Sternberg sensitivity test |
c) serum lactic dehydrogenase (great than 500)
|
|
|
Where do used chemo needles/IV sets/bag...exc get disposed?
a) in the trash b) in the bio-hazard bin c) in a special chemo bio-hazard bin d) it depends on which chemotherapy agent used |
c) in a special chemo bio-hazard bin
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True or False: More than 1/4 of the liver can be removed because the liver can regenerate or regrow.
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False: More than 3/4 (not 1/4)of the liver can be removed because the liver ca regenerate or regrow.
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With both hepatoblastoma and hepatocellular carcinoma, a protein called ___ can be detected in the blood which indicate the success or failure of treatment.
a) AFH b) AFP c) HFA d) AFH |
b) AFP alphafetoprotein
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Which of the following are associated with an increased risk for testicular cancer?
a) undescended testes b) gynecomastia c) late onset of puberty d) early onset of puberty |
a) undescended testes
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Which of the following are known to cause heartburn or reflux?
a) milk b) cinnamon and peppermint c) bananas d) ice cream |
b) cinnamon and peppermint
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What type of flushing needs to be performed on central tunneled catheters such as Broviac or Hickman?
a) 5 mL saline b) daily heparin c) 5-10 mL saline d) 5 mL sterile water |
b) daily heparin(exact number of mL varies per hospital)
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PICC line are flushed daily with:
a) 5-10 mL sterile water b) 5 mL heparin c) 10 mL heparin d) 5-10 mL saline |
d) 5-10 mL saline
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What is important for the nurse to ensure following administration of chemo?
a) adequate hydration b) a meal is ready as chemo meds shouldn't be given on an empty stomach c) narcan is available d) the child is restrained in case of an adverse reaction |
a) adequate hydration to that the chemotherapeutic agent is flushed out of their system
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How should Zofran be administered in conjunction with chemo to prevent chemo induced nausea?
a) 30 minutes after starting chemo b) PRN, if nausea or vomiting occurs c) concurrently with chemo d) 30 minutes before chemo |
d) 30 minutes before chem
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Which of the following medications can be used as an antiemetic for chemo? Check all that apply:
a) ibuprofen b) Ativan c) benadryl d) mint tea |
b) Ativan
c) benadryl |
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A child asks when she hair will start to fall out after starting chemo, what do you tell her?
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10 days to 2 weeks after chemo begins, and it may fall out in sections
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What is important to know about nitrosoureas chemotherapy agents?
a) they can cause blindness b) they cross the blood brain barrier c) they cause a red discoloration of the urine d) they cannot be taken with antiemetics |
b) they cross the blood brain barrier
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What are the 2 mains actions of Cytoxan, a chemo drug?
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It suppresses the immune system and slows cellular growth.
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What is important to know about the use of Cytoxan?
a) it is a carcinogenic b) it preserves hair, and minimized hair loss c) it cannot be given to children d) it must be taken with a plant alkaloid to be effective |
a) it is a carcinogenic(cancer causing agent) Many years down the line, patients may develop bladder cancer.
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What type of chemo drug is Vincristine (Oncovin) and what are the main side effects?
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It is a plant alkaloid and its main side effects are hair loss, hyponatremia, and peripheral neuropathy
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Which of the following chemo meds has a side effect of red urine?
a) Carboplatin b) Doxorubicin c) Cytoxin d) Vincristine |
b) remember Doxorubicin: has rub as in ruby red urine
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